Micro Exam 2 Questions

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Microbiological contaminants are best described as

any and all microbes present on or in a substance.

Physical agents for controlling microbial growth include all the following except

hydrogen peroxide.

Which of the following microbial forms have the highest resistance to physical and chemical controls?

fungal spores

The process that destroys or removes all microorganisms and microbial forms including bacterial endospores is

sterilization.

The process of using a cleansing technique to mechanically remove and reduce microorganisms and debris to safe levels is

sanitization.

The use of a physical or chemical process to destroy vegetative pathogens is

disinfection.

The use of chemical agents directly on exposed body surfaces to destroy or inhibit vegetative pathogens is

antisepsis.

Scrubbing or immersing the skin in chemicals to reduce the numbers of microbes on the skin is

sterilization.

Which of the following types of control agents would be used to achieve sterility?

bactericide

Which is correct regarding the rate of microbial death?

only older cells die in a culture

Sterilization is achieved by

flash pasteurization.

Dry heat

includes tyndallization.

Endospores can be killed by

dry heat at 170° C for 2 hours.

The minimum sterilizing conditions in a steam autoclave are

71.6° C for 15 seconds.

The shortest time required to kill all the microbes in a sample at a specified temperature is called the

None of the choices are correct.

Disinfection of beverages such as apple juice, milk, and wine, is optimally achieved by

boiling water.

Electrons are ejected from atoms in cells when organisms are exposed to

ethyl alcohol.

Which of the following items are typically irradiated in order to kill microbes?

human tissues such as heart valves and skin

HEPA filters are used to remove microbes from

air.

Which of the following does not contain a heavy metal?

zinc

All of the following are phenols or phenolics except

hexachlorophene.

The easiest microbial forms to kill or inhibit are

endospores.

Which control method would not be a suitable choice for killing mycobacteria in a capped culture tube?

ultraviolet (germicidal) light

All of the following pertain to hypochlorites except

found in iodophors.

Which of the following is not used as an antiseptic?

aqueous glutaraldehyde

Iodophors include

Betadine.

The compound that is an organic base containing chlorine and two phenolic rings, and is used increasingly for wound degerming, neonatal washes, handscrubbing, and prepping surgical skin sites is

chlorhexidine.

Alcohols

All of the choices are correct (denature proteins when in a 50 - 95% alcohol-water solution, disinfect items soaked in alcohol, are skin degerming agents, at 50% or higher concentrations dissolve cell membrane lipids)

Which is mismatched?

Merthiolate - silver

All of the following are correct about iodophors except

this formulation allows a quick release of free iodine.

The sterilizing gas used in a special chamber is

ethylene oxide.

The chemical agent that produces highly reactive hydroxyl-free radicals and also decomposes to O2 gas is

Cidex.

All the following are correct about detergents except

they are active in the presence of organic matter.

Ethylene oxide is

sporicidal.

Which of the following is being used to replace hypochlorites in treating water because of the possibility of cancer-causing substances being produced?

chloramines

Which of the following chemicals is a disinfectant for soft contact lenses?

hydrogen peroxide

Which of the following is officially accepted as a sterilant and high-level disinfectant?

glutaraldehyde

All of the following are correct about food irradiation except

no irradiated food can be sold without clear labeling.

All of the following are benefits of food irradiation except

it makes the food less nutritious.

All of the following are methods of disinfection or sterilization except

lyophilization.

Historically, which of the following was instilled into the eyes of newborn infants to prevent gonococcal infections?

silver nitrate

Which common hospital pathogen is able to grow abundantly in soap dishes?

Pseudomonas

All of the following are correct about the autoclave except

It is effective for sterilizing powders, oils, and waxy substances.

Which of the following types of agents targets protein conformation?

alcohol

Paracoccidioides is

endemic to regions of Central and South America.

Which is mismatched?

tinea capitis - ringworm of the beard

Transmission of tineas include

All of the choices are correct (human to human, animal to human, soil to human, fomites to human)

Entamoeba histolytica is acquired by

All of the choices are correct (ingestion of cysts of the pathogen, contaminated food, contaminated water, anal-oral sexual contact)

Amebiasis is a disease of the

intestines and often the liver.

Human asymptomic carriers are common in

amebiasis and trichomoniasis.

Diseases transmitted by vectors include

trypanosomiasis and leishmaniasis.

The large intestines of pigs are the primary reservoir of the pathogen that causes

balantidiasis.

Which of the following is a large ciliate?

Balantidium coli

Which of the following has four pairs of flagella?

Toxoplasma gondii

Which of the following is an apicomplexan parasite?

