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Often used to describe the sum total of an organization's marketing activities, the marketing mix consists of which of the following:

A. product - position - place - price
B. packaging - production - price - place
C. product - price - place - promotion
D. place - promotion - product - perception
E. production - placement - promotion - price

C

A market __________ is a relatively homogeneous group thought to share a similar set of needs and wants.

A. pairing
B. group
C. slice
D. segment
E. level

D

When analyzing subsets of the overall market, marketers seek to identify those groups that present greatest opportunity. Those groups are known as:

A. target markets
B. primary markets
C. tertiary markets
D. demographic markets
E. concentric markets

A

The act of designing a company's offering and image so as to occupy a distinctive place in the minds of the hoped-for customer is known as:

A. promotion presentation
B. product positioning
C. pre-product planning
D. performance imaging
E. product conceptualization

B

Michael Porter identified five forces that help marketers determine the intrinsic long-term attractiveness of a potential market. Which of the following is NOT one of Porter's five forces?

A. the threat of new entrants
B. the threat of substitute products
C. the bargaining power of suppliers
D. the threat of changing technology
E. rivalry among existing firms

D

When a company embraces the true meaning of the marketing concept, it directs its energy and efforts on which of the following:

A. the market
B. the product
C. the bottom line
D. the customer
E. the competition

D

Sub-Zero, Inc. uses a marketing strategy that focuses on profitably satisfying a single market. This particular strategy is known as:

A. target marketing
B. niche marketing
C. market skimming
D. profit maximization
E. segment survival

B

A company will oftentimes use coupons, samples and assorted other incentives to cause consumers to choose its brand over another. These are all examples of:

A. trade promotions
B. category killers
C. consumer promotions
D. public relations
E. consumer advertising

C

Once a product moves into the decline phase of its life cycle, which of the following strategies might the product's marketing manager choose to employ?

A. lower the price so as to remain competitive in the marketplace
B. re-image the product to give it a fresh new look and feel
C. stop promoting the product, but maintain inventory for replacement parts
D. pull the plug, realizing that nothing lasts forever
E. these are all options for a product in the decline phase of its life cycle

E

A __________ is a basic human requirement. A __________ is the way in which we satisfy that requirement, most frequently shaped by society and culture.

A. need / want
B. want/ need
C. demand / want
D. demand / need
E. need / demand

A

A written statement that defines the essential purpose of an organization and serves to differentiate one company from the many others is called a:

A. positioning statement
B. mission statement
C. value forecast
D. market plan
E. segmentation synopsis

B

How does primary research differ from secondary research?

A. primary research answers specific questions, secondary research does not
B. primary research usually costs more than secondary research
C. data from primary research is likely to be more current than data gathered by way of secondary research
D. results from secondary research are typically available to others for a fee, whereas the results of primary research become property of the researcher
E. all of the above traits distinguish primary from secondary research

E

The __________ refers to limited periods during which the key requirements of a market and the particular competencies of a firm best fit together.

A. strategic window
B. buyer-seller portal
C. marketing matrix
D. dedicated doorway
E. market convergence

A

The theory advocating that the company that is first to offer a product in a marketplace will be the long-term market winner is called the:

A. market supremacy theory
B. first-mover strategy
C. premier positioning theory
D. forefront market strategy
E. conspicuous consumer theory

B

A marketing strategy in which a firm produces only one product or product line and promotes it to all customers is called:

A. undifferentiated or mass marketing
B. selective marketing
C. differentiated marketing
D. strategic marketing
E. bipolarized marketing

A

Which of the following characteristics distinguishes a service from a good?

A. services are intangible
B. services are always perishable
C. services are inseparable from the provider
D. services cannot be easily standardized
E. ALL of these characteristics serve to distinguish services from goods.

E

A good produced for overseas markets that re-enters the U.S. market and competes against a domestic version of that same good is known as a:

A. counterfeit good
B. smuggled good
C. passport good
D. grey good
E. imported good

D

In marketing, the acronym "AIDA" stands for which of the following:

A. attitude - ideas - determination - application
B. announce - implement - distribute - account
C. attention - interest - desire - action
D. advertising - inside sales - direct mail - accounting
E. assess - investigate - decide - adjust

C

Which of the following is the most important factor in determining the success of the international marketer?

