First Assistant Study Guide

271 terms by raymondjelus Plus

Create a new folder

Advertisement Upgrade to remove ads

Lymph channels run parallel to which structures?
A. Nerves
B. Veins
C. Arteries
D. Ligaments

B. Veins

Body temperature is regulated by the:
A. Pons
B. Cerebellum
C. Midbrain
D. Hypothalamus

D. Hypothalamus

Which two electrolytes are essential for normal cardiac contractions?
A. Phosphate and chloride
B. Magnesium and sodium
C. Bicarbonate and sulfate
D. Potassium and calcium

D. Potassium and calcium

Water constitutes what average normal percentage of total body weight?
A. 20% to 40%
B. 50% to 70%
C. 70% to 85%
D. 15% to 25%

B. 50% to 70%

The thyroid gland consists of right and left lobes joined by the:
A. Larynx
B. Isthmus
C. Parathyroid gland
D. Cricoid cartilage

B. Isthmus

Langer lines generally lie perpendicular to the direction of:
A. Skin folds
B. Underlying muscle tension
C. A midline incision
D. Movement of the bone joints

B. Underlying muscle tension

The arterial supply to the intestinal tract, with the exception of the stomach, duodenum, and distal rectum, is derived from the:
A. Superior and inferior mesenteric arteries
B. Cystic artery
C. Gastroduodenal artery
D. Hepatic artery

A. Superior and inferior mesenteric arteries

Excessive secretion of growth hormones in adults causes:
A. Splenomegaly
B. Acromegaly
C. Cardiomegaly
D. Hepatomegaly

B. Acromegaly

The inner lining of the mucosa of the gastrointestinal tract is composed of:
A. Smooth muscle
B. Areolar connective tissue
C. Epithelium
D. Elastic connective tissue

C. Epithelium

The large artery that arises from the left side of the aortic arch and descends into the arm is the:
A. Subclavian
B. Carotid
C. Brachiocephalic
D. Radial

A. Subclavian

An enzyme active in the digestive of starches is.
A. Amylase
B. Trypsin
C. Lipase
D. Lactase

A. Amylase

The normal pH of blood is:
A. 3.5-4.5
B. 7.3-7.4
C. 8.5-9.0
D. 9.5-10.5

B. 7.3-7.4

Which cells secrete pepsinogen?
A. Islands of Langerhans
B. Beta
C. Chief
D. Parietal

C. Chief

Which of the following veins drains the intracranial venous sinuses to veins on the outside of the skull?
A. Emissary
B. Middle cerebral
C. Cerebellar Veins
D. Radial Veins

A. Emissary

Which of the following arteries supplies blood to the brain?
A. Anterior and middle cerebral arteries
B. Vertebral and internal carotids
C. External and internal carotids
D. Occipital

B. Vertebral and internal carotids

Which of the following arteries divides into the anterior and middle cerebral arteries?
A. Internal carotid
B. External carotid
C. Vertebral
D. Basilar

A. Internal carotid

Which of the following arteries is a direct branch of the internal carotid?
A. Vertebral
B. Aorta
C. Middle cerebral
D. Facial

C. Middle cerebral

The lateral ventricles within the cerebral hemisphere communicate with the third ventricle through the opening called:
A. Foramen of Monro
B. Foramen Ovale
C. Foramen of Vesalius
D. Foramen Magnum

A. Foramen of Monro

The third ventricle of the brain empties into the fourth ventricle through the:
A. Aqueduct of Sylvius
B. Choroid plexuses
C. Foramen venosum
D. Foramen spinosum

A. Aqueduct of Sylvius

Spinal fluid is produced by the:
A. Choroid plexus
B. Lateral ventricle
C. Dura mater
D. Cerebrum

A. Choroid plexus

The fold of dura mater that separates the cerebral hemispheres:
A. Flax cerebri
B. Tentorium cerebelli
C. Central sulcus
D. Circular sulcus

