(101) Discuss the concept of ORM.
Method to identify hazards, assesses risk and implement controls to reduce the risk associated with any operation.
(101) State the three objectives of first aid.
Prevent or treat shock
(101) State the three methods of controlling bleeding.
(101) Describe the methods for clearing an obstructed airway. .
Standing abdominal thrust
Reclining abdominal thrust
Standing chest thrust
Reclining chest thrust
(101) State the goal of the Navy's Hearing Conservation Program.
To prevent Occupational hearing loss and assure auditory fitness for duty of all Navy personnel.
(101) Describe the purpose of Emissions Controls (EMCON).
- prevent an enemy from detecting, identifying,and locating friendly forces.
- used to minimize Electromagnetic interference among friendly systems
(101) State the difference between an "open" and "closed" fracture.
Open fracture is when the bone is open through the skin
Open fracture is when the bone is open through the skin
Closed fracture skin over the fracture is in tact
(101) What is a Danger tag?
A red tag prohibiting operation or removal of equipment that could jeopardize safety of personnel or endanger equipment, systems, or components
(101) Describe the purpose and content of a Maintenance
Requirement Card (MRC).
detailed procedures for performing
maintenance requirements and describes who, what, how, and with what resources a specific requirement will be accomplished. NAVSEAINST 4790.8, Ships Maintenance and Material Management Manual
(101) What is a Caution tag?
used as a precautionary measure to provide temporary special instruction or to
indicate that unusual action must be exercised to operate equipment.
(101) Explain general and specific safety precautions on a MRC.
Direct attention to possible hazards to personnel while doing maintenance.
Specific safety categories are:
(1) Warning: Death or injury may result if the operating/handling procedures and practices are not correctly followed.
(2) Caution: Damage to equipment may result if the operating procedures and practices, etc. are not correctly followed.
(102) What are the six areas that comprise the Naval Doctrine?
COMMAND AND CONTROL
(102) What three classes of naval vessels existed at the inception of the navy?
Ships of the Line
Sloops of War
(102) What are the qualities that characterize the Navy/Marine Corps team as instruments to support national policies?
(102) What was the importance of the National Security Act of 1947?
- signed by President Truman
- established the Central Intelligence Agency (CIA)
- War Department and Navy Department merged into Department of Defense under the Secretary of Defense
- created Department of the Air Force.
- Each of the three branches maintained their own service secretaries.
• In 1949 the act was amended to give the Secretary of Defense more power
over the individual services and their secretaries. Created the Armed Forces
(102) What is the Purple Code?
Cryptologic machine used by Japan and Germany during WWII. Once broke, allowed the allies to read dispatches between Japan and Germany.
(102) What was the world's first operational packet switching network?
ARPANET (Advanced Research Projects Agency Network)
(102) Who was John Walker?
Compromised US Navy cryptographic systems and classified information from 1967 to , Along with his brother, son, and friend.
(103) What is the Mission of the United States Navy?
The mission of the Navy is to maintain, train and equip combat-ready naval forces capable of winning wars, deterring aggression and maintaining freedom of the seas.
(103) Explain the mission of the National Air and Space Intelligence Center (NASIC).
Primary DoD producer of foreign aerospace intelligence
(103) What is the purpose of the Center for Information Dominance (CID)?
Develop warfighters by providing the right training, at the right time, in
the right place
(103) State all of the Naval Computer and Telecommunication Stations (NCTS).
San diego, Jacksonville
Far East, Guam
(103) State what a Telecommunications Service Request (TSR) is.
requires additions, deletions, or changes in existing Defense Communications System (DCS) circuits, a TSR is initiated
(104) Under the National Command Authority, who trains and equips the military forces?
(104) Under the National Command Authority, who plans and coordinates military deployments and operations?
Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff
(104) What is the function of a Unified Command?
A joint military command composed of forces from two or more services, has a broad and continuing mission, and is organized either on a geographical basis (known as "Area Of Responsibility", AOR) or on a functional basis.
(104) What is the EDVR?
Enlisted Distribution Verification Report (EDVR)
- monthly statement of an activity's enlisted personnel account
- A summary by distribution community of the present and future manning status of the activity.
- permanent historical record of an activity's enlisted personnel Account
(104) What is the AMD?
Activity Manpower Document (AMD) the single official statement of funded & unfunded requirements (manpower authorizations or B/A) for each UIC.