A. the creation of a new marketing concept
B. the ability to adapt to different marketing environments
C. the development of new marketing processes
D. the evolution of unique marketing principles
E. the need to translate all materials to a foreign language

B

The unconscious reference to one's own cultural values, experiences and knowledge as a basis for decisions is known as the:

A. domestic marketing concept
B. self-reference criterion
C. principle of comparative advantage
D. international marketing concept
E. cultural imperative

B

When one party provides another party with ad hoc access to its internal information, this is:
a. loose integration.
b. close integration.
c. open integration.
d. tight integration.

A

Which of the following statements is not true about cloud computing?
a. It consists of three types of services: cloud infrastructure, cloud platform, and cloud software.
b. It removes the concern about data and systems security for businesses.
c. It allows smaller firms to use resources previously unaffordable.
d. It relies on the Internet as the platform for delivering services to users.

B

Expert systems are real-world applications of
a. Market Intelligence
b. IT Intelligence
c. Artificial Intelligence
d. Business Intelligence

C

Which of the following is true of CSFs?
a. CSFs focus on individual managers and their information needs
b. CSFs can help identify information systems needs
c. CSFs define what must go right for an organization to be successful
d. All of the above

D

Which of the following is a goal of structured development methodologies?
a. establish documentation standards
b. higher reliability
c. more efficient use of system resources
d. All of the above

D

________is a broad set of concepts, methods, and technologies to improve context-sensitive business decision making by using information-centric support systems.
a Market Intelligence
b. IT Intelligence
c. Artificial Intelligence
d. Business Intelligence

D

Which of the following is an approach to solving the problems of system integration?
a. DBMSs
b. ERP systems
c. Middleware
d. All of the above

D

Web services involves modules of code that have a URL and provide a capability when requested.

A. True
B. False

A

Which of the following is the person or group that legitimizes the change caused by an IT project?
a. the sponsor
b. the change agent
c. the target
d. None of the above

A

The primary reason contributing to the failure of ERP systems is:
a. cost.
b. the need to change organizational culture and structure.
c. project size and complexity.
d. technical requirements.

B

____________ is the area of greatest contention for an IT project.
a. The project schedule
b. The project scope
c. The project costs and benefits
d. All of the above

C

Middleware is:
a. hardware used to connect applications together.
b. software used to connect applications together.
c. objects designed to improve database performance.
d. All of the above

B

A(n) ________ is a software system that is created quickly.
a. information repository
b. prototype
c. library of macros
d. data dictionary
e. None of the above

B

Which of the following is a function of the data administration group?
a. Clean up data definitions
b. Control shared data
c. Manage data distribution
d. All of the above

D

Which of the following is a reason that companies outsource IS functions?
a. to focus on core competencies
b. to utilize lower labor costs
c. to increase value to the organization
d. All of the above

B

Part of a credo includes a list of lines you would never cross to be successful.

A. True
B. False

A

Utilitarianism is described as the "greatest happiness principle".
A. True
B. False

A

Suppliers are not stakeholders in the corporation.

A. False
B. True

A

True or False:
Outsourcing manufacturing jobs from the United States to developing countries is an example of a utilitarianism application.

True

A physical fitness expert retained by a fitness magazine to evaluate walking shoes has a conflict of interest if she has an endorsement contract with one of the shoe companies that manufactures the shoes she will be evaluating.

A. True
B. False

A

Milton Friedman supports social spending by businesses if they can show a benefit to the shareholders.

A. True
B. False

A

Carla Simmons, head of finance for the ABC Corp., has just interviewed Lea James, an employee from the finance department of InChip, ABC's chief competitor. Lea has explained that she has been passed over one too many times for a promotion at InChip and is thus in the job market. In the course of the interview, Lea tells Carla, "I have no contract at InChip that obligates me in anyway. I can begin immediately. Further, I have been able to obtain copies of our newest computer chip designs which would be usedful to ABC." Her statement is truthful.

a. Since Lea is not under any contract with InChip, Carla should hire Lea on the spot without any worries about ethical breaches.
b. Carla's hiring of Lea may constitute an ethical breach, but would not constitute illegal conduct.
c. Carla should not hire Lea, and must analyze the issue of whether to disclose Lea's
conduct to InChip.
d. Carla should not hire Lea and need not worry about Lea's conduct and its impact on InChip.

