microbiology chapter 12 and 13

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Substances that are naturally produced by certain microorganisms that can inhibit or destroy other microorganisms are called
A. Broad-spectrum drugs
B. Semi-synthetic drugs
C. Narrow-spectrum drugs
D. Synthetic drugs
E. Antibiotics

Antibiotics

The use of any chemical in the treatment, relief or prophylaxis of a disease is called
A. Selective toxicity
B. Chemotherapy
C. Nephrotoxicity
D. Prophylaxis
E. Synergism

Chemotherapy

Important characteristics of antimicrobial drugs include
A. Low toxicity for human tissues
B. Do not cause serious side effects in humans
C. All of the choices are correct
D. Stable and soluble in body tissues and fluids
E. High toxicity against microbial cells

All of the choices are correct

Antiviral drugs that target reverse transcriptase would be used to treat
A. Herpes zoster virus
B. HIV
C. Respiratory syncytial virus
D. Influenza A virus
E. Hepatitis C virus

HIV

The use of a drug to prevent imminent infection is called
A. Synergism
B. Competitive inhibition
C. Lantibiotics
D. Prophylaxis
E. Prebiotics

Prophylaxis

Selective toxicity refers to
A. Damage to pathogenic organisms
B. Damage to nucleic acids
C. Damage to prokaryotic cell membranes
D. None of the choices are correct
E. Damage to the target organisms but not vertebrate cells

Damage to the target organisms but not vertebrate cells

What drug is used in cases of penicillin and methicillin resistance and also used to treat endocarditis?
A. Erythromycin
B. Penicillin G
C. Tetracycline
D. Isoniazid
E. Vancomycin

Vancomycin

The major source of naturally produced penicillin is the mold
A. Penicillium notatum
B. Penicilium chrysogenum
C. Naturally produced penicillin is no longer used
D. Penicilium familiaris
E. None of the choices are correct

Penicilium chrysogenum

Each of the following effect cell walls except
A. Cephalosporin
B. Cycloserine
C. Vancomycin
D. Erythromycin
E. Penicillin

Erythromycin

Which of the following microbials does not inhibit DNA synthesis?
A. Azidothymidine
B. Quinolone
C. Penicillin
D. Acyclovir
E. Chloroquine

Penicillin

Each of the following target prokaryotic ribosomes except
A. Streptomycin
B. Polymyxins
C. Erythromycin
D. Gentamycin
E. Tetracycline

Polymyxins

A chemical that inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes is
A. Penicillinase
B. Synercid
C. Clavulanic acid
D. Aztreonam
E. Imipenem

Clavulanic acid

Which drug is used to treat cases of tuberculosis?
A. Isoniazid
B. Vancomycin
C. Synercid
D. Penicillin G
E. Tetracycline

Isoniazid

Which antibiotic is used to treat MRSA and VRE infections?
A. Synercid
B. Clarithromycin
C. Linezolid
D. Clindamycin
E. Azithromycin

Linezolid

Which of the following is not a drug group used to treat fungal infections?
A. Quinolones
B. Flucytosine
C. Macrolide polyene antibiotics
D. Griseofulvin
E. Synthetic azoles

Quinolones

The antifungal drug that can be used to treat serious systemic fungal infections is
A. Griseofulvin
B. Nystatin
C. Sulfa drugs
D. Metronidazole
E. Amphotericin B

Amphotericin B

Which antimicrobial does not interfere with protein synthesis?
A. Trimethroprim
B. Erythromycin
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Tetracyclines
E. Aminoglycosides

Trimethroprim

Antimicrobials that are macrolides
A. Include azithromycin, clarithromcyin and erythromycin
B. Are very narrow-spectrum drugs
C. Are hepatotoxic
D. Disrupt cell membrane function
E. Include tetracyclines

Include azithromycin, clarithromcyin and erythromycin

Mebendazole, thiabendazole and ivermectin are drugs used to treat _____ infections
A. Fungal
B. Virus
C. Protozoan
D. Helminthic
E. Bacterial

Helminthic

The use of vaginal inserts of Lactobacillus to restore a healthy acidic environment is an example of
A. Lantibiotics
B. Phytobiotics
C. Prebiotics
D. Probiotics
E. Riboswitches