A. Flax cerebri

Which of the following separates the frontal and the temporal lobes?
A. Fissure of Sylvius
B. Fissure of Rolando
C. Fissure of Bichat
D. Longitudinal Fissure

A. Fissure of Sylvius

The frontal lobe is bounded posteriorly by the central sulcus, also called the:
A. Fissure of Rolando
B. Fissure of Sylvius
C. Tentorium cerebelli
D. Transverse fissure

A. Fissure of Rolando

Which of the following areas located in frontal gyrus of the brain controls the function of speech?
A. Brodmann's
B. Broca's
C. Temporal
D. Cerebral cortex

B. Broca's

The white line of Hilton is situated:
A. Between the superior hemorrhoidal artery and middle hemorrhoidal artery
B. In the area between the proximal two-thirds and distal third of the transverse colon
C. Between the external and internal anal sphincters D. Between the rectum and vagina

C. Between the external and internal anal sphincters

A chemical reaction that provides energy by the breakdown of food molecules is called:
A. Catabolism
B. Metabolism
C. Glycogenesis
D. Anabolism

A. Catabolism

Adipose tissue lies in which of the following skin layers?
A. Epidermal
B. Subcutaneous
C. Dermal
D. Reticular

B. Subcutaneous

Collagen is produced by which of the following connective tissue cells?
A. Leukocytes
B. Osteoclasts
C. Fibroblasts
D. Erythrocytes

C. Fibroblasts

What is normal cardiac output for an adult?
A. 4-8 L/minute
B. 8-12 L/minute
C. 12-16 L/minute
D. 16-20 L/minute

A. 4-8 L/minute

Which of the following veins drains the right side of the vertebral column?
A. Thoracic
B. Lumbar
C. Azygos
D. Posterior intercostal

C. Azygos

Which of the following arteries supplies the cecum, ascending colon, hepatic flexure, and proximal portion of the transverse colon?
A. Pancreaticoduodenal
B. Superior mesenteric
C. Abdominal aorta
D. Inferior mesenteric

B. Superior mesenteric

The celiac artery trifurcates into the:
A. Left gastric, splenic and hepatic arteries
B. Internal and external iliac and femoral arteries
C. Lumber, gastric, and splenic arteries
D. Renal, testicular, and suprarenal arteries

A. Left gastric, splenic and hepatic arteries

A Prolongation of the breast tissue located in the upper, outer part of the breast that passes through an opening in the axillary fascia is called the:
A. Axillary tail of Spence
B. Cooper's ligament
C. Axillary fascia
D. Sebaceous gland

A. Axillary tail of Spence

The mammary gland is fixed by the overlying skin and the underlying pectoral fascia by fibrous bands known as:
A. Lobules
B. Acini
C. Suspensory ligaments of Cooper
D. Deep pectoral fascia

C. Suspensory ligaments of Cooper

The arterial blood supply to the breast is supplied from branches of the:
A. Internal mammary, axillary and lateral thoracic
B. Internal thoracic and subclavian
C. Brachiocephalic and pulmonary
D. Intercostal and phrenic

A. Internal mammary, axillary and lateral thoracic

Which of the following is the loose areolar tissue that separates the breast from the pectoralis major muscle?
A. Subcutaneous tissue
B. Retromammary space
C. Cooper's ligament
D. Superficial fascia

B. Retromammary space

Which of the following lymph nodes is located between the pectoralis major and minor muscles?
A. Axillary
B. Inguinal
C. Rotter
D. Thoracic

C. Rotter

Which of the following nerves travels along the anterior-lateral chest all and innervates the serratus anterior muscle?
A. Axillary
B. Long thoracic
C. Thoracodorsal
D. Musculotaneous

B. Long thoracic nerve

Which of the following nerves innervates the latissimus dorsi muscle?
A. Subscapular
B. Thoracodorsal
C. Lateral pectoral
D. Intercostobrachial

B. Thoracodorsal

The nerve of Grassi is associated with the:
A. Stomach
B. Liver
C. Heart
D. Bladder