(104) What are the due dates for enlisted evaluation reports?
E3. E2, E1 (July)
E7, E8 ( September)
(104) What test is used to test the knowledge of a language in the Navy?
Defense Language Proficiency Test (DLPT)
(104) UNIT SITREP
a SITREP category is used to report to higher authority any incident that affects mission, but does not warrant an OPREP-3 report
(104) What is the 'Perform to Serve' program?
A long-term force shaping tool that aids in leveling rating manning between overmanned and undermanned ratings, while managing the quality of reenlistment applicants by controlling the authority for reenlistment
(104) How often and what percent of the command must be randomly screened for urinalysis testing during every month?
15 percent of assigned personnel
at least four tests per month
(104) What are the six programs of "Brilliant on the Basics"?
• Sponsorship/first 72 hours
• Assign a Mentor
• Leadership: Career Development Boards (CDBs)
• Ombudsman program
(105) Define the purpose of personnel security.
authorize initial and continued access to classified information and/or initial and continued assignment to sensitive duties to those persons whose loyalty, reliability and trustworthiness are such that entrusting them with classified information or assigning them to sensitive duties is clearly consistent with the interests of
(105) Identify the directives used as a guideline for governing personnel security.
(105) State how often an individual's Single Scope Background Investigation (SSBI) should be updated, and by what means it is done.
every 5 years via SF-86 from E-QIP
(105) Identify what a Security Access Eligibility Report (SAER) is and what it is used for.
Identifies personnel access dispositions from Command Security Managers based upon Need to Know and Security Access Level.
(105) State five (four) reasons why a SAER should be submitted on an individual.
-Upgrade in Security Clearance due to position change
-Downgrade of Security Clearance due to disciplinary actions or NJP.
-Operation Requirements dictate level of information processed be
-Member found unfit to hold access due to Medical Action.
(105) Identify five events that should be reported to the SSO.
1. Information Spillage
2. Reportable PDS
3. Unauthorized Space Access
4. Security Violations
5. Results of Major medical evaluations
(105) State when safe combinations should be changed.
- Lock is initially placed - Person having knowledge of the combination no longer requires access.
- Combination compromise.
- Combination out of service.
- Maintenance has been performed on the combination lock.
(105) Give the definition of FDO and state its responsibilities.
Foreign Disclosure Officer - approve the disclosure of classified and controlled unclassified military information to foreign representatives
(105) State the purpose of the Defense Courier Service.
Provides Safe Transport of DCMS/EKMS material and Equipment by Authorized DOD personnel.
(105) State who is responsible for safe keeping/storage of TS material within the command.
Top Secret Control Officer
(307) What is DISA and how does it relate to NCTAMS Det Rota Tech Control?
Defense Information Systems Agency
Defense Information Systems Agency
DISA oversees NCTAMS activities to include the real-time transmission system configuration control, quality assurance, quality control, alternate routing, patching, testing, directing, coordinating, restoring, and reporting functions necessary for effective maintenance of transmission paths and facilities.
(307) What is the MSL, and what types of information that need to be entered in the MSL?
Master Station Log - An official narrative record maintained to record significant events. Power failures, complete system outages, major equipment outages or impairments and any event that may have an impact on operations, time verification, shift or watch changes, special tests
(307) What is NREMS?
Navy regional Enterprise Messaging System - A web based messaging system that allows users to send and receive DMS messages using a web browser.
(307) What is a DSR?
DSR - Delayed Service Request - Message detailing why services requested have not been completed
(307) What is an ATM and where is it located?
Asynchronous Transfer Mode Switch - A dedicated connection switching technology that organizes digital data into 53-byte cell units and transmits them over a physical medium using digital signal technology. Located in SYSCON.
(307) What is OTAM?
Over the Air Monitoring - used to ensure fleet broadcast is being broadcast correctly.
(307) What is BCA?
Broadcast Control Authority - Provides direction and guidance to govern its assigned broadcast employment, configuration and content.
(307) Which Broadcast is NCTAMS Det Rota capable of putting out?
LMUL - LANT Multichannel Broadcast - Fleet Broadcast provided to the Atlantic Area of Communication.
(306) How many lines can the current configured Rota CS1000M support?
a. Switch can provide up to 6200 standard two-wire telephone lines, 240 ISDN BRI lines
b. Can be configured to provide up to 24,400 lines.