Probiotics

The _____ are drugs that deposit in developing teeth and cause a permanent brown discoloration.
A. Penicillins
B. Macrolides
C. Streptomycins
D. Cephalosporins
E. Tetracyclins

Tetracyclins

The cellular basis for bacterial resistance to antimicrobials include
A. All of the choices are correct
B. Bacterial chromosomal mutations
C. Synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure
D. Alteration of drug receptors on cell targets
E. Prevention of drug entry into the cell

All of the choices are correct

Each of the following result in drug resistance except
A. Drug used as a nutrient by the cell
B. Drug binding site altered
C. Drug inactivated
D. Drug blocked from entering cell
E. Drug pumped out of the cell

Drug used as a nutrient by the cell

Nutrients that encourage the growth of beneficial microbes in the intestines are known as
A. Riboswitches
B. Lantibiotics
C. Probiotics
D. Phytobiotics
E. Prebiotics

Prebiotics

Which Therapeutic Index value would be the drug of choice?
A. 20
B. 10
C. Any would be equally effective
D. 1
E. 0.1

20

Infection occurs when
A. Pathogens enter and multiply in body tissues
B. All of the choices are correct
C. Contaminants are present on the skin
D. A person inhales microbes in the air
E. A person swallows microbes in/on food

Pathogens enter and multiply in body tissues

Endogenous infectious agents arise from microbes that are
A. In the air
B. In the food
C. Transmitted form one person to another
D. The patient's own normal biota
E. On fomites

The patient's own normal biota

Normal biota includes each of the following except
A. Protozoan
B. Fungi
C. Bacteria
D. All of the choices are correct
E. Viruses

All of the choices are correct

The affect of "good" microbes against invading microbes is called
A. Microbial antagonism
B. Gnotobiotism
C. Infectious disease
D. Endogenous infection
E. Axenic

Microbial antagonism

A _____ is an infection indigenous to animals that can, on occasion, be transmitted to humans.
A. Zoonosis
B. Nosocomial infection
C. Sequelae
D. None of the choices are correct
E. Secondary infection

Zoonosis

Pathogenic microbes that cause disease in healthy people are called
A. Micropathogens
B. Opportunistic pathogens
C. Indigenous biota
D. Normal biota
E. True pathogens

True pathogens

Which of the following is not a factor that weakens host defenses against infections?
A. Physical and mental stress
B. Old age
C. Chemotherapy
D. Strong, healthy body
E. Genetic defects in immunity

Strong, healthy body

TORCH is an acronym that represents the most common
A. Genera of resident biota
B. Sexually transmitted diseases
C. Portals of entry
D. Vectors
E. Infections of the fetus and neonate

Infections of the fetus and neonate

An infectious agent that originates from outside the body is called
A. Axenic
B. Exogenous
C. Endogenous
D. An enterotoxin
E. An exotoxin

Exogenous

An infectious agent already existing on or in the body are called
A. Axenic
B. Exogenous
C. Endogenous
D. An enterotoxin
E. An exotoxin

Endogenous

Which of the following is not a method of adhesion?
A. Fimbriae
B. Adhesive slime or capsules
C. Cilia
D. Specialized receptors
E. Surface proteins

Cilia

Virulence factors include all the following except
A. Exotoxin
B. Ribosomes
C. Capsules
D. Exoenzymes
E. Endotoxin

Ribosomes

Which is mismatched?
A. Fimbriae - adherence to substrate
B. Coagulase - dissolve fibrin clots
C. Capsules - antiphagocytic factor
D. Leukocidins - damage white blood cells
E. Hemolysins - damage red blood cells

Coagulase - dissolve fibrin clots

Keritinase has the greatest effect on the
A. Respiratory system
B. Gastrointestinal system
C. Skin
D. Genital system
E. Urinary system

Skin

_____ are toxins that are the lipopolysaccharide of the outer membrane of gram negative cell walls.
A. Endotoxins
B. Enterotoxins
C. Exotoxins
D. Hemolysins
E. Leukocidins

Endotoxins

_____ are various bacterial enzymes that dissolve fibrin clots.
A. Coagulases
B. Kinases
C. Mucinases
D. Keratinases
E. Hyaluronidases