A. Stomach

The vein of Sappey drain the:
A. Spleen
B. Bladder
C. Diaphragm
D. Lumbar verterbrae

C. Diaphragm

The node of Lund is located in the:
A. Triangle of Calot
B. Inguinal canal
C. Patella Bursa
D. Carotid triangle of the neck

A. Triangle of Calot

Where is Hartmann's pouch located?
A. Gallbladder infundibulum
B. Apex of the gallbladder
C. Stomach
D. Liver

A. Gallbladder infundibulum

The small ducts that drain bile directly into the gallbladder are called:
A. Hepatopancreatic
B. Luschka
C. Hepatic
D. Portal

C. Hepatic

Which of the following the the name for the small pancreatic duct?
A. Wirsung
B. Santorini
C. Accessory
D. Cystic

B. Santorini

The three structures that form the anatomical triangle of Calot:
A. Cystic artery, right hepatic duct, common bile duct
B. Cystic duct, common hepatic duct, lower edge of the liver
C. Cystic duct, common hepatic duct, abdominal aorta
D. Cystic artery, common bile duct, superior edge of duodenum

B. Cystic duct, common hepatic duct, lower edge of the liver

The point of separation between the posterior rectus sheath superiorly and absence of the sheath inferiorly is called the:
A. Arcuate line
B. Linea alba
C. Semilunaris
D. Aspera

A. Arcuate line

At what point does the external illiac artery become the femoral artery?
A. Within the inguinal canal
B. At the location of the inguinal canal
C. At the location of the ilioinguinal nerve
D. Within the triangle of doom

B. At the location of the inguinal canal

The avascular area located in the mesentery and to the left of the middle colic artery is:
A. The space of Riolan
B. Sudeck's point
C. Jackson's veils
D. Alcock's canal

A. The space of Riolan

The series of arcades along the mesenteric border throughout the length of the colon is called the:
A. Arc of Riolan
B. Marginal artery of Drummond
C. Pancreaticoduodenal arch
D. Paracolic arcade

B. Marginal artery of Drummond

Valve's of the gallbladder are called:
A. Calot's
B. Heister
C. Hepatic
D. Interlobular

B. Heister

Which of the following nerves is located lateral to the long thoracic nerve and innervates the latissimus dorsi muscle?
A. Thoracodorsal
B. Long thoracic
C. Lateral pectoral
D. Subscapular

A. Thoracodorsal

Which ligament connects the thyroid to the trachea?
A. Berry
B. Recurrent
C. Lateral
D. Posterior

A. Berry

The structure that binds the small intestine to the posterior abdominal wall is the:
A. Mesentery
B. Greater omentum
C. Falciform ligament
D. Lesser omentum

A. Mesentery

The left gastric, right gastric, right gastroepiploic, left gastroepiploic, and short gastric arteries supply the:
A. Spleen
B. Stomach
C. Duodenum
D. Kidney

B. Stomach

The two muscles that form the pelvic diaphragm are:
A. Levator ani and coccygeus
B. Pubococcygeus and iliococcygeus
C. Psoas and piriformis
D. Puborectalis and obturator internus

A. Levator ani and coccygeus

Which of the following statements describes a nonrecurrent laryngeal nerve?
A. Variant laryngeal nerve that branches from the vagus and travels directly into the larynx
B. Variant laryngeal nerve that branches off the superior laryngeal nerve and innervates the thyrohyoid membrane
C. Variant laryngeal nerve that branches off the right recurrent laryngeal nerve and innervates the cricothyroidmuscle
D. Variant laryngeal nerve that branches off the spinal branch of the accessory nerve and innervates the larynx

A. Variant laryngeal nerve that branches from the vagus and travels directly into the larynx

( Nonrecurrent laryngeal nerve is a variant nerve that branches off the vagus and travels directly into the larynx at the level of the inferior horn of the thyroid cartilage)

Jackson's membrane would be found near the:
A. Cecum
B. Ascending colon
C. Descending colon
D. Rectum