C

Why are former employers reluctant to furnish negative information about their former employees to prospective employers?

a. Most states prohibit such disclosures by law
b. Invasion of privacy
c. Potential lawsuits by the employees for slander or libel
d. None of the above

C

Which of the following would be referred to as a "Chinese Wall":

a. The corruption barrier for businesses based outside of China.
b. The firewall in a company business.
c. The barrier between the deal brokers and the trading brokers of an investment banker.
d. None of the above

C

According to Milton Friedman, an executive imposes taxes on shareholders when:

a. She or he uses corporate funds for social causes.
b. She or he fails to take all available deductions.
c. She or he pays dividends.
d. All of the above

A

Some specific challenges today's managers and organizations face includes all of the following, except:

a. Ethical scrutiny
b. Increasing diversity
c. A traditional workplace
d. Globalization

C

has moved to the forefront in light of devastating natural disasters and terrorist attacks all over the world.

a. Prediction management
b. Trend analysis
c. Planning events
d. Crisis management

D

The 385-page book that McDonald's uses to describe all rules and procedures in each of its stores best represents which of the following dimensions:

a. Learning theory.
b. Sequential interdependence.
c. Formalization.
d. Specialization.

C

The degree to which organizational tasks are subdivided into separate jobs is referred to as

a. formalization.
b. specialization.
c. professionalism.
d. centralization.

B

____ is the degree to which an organization achieves its goals.

a. Effectiveness
b. Efficiency
c. Organizational strategy
d. Stakeholder profitability

A

____ emphasized designing and managing organization on an impersonal, rational basis through such elements as clearly defined authority and responsibility, formal record keeping, and uniform application of standard rules.

a. Hawthorne Studies
b. Scientific management
c. Bureaucratic organizations
d. Contingency theory

C

Interpretations of ____ concluded that positive treatment of employees improved their motivation and productivity.

a. bureaucratic organizations
b. stakeholder approaches
c. scientific management
d. Hawthorne Studies

D

The technical core refers to:
The people who do the basic work of the organization, producing product and service outputs.

A. True
B. False

A

Organizations with a(n) ____ are mature firms that are extremely large and are subdivided into product or market groups.

a. professional bureaucracy
b. machine bureaucracy
c. entrepreneurial structure
d. diversified form

D

The science of ____ suggests that relationships in complex, adaptive systems are nonlinear and made up of numerous interconnections and divergent choices that create unintended effects and render the whole unpredictable.

a. organization theory
b. chaos theory
c. meso theory
d. bureaucracy theory

B

The learning organization:

a. Places high value on problem solving.
b. Emphasizes training as the essential value.
c. Engages people in sessions focused on finding maximum organizational efficiency.
d. Is most effective when the organization's environment is recognized as stable.

A

Miles and Snow's Strategy Typology is based on the notion that:

a. Strategy should correspond to technology.
b. Strategy should be congruent with external environment.
c. Strategy should be based on human resource capability.
d. Strategy should be a "fit" to economic resource base.

B

Organization ____ needs to support the firm's competitive approach.

a. financial standings
b. design characteristics
c. informal communication channel
d. environment for green movement

B

When problems and decisions are funneled to top levels of the hierarchy for resolution, ____ is being used.

a. centralized decision making
b. functional structure
c. horizontal linkage
d. full-time integration

A

____ are used to coordinate activities between the top and bottom of an organization and are designed primarily for control of the organization.

a. Vertical linkages
b. Functional groupings
c. Horizontal linkages
d. Divisional groupings

A

Riya is the vice president of marketing for her company. Other officers in the company include the vice presidents of engineering, production, finance, and human resource management. The structure of this small company is likely to be:

a. product.
b. matrix.
c. functional.
d. hybrid.

C

The product or divisional structure:

a. is not suited to fast change in an unstable environment.
b. centralizes decision making.
c. facilitates integration and standardization across product lines.
d. allows units to adapt to differences in products, regions, and clients.

D

All of the following are strengths of a divisional organization structure, except:

a. Allows units to adapt to differences in products, regions, customers.
b. Involves high coordination across functions.
c. Centralizes decision making.
d. Best in large organizations with several products.

C

The matrix structure:

a. always keeps dual-authority relationships.
b. should be considered only in a stable environment.
c. is designed for use within a bureaucracy.
d. is known for its quality of centralization of key decisions for organizational control.

A

____ means the redesign of a vertical organization along its horizontal workflows and processes.

a. Vertical linkages
b. Vertical network grouping
c. Process
d. Reegineering

D

Potential weaknesses of the horizontal structure include:

a. it is considered inflexible and slow in response to rapid changes in customer needs.
b. determining core processes to organize around is often difficult.
c. there is a failure to promote teamwork.
d. views of organizational goals by employees focuses into too narrow of a perspective.