Toxoplasma gondii

Which of the following is a sexually transmitted disease?

trichomoniasis

Which of the following causes serious congenital disease from transplacental transmission?

toxoplasmosis

All of the following can be transmitted by drinking contaminated water except

babesiosis.

Amebiasis symptoms include

bloody, mucus-filled stools, fever, diarrhea, and weight loss.

The symptoms that occur in cyclic 48 to 72 hour episodes in a malaria patient are

chills, fever, and sweating.

Most cases of toxoplasmosis in patients that are not immunocompromised have the following symptoms:

sore throat, low grade fever, and swollen lymph nodes

Trichomonas vaginalis

All of the choices are correct (does not produce cysts, in males causes urethritis, in females causes vaginitis with a foul-smelling discharge, has four flagella and an undulating membrane)

Giardiasis involves

symptoms of abdominal pain, flatulence, and diarrhea.

African sleeping sickness is caused by

Trypanosoma brucei.

Chagas disease involves transmission of the pathogen by the

tsetse fly.

Transmission of the pathogen of leishmaniasis is by the

phlebotomine (sand) fly.

The vector involved in African sleeping sickness is the

tsetse fly.

The large, fully formed developmental stage of a hemoflagellate is called the

trypomastigote.

Which is incorrect about malaria?

merozoites enter and multiply in liver cells

This is a zoonosis, caused by an apicomplexan, that is introduced to humans by the bite of a hard body tick

toxoplasmosis

Outbreaks of this apicomplexan disease have been associated with fecal-contaminated imported raspberries, and also fresh greens and drinking water

cryptosporidiosis

Toxoplasmosis includes all the following except

intrauterine infectious are generally mild with very little damage to fetal tissues.

Symptoms of cryptosporidiosis include

headache, sweats, vomiting, severe abdominal cramps, and diarrhea.

Parasitic helminthes have the following characteristics except

have developmental forms that include cysts

Which is mismatched?

roundworm - trematode

Ascaris lumbricoides

All of the choices are correct (is an intestinal roundworm, spreads to humans by ingestion of Ascaris eggs in food, larvae penetrate into lymphatics and capillaries around intestines, larvae migrate to the pharynx, get swallowed and return to intestines to mature)

Enterobius vermicularis is

an intestinal worm that easily contaminates fingers and fomites.

Hookworms

All of the choices are correct (include Necator americanus, include Ancylostoma duodenale, have filariform larvae in soil that get transmitted into bare feet, have oral cutting plates by which they anchor to the intestines)

Strongyloides stercoralis

immunosuppressed patients can die from disseminated disease.

Trichinosis includes all the following except

All of the choices are correct (encysted larvae get ingested, associated with undercooked pork or bear meat, migrate from intestines to blood and various body tissues, coiled larvae encyst in skeletal muscle)

Elephantiasis includes all the following except

helminth is transmitted by black fly vectors.

River blindness is

a disease in which worms can invade the eyes.

Schistosomiasis involves

All of the choices are correct (a blood fluke, eggs from humans enter water and develop into miracidium, snails allow development into cercaria, cercaria enter hair follicles and pass to the blood and then the liver)

Fasciola hepatica is a

liver fluke.

All of the following pertain to tapeworms except

one proglottid segment will have either female or male reproductive organs.

Which is mismatched?

Echinococcus granulosus - poultry

The form lacking a free flagella in the developmental stage of a hemoflagellate is called the

amastigote.

All of the following will kill Giardia except

chlorine in typical drinking water.

Which of the following is not an effective way to minimize human contact with parasitic helminths?

These are all effective ways.

Which is not correct about trichinosis?

Only a few cases occur each year in the U.S.

Which parasite is carried by Cyclops, an arthropod commonly found in still water?

Dracunculus medinesis

Pregnant women should never change cat litter due to the risk of contracting

toxoplasmosis.

Which is not correct about kala azar?

Chemotherapy with chloroquine is usually effective.

The usual definitive host for Echinococcus granulosus is

dogs.

The larval forms of certain Taenia species, which typically infest muscles of mammalian intermediate hosts is also called a

cysticerci.

Trichinella spiralis is a/an _________ that invades the __________.

roundworm, intestine

Infection occurs when

pathogens enter and multiply in body tissues.

All infectious diseases

are caused by microorganisms or their products.

Endogenous infectious agents arise from microbes that are

the patient's own normal flora.

All of the following genera are considered resident flora of skin sites except

Escherichia.