A. Cecum

The flexure between the transverse colon and the descending colon is called the:
A. Hepatic
B. Splenic
C. Gastric
D. Colic

B. Splenic

The anastomosis, or linking, of arcades between the superior and inferior mesenteric vessels is known as the long anastomosis of:
A. Roe
B. Riolan
C. Douglas
D. Retzius

B. Riolan

Which nerve innervates the diaphragm?
A. Phrenic
B. Thoracic
C. Median
D. Thoracodorsal

A. Phrenic

The rectus sheaths that meet to form a tough fibrous white band that extends from the xiphoid process to the pubic symphysis is the:
A. Linea alba
B. Serratus anterior
C. External oblique
D. Rectus abdominis

A. Linea alba

Which organ is completely retroperitoneal?
A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. Colon
D. Duodenum

B. Kidney

The liver is divided into two principal lobes by which of the following ligaments?
A. Cruciate
B. Round
C. Falciform
D. Coronary

C. Falciform

The sphincter located at the distal end of the common bile duct that opens into the duodenum is the:
A. Oddi
B. Vater
C. Wirsung
D. Pyloric

A. Oddi

The cartilage distal to the thyroid cartilage and the proximal to the thyroid gland is the:
A. Articular
B. Cricoid
C. Tracheal
D. Hyoid

B. Cricoid

Which vein is shared by the pancreas and liver?
A. Superior vena cava
B. Subclavian
C. Portal
D. Renal

C. Portal

The head of the pancreas is surrounded by the:
A. Duodenum
B. Jejunum
C. Ileum
D. Pyloris

A. Duodenum

Which of the following arteries supply blood to the thyroid gland?
A. External carotid
B. Internal carotid
C. Axillary
D. Vertebral

A. External carotid

What structures are located in the anterior mediastinum?
A. Thymus, ascending aorta, lymph nodes
B. Upper trachea, esophagus,
C. Phrenic nerves, lower trachea and bifurcation
D. Descending aorta, thoracic duct, vagus nerve, azygous vein

A. Thymus, ascending aorta, lymph nodes

The anatomical division between the inguinal and femoral regions is the :
A. Femoral artery
B. Cooper's ligament
C. Internal spermatic vessels
D. Poupart's ligament

D. Poupart's ligament

Hesselbach's triangle is bounded by the rectus abdominis muscle, inferior epigasric vessels and:
A. External oblique muscle
B. Falciform Ligament
C. Inguinal ligament
D. Linea Alba

C. Inguinal ligament

The inner lining of the mucosa within the gastrointestinal tract is composed of:
A. Smooth striated muscle
B. Areolar connective tissue
C. Simple columnar epithelium
D. Elastic connective tissue

C. Simple columnar epithelium

Another name for the folds on the inner wall of the stomach is:
A. Microvilli
B. Plicae
C. Rugae
D. Pyloris

C. Rugae

The area where the common bile duct joins the pancreatic duct and enters the duodenum is called the:
A. Ampulla of Vater
B. Duct or Santorini
C. Duct of Wirsung
D. Islets of Langerhans

A. Ampulla of Vater

The uterine artery is a branch of the anterior trunk of the:
A. Internal iliac artery
B. External iliac artey
C. Aorta
D. Femoral artery

A. Internal iliac artery

The ovary is suspended from the posterior lead of the broad ligament by the:
A. Mesovarium
B. Parietal peritoneum
C. Ovarian Ligament
D. Uterus

A. Mesovarium

The ovarian artery is a branch of the:
A. Pelvic artery
B. Cystic artery
C. Rectal artery
D. Abdominal aorta

D. Abdominal aorta

Which of the following ligaments travels in the upper part of the broad ligaments below and infront of the fallopian tubes, passing over the vesicle vessels and nerve?
A. Cardinal
B. Uterosacral
C. Round
D. Pubofemoral

C. Round

The uterine artery is a branch of the anterior trunk of the:
A. Internal iliac artery
B. External iliac artery
C. Aorta
D. Femoral Artery