(306) How many switches make up the Rota's CS1000M and where are they located?
a. 7 switches.
b. 3307 primary switch provides all incoming and outgoing commercial and DSN phone switching.
c. Bldg 1802 (hospital sw)
d. Bldg 37 (housing sw)
e. Bldg 357 (Camp Mitchell sw)
f. Bldg 5 (Flight Line sw)
g. Bldg 567 (Barracks sw)
h. Bldg 463 (Weapons sw)
(306) What different type of phone switches make up Rota's CS1000M and where are they located?
a. Nortel Meridian Option 81 (bldg 3307)
b. Nortel Meridian Option 61 (bldg 37, 1802 and 567)
c. Nortel Meridian Option 11 (bldg 5, 357 and 463)
(306) Describe the Defense Switch Network.
a. DSN is an interbase, non-secure or secure C2 telecommunications system that provides end-to-end command use and dedicated telephone service, voice-band data, and dial-up VTC for C2 and non-C2 DoD authorized users in accordance with national security directives.
(305) How many EDGs does NCTAMS LANT Det Rota Spain have?
b. 1 at 3307
c. 2 at SATCOM
d. 3 at bldg 8
(305) Identify the number fuel tanks for each EDG.
a. DSN Shop-One150 Gallon Tank underneath generator.
b. SATCOM-Two 100 gallon day tanks and one 3,000 gallon tank underneath generator facility
c. SYSCON-Three 125 gallon day tanks and a 5,000 gallon tank underneath generator facility
(305) What is the Length of Load Service for the batteries for each of the 7 phone switches?
a. Approx. 8 hours for each site.
(305) What is the time allowed for the EDG to assume a power load with loss of local power?
a. DSN Facility - Within a minimum of 10 seconds, maximum 60 seconds the EDG will energize and assume the load
b. SATCOMM - Within a minimum of 10 seconds, maximum 60 seconds the EDG will energize and assume the load
c. SYSCON - In the event of a power drain/spike (+/- 10% Voltage, +/- 1.5% Frequency), for a period of 5 seconds, EDG will assume load. Within a minimum of 10 seconds, maximum 60 seconds, #1EDG will energize and assume the load while #2 EDG energizes and begins the parallel process.
(304) What are the services provided by NCTAMS LANT DET Rota's SATCOM facility?
Rota SATCOM provides Fleet Broadcast via the USC-38 EHF Terminal.
(304) What are the responsibilities of the SATCOM Watch Supervisor?
Responsible for maintaining all of NCTAMS LANT DET Rota's Satellite Communication's systems, including the USC-38 EHF Terminal and the GSC-52 SHF Terminal.
(304) How many EHF terminals does Rota manage, and on behalf of whom?
NCTAMS Rota manages one legacy EHF terminal for NCTAMS LANT.
(304) What satellites are accessed using the NCTAMS Rota EHF Terminal?
NCTAMS Rota primarily uses the UFO satellites for transmitting Fleet Broadcast. The EHF terminal can also use the MILSTAR and FEP satellites.
(304) What does the MILSTAR satellite have that UFO and FEP satellites do not?
The MILSTAR satellite has the Medium Data Rate (MDR) payload, which provides a higher bandwidth signal to a receiving terminal.
(304) What is a priviliged EHF Terminal?
A privileged EHF terminal is one that has access perform functions (e. g., activate or modify service, move spot beams, activate or modify point-to-point calls) which affect other terminals.
(304) What are spot beams, and who controls them?
Spot beams provide a concentrated beam of energy on the earth within a geographical area (e.g., 1°, 1.7°, and 5°) that is controlled and pointed by a designated terminal. The 1° and 5° spot beams are used primarily for Navy strike group and task force operation. Army Ground Mobile Forces (GMF) primarily uses the 1.7° spot beam. These beams are controlled by the satellite controller, in our case NCTAMS LANT.
(303) DEFINE COMSEC.
a. Measures and controls taken to deny unauthorized persons information derived from telecommunications and ensure the authenticity of such telecommunications
(303) DEFINE TWO-PERSON INTEGRITY.
a. The security measure taken to prevent single person access to COMSEC keying material and cryptographic maintenance manuals.