Kinases

The time from when pathogen first enters the body and begins to multiply, until symptoms first appear is the
A. Prodromal stage
B. Incubation period
C. Period of invasion
D. None of the choices are correct
E. Convalescent stage

Incubation period

The initial, brief period of early, general symptoms such as fatigue and muscle aches is the
A. Prodromal stage
B. Convalescent stage
C. Period of invasion
D. None of the choices are correct
E. Incubation period

Prodromal stage

Which is mismatched?
A. Acute infection - rapid onset of severe, short-lived symptoms
B. Mixed infection - several agents established at infection site
C. Local infection - pathogen remains at or near entry site
D. Toxemia - pathogen's toxins carried by the blood to target tissues
E. Secondary infection - infection spreads to several tissue sites

Secondary infection - infection spreads to several tissue sites

The objective, measurable evidence of disease evaluated by an observer is termed a/an
A. Sign
B. Symptom
C. Inflammation
D. Syndrome
E. Pathology

Sign

Leukopenia is the _____ in the level of white blood cells in a patient.
A. Decrease
B. Elevation
C. Stabilization

Decrease

A _____ is the presence of small numbers of bacteria in the blood.
A. Bacteremia
B. None of the choices are correct
C. Septicemia
D. Viremia

Bacteremia

Infections that go unnoticed because there are no symptoms are called
A. Malaise
B. Inflammation
C. Syndrome
D. Asymptomatic
E. Secondary infection

Asymptomatic

Which of the following is not a normal portal of exit of an infectious disease?
A. All of these are normal exit portals
B. Coughing and sneezing
C. Skin
D. Removal of blood
E. Urogenital tract and feces

All of these are normal exit portals

An animal, such as an arthropod, that transmits a pathogen from one host to another is a
A. Vector
B. Source
C. Reservoir
D. Fomite
E. Carrier

Vector

Someone who inconspicuously harbors a pathogen and spreads it to others is a
A. Fomite
B. Carrier
C. Vector
D. Reservoir
E. Source

Carrier

The intermediary object or individual from which the infectious agent is actually acquired is termed the
A. Carrier
B. Fomite
C. Vector
D. Source
E. Reservoir

Source

Diseases that cause long-term or permanent damage leave
A. Sequelae
B. Chronically
C. Latent
D. Directly
E. Indirectly

Sequelae

Animals that participate in the life cycles of pathogens and transmit pathogens from host to host are
A. Droplet nuclei
B. Aerosols
C. Fomites
D. Biological vectors
E. Mechanical vectors

Biological vectors

The number of new cases of a disease in a population over a specific period of time compared with the healthy population is the
A. Epidemic rate
B. Morbidity rate
C. Mortality rate
D. Prevalence rate
E. Incidence rate

Incidence rate

_____ carriers are shedding and transmitting pathogen while they are recovering from an infectious disease.
A. Incubation
B. Asymptomatic
C. Passive
D. Chronic
E. Convalescent

Convalescent

An inanimate object that harbors and transmits a pathogen is a
A. Fomite
B. Source
C. Vector
D. Reservoir
E. Carrier

Fomite

The dried residues of fine droplets from mucus or saliva that harbor and transmit pathogen are
A. Droplet nuclei
B. Mechanical vectors
C. Biological vectors
D. Fomites
E. Aerosols

Droplet nuclei

A disease that has a steady frequency over time in a particular geographic location is
A. Sporadic
B. Endemic
C. Chronic
D. Pandemic
E. Epidemic

Endemic

The number of persons afflicted with an infectious disease is the _____ rate.
A. Incidence
B. Mortality
C. Pandemic
D. Endemic
E. Morbidity

Morbidity

Antimicrobials effective against a wide variety of microbial types are termed
A. Broad-spectrum drugs
B. Narrow-spectrum drugs
C. Antibiotics
D. Semisynthetic drugs
E. Synthetic drugs

Broad-spectrum drugs

Clavulanic acid
A. Inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis
B. None of the choices are correct
C. Inhibits cell membrane synthesis
D. Inhibits formation of peptidoglycan cross linkages
E. Inhibits B-lactamase activity

Inhibits B-lactamase activity

All of the following pertain to cephalosporins except
A. Are synthetic drugs
B. Have a beta-lactam ring
C. Greater resistance to beta-lactamases
D. Many administered by injection not orally
E. Newer generations have activity against gram negatives