A. Internal iliac artery

Which of the following ligaments encloses the round ligament and extends from the lateral surface of the uterus to the pelvic wall?
A. Broad
B. Suspensory
C. Ovarian
D. Infundibulopelvic

A. Broad

Which of the following is the nourishing coat of the eyeball that consists mainly of blood vessels?
A. Choroid
B. Iris
C. Ciliary body
D. Central artery

A. Choroid

The ophthalmic artery divides into the:
A. Supraorbital and supratrochlear
B. Internal and external carotid
C. Middle meningeal and dorsal nasal
D. Episcleral and posterior ciliary

A. Supraorbital and supratrochlear

Which rectus muscle moves the eyeball upward and medially?
A. Lateral
B. Median
C. Inferior
D. Superior

D. Superior

The recurrent laryngeal nerve that supplies the vocal cords lies very close to the:
A. Inferior thyroid artery
B. Brachial artery
C. External carotid
D. Subclavian artery

A. Inferior thyroid artery

The arterial blood supply to the nose is from branches of the internal and external:
A. Carotids
B. Maxillary
C. Ethmoid
D. Facial

B. Maxillary

The five branches of the facial nerve from superior to inferior after it enters the parotid gland is:
A. Buccal, cervical, mandibular, zygomatic, temporal
B. Temporal, zygomatic, buccal, mandibular, cervical
C. Cervical, temporal, mandibular, zygomatic, buccal
D. Mandibular, temporal, zygomatic, buccal, cervical

B. Temporal, zygomatic, buccal, mandibular, cervical

Where do the mental nerves and vessels exit from the mandible?
A. Foramen
B. Fontanel
C. Fossa
D. Fissure

A. Foramen

In addition to the zygoma, which other bone compromises the zygomatic arch?
A. Maxilla
B. Temporal
C. Mandible
D. Sphenoid

B. Temporal

Which of the following is a principal muscle of the pelvic floor?
A. Satorius
B. Levator ani
C. Internal oblique
D. Rectus abdominis

B. Levator ani

The junction of the superior mesenteric and splenic veins forms the:
A. Inferior vena cava
B. Femoral vein
C. Middle colic
D. Portal vein

D. Portal vein

The tibial and common peroneal nerves are terminal branches of which of the following nerves?
A. Femoral
B. Sciatic
C. Splenic
D. Peroneal

B. Sciatic

The arterial supply to the bladder is derived mainly from the:
A. Obturator
B. Internal pudendal
C. Internal iliac
D. Umbilical

C. Internal iliac

Which of the following structures of the kidney does urine drain into from the major calyces?
A. Nephron
B. Bladder
C. Renal Pelvis
D. Ureter

C. Renal Pelvis

A rounded protuberance found at a point of articulation with another bone is called a:
A. Crest
B. Trochlea
C. Tubercle
D. Condyle

D. Condyle

At which vertebral level is the odontoid process located?
A. C1
B. C2
C. C7
D. L5

B. C2

Which of the following cavities within the brain is filled with cerebrospinal fluid?
A. Aperture
B. Medulla
C. Pyramids
D. Ventricles

D. Ventricles

Which ligament is attached to the posterior lateral condyle of the femur and to the notch of the midline of the tibia between the tibial condyles?
A. Posterior cruciate
B. Patellar
C. Anterior cruciate
D. Lateral collateral

C. Anterior cruciate

The gelatinous substance within and intervertebral disc is called the:
A. Spinous process
B. Nucleus pulposus
C. Annulus fibrosus
D. Intervertebral foramen

B. Nucleus pulposus

Which vein proximally travels across the neck of the abdominal aorta?
A. Inferior mesenteric
B. Left common iliac
C. Splenic
D. Renal

D. Renal

The branches of the aortic arch are:
A. Brachiocephalic, left common carotid, left subclavian
B. Right and left common carotid
C. Brechiocephalic, right common carotid, right subclavian
D. Celiac trunk, superior and inferior mesenteric