B

With a ____, the firm subcontracts most of its major functions or processes to separate companies and coordinates their activities from a small headquarters organization.

a. virtual network structure
b. matrix structure
c. divisional structure
d. functional structure

A

The perspective which examines how new organizations fill niches left open by established organizations and how a rich variety of new organizational forms benefits society, refers to

a. Population ecology.
b. Resource-dependence theory.
c. Collaborative networks.
d. Institutionalism.

A

In resource dependence theory:

a. A small supplier should count on price competition for locking in accounts.
b. A small supplier should lock in a single large company for the bulk of its sales.
c. Organizations will do whatever is needed to avoid dependence on the environment for reducing uncertainty.
d. Organizations will set up dependencies when they become more self-reliant.

C

A basic assumption of the population ecology model is that:

a. management competence is the biggest factor in the survival of organizations.
b. the environment determines which organizations survive or fail.
c. principles of evolution are not applicable to organizations because the fittest don't survive.
d. a community of organizations is a closed system.

B

____ are pressures to change to achieve standards of professionalism and to adopt techniques that are considered by the professional community to be up to date and effective.

a. Coercive forces
b. Mimetic forces
c. Normative forces
d. Legitimacy forces

C

An organization's ____ is the work process that is directly related to the organization's mission.

a. core technology
b. mediating technology
c. long-linked technology
d. non-core technology

A

Which of the following links together manufacturing components that previously stood alone?

a. Continuous process systems
b. Flexible manufacturing systems
c. Advance technological systems
d. Computerized process systems

B

The heart of ____ is not machines, but employee involvement.

a. mass customization
b. FMS
c. lean manufacturing
d. CAD

C

The awesome advantage of FMS is that:

a. it requires little training to use.
b. there is little employee involvement.
c. one product can be produced at a time, making it easier for employees to operate.
d. products of different sizes, types, and customer requirements freely intermingle on the assembly line.

D

The general pattern in technology research is that when technologies are routine, analyzable, independent, and well defined, then:

a. use organic structures with less control, fewer procedures, decentralized decision making, and face-to-face communications.
b. a sociotechnical approach should be used.
c. mechanistic structures with tighter control, formalized procedures, centralized decision making, and written communications are appropriate.
d. coordination must be achieved through CIM.

C

Assume you are the supervisor of workers who have very limited education and experience, and that their work is routine. Generally you would:

a. be able to handle only a narrow span of control.
b. strive for low centralization and low formalization.
c. use the human relations model.
d. be able to have a wide span of control.

D

A building contractor is constructing 35 "track homes" on small adjoining parcels. The crew knows that the many subcontractors must complete their work in a proper order. What is your recommendation regarding the level of coordination required?

a. Because this is pooled interdependence, rules from the construction industry should suffice because then everyone on the job can learn the rules for the proper ordering of subcontractors.
b. Because this is reciprocal interdependence, cross-functional teams among all the subcontractors will be essential.
c. Because this is sequential interdependence, regularly scheduled meetings and planning will be needed to coordinate the ordering of the work.
d. Because this is a sociotechnical system, it is most important to design the coordination to improve efficiency, ignoring human needs.

C

Reciprocal interdependence is the highest level of interdependence and exists when the output of operation A is the input to operation B, and the output of operation B is the input back again to operation A.

A. True
B. False

A

Which of the following characterizes the formalization stage of the life cycle?

a. More formal and less frequent communication
b. Top management concern with planning and strategy
c. Incentive system based on profits is implemented for managers
d. All of these

D

Organizations going through the life cycle:

a. usually reach elaboration in 12-18 months.
b. tend to become very bureaucratic by the collectivity stage.
c. usually resolve crises associated with each stage, or face restricted growth.
d. tend to experience their wildest and most rapid growth period in the formalization stage.

C

Max Weber developed the concept of a bureaucracy to make organizations:

a. more rational and efficient.
b. more empathetic.
c. less formal.
d. quicker to respond to stakeholders.

A

Research on personnel ratios has found that:

a. clerical and professional support staff ratios decrease in proportion to organization size.
b. small organizations are very inefficient because direct workers as a percent of total employees is so low.
c. personnel ratios for professional support staff are higher in small firms than in large firms.
d. there is a lowered administrative ratio in large firms.

D

High formalization is most closely associated with which of the following?

a. Organic structure
b. Small size
c. Large size
d. Responsive style

C

The primary reason that the CEO of a large company such as McDonald's would push decisions as far down the hierarchy as he can is to:

a. develop managers.
b. make decisions more quickly.
c. appear more American and thereby increase sales.
d. save himself the trouble of making these decisions.