(303) DEFINE THE 3 CLASSIFICATION LEVELS USED BY THE UNITED STATES GOVERNMENT FOR INFORMATION AND EQUIPMENT MARKING:
a. Top Secret, Secret, Confidential
(303) WHERE IS THE AUTHORITY TO FOLLOW THROUGH WITH THE EMERGENCY ACTION PLAN DERIVED FROM?
a. THE OFFICER IN CHARGE
(302) What is Information Assurance?
Technical and managerial measures of protecting information and information systems by ensuring confidentiality, integrity, availability, authentication and non-repudiation.
(302) What does Confidentiality provide?
Assurance that information is not disclosed to unauthorized individuals, process or devices.
(302) What does Integrity provide?
Protection against unauthorized modification or destruction of information ensuring information is correct and reliable.
(302) What does Availability provide?
Timely, reliable access to data and information services for authorized users
(302) What is authentication?
Security measure designed to establish the validity of a transmission, message, or originator, or a means of verifying an individual's authorization to receive specific categories of information.
(302) What is meant by Defense-in-Depth (DiD)?
Establishes an IA posture in a share-risk environment through the integration of people, technology and operations; the layering of IA controls to defend against computer attacks from both external and internal threats.
(302) What is Risk Management?
The process that allows IT managers to balance operational and economic costs of protective measures to achieve gains in mission capability by protecting IT systems and data. A risk to all systems in a network is a risk to all. Effective risk management reduces risks to an acceptable level for operational use.
(302) Describe the purpose of DIACAP program?
The program defines the process and procedures that ensure adequate IS Information Assurance Controls (IACs) are implemented and tested, that any remaining risks are assessed and evaluated before accrediting the IS, and that security plans are continuously maintained and monitored for their effectiveness
(302) What does NCDOC provide?
The frontline in investigating and defending against computer network intrusions on the Navy Global Information Grid (GIG).
(302) What does JTF-GNO provide?
Directs the operation and defense of the Global Information Grid across strategic, operational, and tactical boundaries in support of DoD's full spectrum of war fighting, intelligence, and business operations.
(302) Define INFOCON.
Information Operations Condition (INFOCON) system is a commander's alert
system that establishes a uniform process for posturing and defending against malicious activity targeted against DoD information systems and networks.
Commanders at all levels of the Department of Defense are authorized to
elevate INFOCONs for information systems and networks within their area of authority to levels higher than the DoD level.
(301) Give the definition of a Service Level Agreement (SLA).
A service level agreement (SLA) is a written contract stating how long technicians have to resolve computer/network related issues.
(301) How many SL's are there and which is the highest?
SL1, SL2, SL3 with SL1 being the highest
(301) How many SL1 customers are on NAVSTA and who are they?
5 CO, XO, CMC, CTF-68 Commodore and EOC (emergency situations).
(301) What is the purpose and function of United States Cyber Command (USCYBERCOM).
The purpose of the US Cyber Command is to coordinate computer-network defense and direct U.S. cyber-attack operations.
(301) What is a classification spillage and what is the corrective action?
When Secret or Top Secret information is leaked onto a computer that isn't qualified to hold the information.
You must first find all computers that were affected by the spillage and then wipe them all clean.
(301) What is the definition of INFOCON and how many levels are there?
Information Operations Condition (INFOCON) is a threat level system in the United States similar to that of FPCON. INFOCON is a defense system based primarily on the status of information systems and is a method used by the military to defend against a computer network attack.
There are 5 levels and level 1 is max alertness.
(301) What does a Domain Name Server (DNS) do for you?
A Domain Name Server's most important function is the translation (resolution) of humanly memorable domain names and hostnames into the corresponding numeric Internet Protocol (IP) addresses, the second principle Internet name space, used to identify and locate computer systems and resources on the Internet.
(301) What does a TACLANE enable you to receive and how?
Network encryption device developed by the National Security Agency (NSA) to provide network communications security on Internet Protocol (IP) and Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) networks.
(301) What is a Access Control List (ACL)?
With respect to a computer file system, an Access Control List (ACL) is a list of permissions attached to an object. An ACL specifies which users—or system processes—are granted access to objects, as well as what operations are allowed to be performed on given objects. In a typical ACL, each entry in the list specifies a subject and an operation superceded by
permit or deny.
(301) What actions should be taken to deal with email born viruses?
Never open any suspicious email. Backup files frequently, update anti-virus software.