A. Brachiocephalic, left common carotid, left subclavian

The trigeminal arterial branches of the aorta are the:
A. Renal and gonadal
B. Right and left common iliacs
C. Superior and inferior mesenteric
D. Inferior phrenic and lumbar

B. Right and left common iliacs

The coronary arteries originate at the base of the ascending aorta, also known as the:
A. Sinuses of Valsalva
B. Pulmonary sinuses
C. Coronary sinuses
D. Aortic sinus

A. Sinuses of Valsalva

Which of the following are branches of the left coronary artery?
A. Anterior interventricular and right marginal
B. Circumflex and anterior descending arteries
C. Posterior interventricular and diagonal
D. Sinoatrial nodal and atrioventricular nodal

B. Circumflex and anterior descending arteries

The thoracic duct begins in the:
A. Spinal column
B. Abdomen at the Cisterna Chyli
C. Base of the skull
D. Thorax inferior to the mediastinum

B. Abdomen at the Cisterna Chyli

Two-thirds of the breast tissue rests on the pectoralis major muscle and the other one-third rests on the:
A. Pectoralis minor
B. Teres minor
C. Serratus anterior
D. External oblique

C. Serratus anterior

The carotid body and the carotid sinus are two sensory structures; the carotid body is a:
A. Chemoreceptor
B. Neuroreceptor
C. Peptide receptor
D. Beta-adrenergic receptor

A. Chemoreceptor

The value that prevents the retrograde flow of blood into the atrium from the left ventricle is the:
A. Tricuspid
B. Pulmonary
C. Mitral
D. Aortic

C. Mitral

Deoxygenated blood is carried from the right ventricle to the lungs via which structure?
A. Pulmonary arteries
B. Pulmonary veins
C. Coronary artery
D. Vena cava

A. Pulmonary arteries

At the base of each internal carotid artery is an enlargement called the:
A. Bulb
B. Body
C. Sinus
D. Plexus

C. Sinus

The three protective tissue layers called the meninges lie in the following order, starting with the most superficial:
A. Arachnoid, dura mater, pia mater
B. Pia mater, dura mater, arachnoid
C. Dura mater, arachnoid, pia mater
D. Arachnoid, pia mater, dura mater

C. Dura mater, arachnoid, pia mater

Fissure of Sylvius separates the:
A. Frontal and temporal lobe
B. Parietal and occipital lobe
C. Occipital and temporal lobe
D. Temporal lobe and olfactory area

A. Frontal and temporal lobe

The great sensory nerve of the face and head is the:
A. Trochlear
B. Oculomotor
C. Hypoglossal
D. Trigeminal

D. Trigeminal

Which cranial nerve emerges from the medulla, passes through the skull, and descends through the neck region into the thorax and abdominal region?
A. IX
B. X
C. XI
D. XII

B. X

Which of the following cranial nerves innervates the superior oblique muscle?
A. Olfactory (I)
B. Optic (II)
C. Oculomotor (III)
D. Trochlear (IV)

D. Trochlear (IV)

Which of the following cranial nerves innervates the inferior, medial, superior rectus, inferior oblique, and levator palpebrae muscles of the eye?
A. Olfactory (I)
B. Optic (II)
C. Oculomotor (III)
D. Trochlear (IV)

C. Oculomotor (III)

Which of the following cranial nerves innervates the lateral rectus muscle of the eye?
A. Trochlear (IV)
B. Trigeminal (V)
C. Abducens (VI)
D. Facial (VII)

C. Abducens (VI)

The dura plane that separates the cerebrum from the cerebellum is the:
A. Roof cerebelli, transverse
B. Tentorium cerebelli, transverse
C. Transverse cerebelli, sigmoid
D. Triangle cerebelli, sagittal

B. Tentorium cerebelli, transverse

In the following diagram, identify the following arterial branches of the celiac trunk:

Right hepatic artery; Left hepatic artery; Proper hepatic artery; Celiac trunk; Splenic trunk; Left gastric artery; Gastroduodenal artery