Are synthetic drugs

Which antimicrobial does not inhibit cell wall synthesis?
A. Penicillins
B. Clavamox
C. Cephalosporins
D. Vancomycin
E. Gentamicin

Gentamicin

What antibiotic is mixed with neomycin and polymyxin to make an antibiotic ointment (Neosporin) for superficial skin infections?
A. Chloramphenicol
B. Clindamycin
C. Vancomycin
D. Bacitracin
E. Streptomycin

Bacitracin

Broad-spectrum drugs that disrupt the body's normal flora often cause
A. Superinfections
B. All of the choices are correct
C. Drug toxicity
D. Allergic reactions
E. Nephrotoxicity

Superinfections

Which of the following is not true of polymyxins?
A. Source is Bacillus polymyxa
B. Narrow spectrum
C. Can treat severe urinary tract infections caused by gram negative rods
D. Toxic to kidneys
E. Target cell walls

Target cell walls

Acyclovir is used to treat
A. Hepatitis C virus
B. HIV
C. Herpes simplex virus
D. Respiratory syncytial virus
E. Influenza A virus

Herpes simplex virus

A super-infection results from
A. Build up of a drug to toxic levels in the patient
B. Decrease in most normal flora with overgrowth of an unaffected species
C. All of the choices are correct
D. The wrong drug administered to the patient
E. An immune system reaction to the drug

Decrease in most normal flora with overgrowth of an unaffected species

A ratio of the dose of the drug that is toxic to humans versus the minimum effective dose for that pathogen is assessed to predict the potential for toxic drug reactions. This is called
the
A. Antibiogram
B. Therapeutic index (TI)
C. MIC
D. Kirby-Bauer
E. E-test

Therapeutic index (TI)

The human body typically begins to be colonized by its normal biota
A. Before birth, in utero
B. When an infant gets its first infectious disease
C. During puberty
D. When a child first goes to school
E. During and immediately after birth

During and immediately after birth

Resident biota are found in/on the
A. Skin
B. Mouth
C. Nasal passages
D. All of the choices are correct
E. Large intestine

All of the choices are correct

Each of the following are inoculation of normal biota to a newborn except
A. Bottle feeding
B. All of the choices are correct
C. The birth process through the birth canal
D. Breast feeding
E. Contact with hospital staff

All of the choices are correct

The greatest number of pathogens enter the body through the
A. Respiratory system
B. Genital system
C. Urinary system
D. Skin
E. Gastrointestinal system

Respiratory system

The minimum amount of microbes in the inoculating dose is the
A. Indigenous biota
B. Minimal dose
C. Infectious dose
D. Endotoxin
E. Virulence factor

Infectious dose

Once a microbe has entered a host, what process performed by certain white blood cells will attempt to destroy the microbes?
A. Exocytosis
B. Adhesion
C. Encapsulation
D. Phagocytosis
E. Margination

Phagocytosis

Exotoxins are
A. Lipopolysaccharides
B. Proteins secreted by living bacterial cells
C. Secretions that always target nervous tissue
D. Antiphagocytic factors
E. Only released after a cell is damaged or lysed

Proteins secreted by living bacterial cells

Which of the following is the endotoxin?
A. Hyaluronidase
B. Toxinosis
C. Hemolysin
D. Lipopolysaccharide
E. Collagenase

Lipopolysaccharide

The stage of an infectious disease when specific signs and symptoms are seen and the pathogen is at peak activity is
A. Incubation period
B. None of the choices are correct
C. Prodromal stage
D. Convalescent stage
E. Period of invasion

Period of invasion

Nosocomial infections involve all the following except
A. Escherichia coli and staphylococci are common infectious agents
B. Are only transmitted by medical personnel
C. Often involve the patient's urinary tract and surgical incisions
D. The patient's resident biota can be the infectious agent
E. Medical and surgical asepsis help lower their occurrence

...

The study of the frequency and distribution of a disease in a defined population is
A. Pathology
B. Clinical microbiology
C. Medicine
D. Epidemiology
E. Immunology

Epidemiology

______ carriers are shedding and transmitting pathogen a long time after they have recovered from an infectious disease
A. Chronic
B. Asymptomatic
C. Incubation
D. Passive
E. Convalescent

Chronic

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