Resident flora of the intestines include

None of the above (Streptococcus, Haemophilus, Staphylococcus)

The chemical found in tears and saliva that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan in certain bacterial cell walls is

lysozyme.

The body region where a ciliary escalator helps to sweep microbes trapped in mucus away from that body site is the

respiratory tract.

Virulence factors include

All of the above (capsules, exotoxin, exoenzymes, endotoxin)

Someone who inconspicuously harbors a pathogen and spreads it to others is a

carrier.

An animal, such as an arthropod, that transmits a pathogen from one host to another is a

vector.

Which of the following is an example of vertical transmission?

a mother transmitting larva of roundworm to her fetus

A laboratory technologist splashed a blood specimen onto his face, eyes, nose, and mouth. This specimen was from an HIV positive patient. If this blood exposure leads to HIV infection in the technologist, the transmission route is

vehicle

The dried residues of fine droplets from mucus or saliva that harbor and transmit pathogen are

droplet nuclei.

Animals that participate in the life cycles of pathogens and transmit pathogens from host to host are

biological vectors.

The ability of a fungus to grow as a yeast or a mold depending on its environmental temperature is called

dimorphism.

The routes of entry for most fungi into the body are

respiratory and cutaneous.

Amphotericin B, nystatin, and the imidazoles are all

antifungal drugs.

All of the following are dimorphic, true fungal pathogens except

Candida.

The terms used for the four levels of fungal infection include the following except

bloodborne.

Characteristics of Histoplasma capsulatum include

it grows in moist soil, rich in nitrogen from bird and bat guano.

The highest incidence of histoplasmosis in the United States occurs in the

East and Midwest.

Which is incorrect about histoplasmosis?

chronic cases have symptoms similar to tuberculosis

All of the following pertain to coccidioidomycosis except

the pathogen grows best in soil with bird and bat guano.

Blastomyces dermatitidis

favors forest soil, high in organic matter.

Paracoccidioides is

endemic to regions of Central and South America.

Which is incorrect about Sporothrix schenckii?

causes superficial cutaneous infection

Chromoblastomycosis and phaeohyphomycosis are

caused by saprobes with dark-pigmented mycelia and spores.

Mycetoma is

a subcutaneous infection that looks like a tumor.

Dermatophytoses are

All of the choices are correct (fungal infections of the skin, hair, and nails, also called ringworm, also called tineas, often time-consuming to eradicate completely)

Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton

reservoirs are humans, animals, and soils.

All of the following pertain to Candida albicans except

has a large capsule.

Candidiasis includes

All of the choices are correct (intertriginous infection of skin sites, vulvovaginal infection, oral cavity and esophageal infections, skin and nail infections)

Cryptococcus neoformans has the following characteristics except

commonly found in the human mouth, intestines, and genitalia

Cryptococcosis can include

All of the choices are correct (pulmonary infection, septicemia, meningitis, bone infection)

Oral thrush is caused by

Candida albicans.

This opportunist is the most frequent cause of life-threatening pneumonia in AIDS patients:

Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci

Aspergillosis includes all the following except

there are no effective drugs to treat the infection.

Serious mycoses treated with amphotericin B include all the following except

Pneumocystis pneumonia.

Decaying vegetation, such as piles of leaves and compost heaps, allows growth and transmission of

Aspergillus.

This organism commonly contaminates grains, corn, and peanuts and produces a potent mycotoxin called aflatoxin:

Aspergillus flavis

Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci

All of the choices are correct (has protozoan and fungal characteristics, lacks ergosterol in its plasma membrane, is an obligate parasite, causes serious infection in elderly, premature infants, and AIDS patients)

Ergotism is caused by

ingesting alkaloids from Claviceps purpurea on rye plants.

Menthol and camphor (VicksTM) are effective treatments against

ringworm.

All of the following areas are subject to intertriginous infections except

chest.

Which of the following is a rare mycosis caused by a mold commonly found in soil, in dairy products and on the human body?

sporotrichosis

All of the following are fungal allergies except

thrush.

Which of the following is incorrect about Sporotrichosis?

It is also known as Valley fever.

The primary portal of entry for fungal infections is

the respiratory tract.

Which antifungal drug inhibits cell division of the fungus?

griseofulvin

Which of the following are likely to predispose patients to fungal infections?

All of the choices are correct (cancer, AIDS, tuberculosis, malnutrition)

Alternative names for Blastomyces dermatitidis include

Gilchrist's disease.

Which is incorrect about chromoblastomycosis?

treatment is with pentamidine

Acanthamoeba differs from Naegleria fowleri in that only Acanthamoeba

enters typically through broken skin or the conjunctiva.

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