1. Celiac trunk..............................2. Splenic trunk
3. Left gastric artery.....................4. Common hepatic artery
5. Gastroduodenal artery.............6. Proper hepatic artery
7. Left hepatic artery....................8. Right hepatic artery

In the diagram, identify the following structures:

Inferior mesenteric vein; Splenic vein; Right gastric artery; Portal Vein

1. Portal Vein......................2. Right gastric artery
3. Splenic vein....................4. Inferior mesenteric vein

In the diagram, identify the following structures of the biliary tract:

Common bile duct; Ampulla of Vater; Intrahepatic ducts; Right hepatic duct; Left hepatic duct; Gallbladder; Cystic duct; Common hepatic duct

1. Intrahepatic ducts.... .......2. Left hepatic duct
3. Right hepatic duct...........4. Common hepatic duct
5. Gallbladder......................6. Cystic duct
7. Common bile duct......... 8. Ampulla of Vater

In the diagram, identify the following nerves in the axillary region:

1. Thoracodorsal.......................2. Long thoracic
3. Medial pectoral......................4. Lateral pectoral

Traffic patterns in the surgery department are designed to:
A. Aid in preventing surgical site infections
B. Provide access for the public
C. Promote negative air pressure in the operating rooms
D. Maximize air currents in the department

A. Aid in preventing surgical site infections

What is the principal foal of suctioning blood and body fluids from the wound?
A. Dissection of tissue
B. Retract tissue
C. Improve wound visibility
D. Measure blood loss

C. Improve wound visibility

The principal goal of the surgical assistant during the surgical procedure is to:
A. Dissect tissue
B. Apply dressings
C. Provide exposure
D. Position the patient

C. Provide exposure

Which of the following characteristics of drape materials is the correct?
A. Able to absorb fluids
B. Flame retardant
C. Reflect operating lights
D. Contain line

B. Flame retardant

Which of the following types of patients is at risk for developing a latex sensitivity?
A. Child with spina bifida
B. Patient with multiple sclerosis
C. Patient with a shellfish allergy
D. Child with Hirshsprung's disease

A. Child with spina bifida

Which of the following should be confirmed before administration of any blood products?
A. Date of expiration
B. Clots are present
C. Registration number on blood bag matches patients ID number
D. Blood product is homologous

A. Date of expiration

The recommended minimum number of air exchanges in the O.R. is:
A. 5 times and hour with three exchanges of fresh air
B. 10 times and hour with four exchanges of fresh air
C. 15 times and hour with three exchanges of fresh air
D. 10 times and hour with four exchanges of fresh air

C. 15 times and hour with three exchanges of fresh air

If a surgical assistant places the operative patient's well being above all other factors, the the surgical assistant is said to have a strong:
A. Ethical sense
B. Surgical conscience
C. Moral judgment
D. Set of values

B. Surgical conscience

Seepage of skin preparation solution under a patient may result in:
A. Bruising
B. Nerve damage
C. Chemical Burns
D. Skin abrasion

C. Chemical Burns

The frozen section examination provides the surgeon with a:
A. Guideline for antibiotic therapy
B. Diagnosis for tuberculosis
C. Quick preliminary diagnosis
D. Microscopic examination of smear and cultures

C. Quick preliminary diagnosis

When assisting the surgeon with the draping, where should the surgical assistant stand in relation to the surgeon?
A. On the opposite side of the O.R. table from the surgeon
B. On the same side of the O.R. table as the surgeon
C. Near the foot of the O.R. table
D. At the head of the O.R. table

A. On the opposite side of the O.R. table from the surgeon

Studies show that the lowest infection rates have been obtained in surgical cases where patient body hair was:
A. Not removed
B. Removed using a depilatory
C. Cut with surgical clippers
D. Shaved

A. Not removed

A hemodynamic complication in the patient could be caused by:
A. Administration of 100% oxygen
B: Myocardial ischemia
C. Premature ventricular contractions
D. Neurological thoracic outlet syndrome

B: Myocardial ischemia

Infants are at the risk of losing body heat quickly due to their:
A. Thin layer of subcutaneous brown fat for insulation
B. Higher body mass in comparison to and adult
C. Lower blood volume
D. High demand or need fr oxygen

A. Thin layer of subcutaneous brown fat for insulation

Heat loss from the body occurs by all the following methods except:
A. Radiation
B. Evaporation
C. Condensation
D. Conduction

C. Condensation

The earliest sign of MH is:
A. Pyrexia
B. Increase in end tidal CO2
C. Sudden cardiac arrest
D. Cyanotic skin and finger tips

B. Increase in end tidal CO2

Intraoperative fluid and electrolyte imbalance are affected by:
A. Stress and anxiety, especially in children
B. Blood loss, fluid shifts and replacement
C. Adequate oxygenation and saturation
D. Heart muscle contactility and function

B. Blood loss, fluid shifts and replacement

Vitamin D deficiency can lead to:
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hypermagnesemia

C. Hypocalcemia

Acid based imbalances reflect:
A. Hypoxia, hypothermia and hypovolemia
B. A blood pH of 7.35 to 7.45
C. The oxygen supply being equal to the oxygen demand
D. Oxygen saturation of 80-100 mmHg at sea level

A. Hypoxia, hypothermia and hypovolemia

Platelet concentration is often transfused during the immediate preoperative period for the purpose of:
A. Preserving clotting ability
B. Preventing hypovolemia
C. Treating hypoproteinemia
D. Correcting Rh mismatch in prenatal women

A. Preserving clotting ability

Hemolytic reactions caused by ABO incompatibility are most often caused by:
A. Blood transfusions lasting more than four hours
B. Human clerical error and improper identification
C. Blood contaminated with pyrogenic bacteria
D. Antibodies to the donor foreign proteins

D. Antibodies to the donor foreign proteins

The correct arm placement when positioning a patient supine with arms extended on armboards is:
A. Armboards extended >90 deg. with palms facing up
B. Armboards extended <90 deg. with palms facing down
C. Armboards extended >90 deg. with palms facing down
D. Armboards extended <90 deg. with palms facing up

D. Armboards extended <90 deg. with palms facing up

The force of integumentary injuries that results from the skin remaining stationary while the underlying tissues shift is known as:
A. Pressure
B. Shearing
C. Friction
D. Maceration

B. Shearing

Which of the following is a potential physiological response when lowering a patient's legs from the lithotomy position?
A. Hypotension
B. Hypertension
C. Bradycardia
D. Tachypnea

A. Hypotension

The correct range fr the pneumatic tourniquet pressure on an average adult for an upper extremity is:
A. 150-200 mmHg
B. 200-250 mmHg
C. 250-300 mmHg
D. 300-350 mmhg

C. 250-300 mmHg

The setting of the pneumatic tourniquet pressure on an average adult for a lower extremity should be:
A. Lower than the systolic pressure by one-half of the value
B. Higher than the diastolic pressure by one-half of the value
C. Lower than the diastolic pressure by one-half of the value
D. Higher than the systolic pressure by one-half of the value

D. Higher than the systolic pressure by one-half of the value

The most common skin cancer is:
A. Primary melanoma
B. Actinic keratosis
C. Basal cell carcinoma
D. Squamous cell carcinoma

C. Basal cell carcinoma

See More

Please allow access to your computer’s microphone to use Voice Recording.

Having trouble? Click here for help.

We can’t access your microphone!

Click the icon above to update your browser permissions above and try again

Example:

Reload the page to try again!

Reload

Press Cmd-0 to reset your zoom

Press Ctrl-0 to reset your zoom

It looks like your browser might be zoomed in or out. Your browser needs to be zoomed to a normal size to record audio.

Please upgrade Flash or install Chrome
to use Voice Recording.

For more help, see our troubleshooting page.

Your microphone is muted

For help fixing this issue, see this FAQ.

Star this term

You can study starred terms together

NEW! Voice Recording

Create Set