B

When downsizing, all of the following can help smooth the downsizing process and ease tensions for employees who leave and remain except:

a. help the survivors thrive.
b. communicate more, not less.
c. provide assistance to displaced workers.
d. let workers deal with the situation on their own and in their own ways.

D

Culture exists at two levels called:

a. sub- and super-structure.
b. people and structure.
c. underlying values and visible artifacts.
d. social and psychological.

C

Which of the following is (are) manifestation(s) of corporate culture?

a. Legends
b. Ceremonies
c. Stories
d. All of these

D

Nordstrom's upside-down organization chart is an example of ____ being used to convey organizational culture to all employees.

a. a story
b. a myth
c. a symbol
d. language

C

The ____ culture has an internal focus and a consistency orientation for a stable environment.

a. organic
b. clan
c. traditional
d. bureaucratic

D

Most managers are shifting away from bureaucratic cultures because of a need for:

a. greater flexibility.
b. better decision making techniques.
c. easier communication channels.
d. reducing employee participation.

A

It has been found that a learning organization has a strong organizational culture characterized by the following value(s):

a. the whole is more important than the part, and boundaries between parts are minimized.
b. external strategic focus with continual thoughts of what others are doing that's right.
c. life-time employment for workers at every level (unless a work rule is violated).
d. all of these.

A

When behavior is governed by a set of moral principles and values it is called:

a. the rule of law.
b. ethics.
c. a mission environment.
d. none of these.

B

Which of the following influences personal ethics?

a. Individual beliefs and values
b. A person's ethical decision framework
c. Moral development
d. All of these

D

____ is an extension of the idea of managerial ethics and refers to management's obligation to make choices and take action so that the organization contributes to the welfare and interest of all organizational stakeholders.

a. Culture strength
b. Values-based leadership
c. Corporate Social Responsibility
d. External adaptation

C

Today it should be recognized that:

a. stability is the environmental norm.
b. organizational change should occur incrementally.
c. "if it ain't broke, don't fix it" is a rule of management.
d. change is dramatic and constant.

D

The ambidextrous approach refers to:

a. using different structures and management processes for creation and for implementation.
b. introducing parts of a new procedure while maintaining parts of the old procedure.
c. not letting the "left hand" (one department) know what the "right hand" (another department) is doing.
d. using highly skilled employees to implement a change.

A

A venture team:

a. may increase commitment, but stifles creativity.
b. is often given a separate location and facilities.
c. is like a large company within a small company.
d. is most often found in a mechanistic organization.

B

A(n) ____ is a separate, small, informal, highly autonomous, and often secretive group that focuses on breakthrough ideas for the business.

a. idea champion
b. idea incubator
c. new-venture fund
d. skunkworks

D

In the horizontal coordination model the ____ component means that each department involved with new products has excellent linkage with relevant sectors in the external environment.

a. specialization
b. boundary spanning
c. horizontal coordination
d. coordination

B

The aim of ____ is to provide an adequate supply of appropriately qualified individuals to fill jobs in an organization.
a. diversity assessment and training
b. staffing
c. HR strategic planning and analysis
d. human resource development

B

When the human resources function creates a unique capability in a firm that creates high value and differentiates the organization from its competition, human resources is a/an ____ for the firm.
a. tangible asset
b. core competency
c. critical capability
d. emerging asset

B

Which of the following is categorized as an advocacy role of HR management?
a. conducting new employee orientations
b. resolving employee complaints about unfair treatment
c. engaging in community workforce development planning
d. labor/management negotiations

B

The agency responsible for overseeing and enforcing Affirmative Action plans is called the:
a. OFCCP
b. EEOQ
c. EEOC
d. DOL

A

The Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970:

a. Calls for safety and health inspections of all organizations, no matter how big or small
b. Requires all employers to record occupational accidents and illnesses
c. Made OSHA responsible for establishing and enforcing occupational safety and health standards
d. Does not require employers to record minor employee injuries that require only first aid and don't involve medical treatment
e. Is accurately described by all of the above

E

The strategic use of employment agencies and executive search firms is mainly determined by:

a. The staffing budget of the organization
b. The determination of the human resources department
c. The job description and salary level of the position, as well as the candidate's KSAO's.
d. Only the CEO makes these strategic decisions.

C

Employee separation includes downsizing for strategic purposes and:

a. Eliminating the workforce due to profit growth and relocation
b. Operation measures to streamline key workforce personnel
c. Change the knowledge base of the workforce and eliminate poor performers
d. Increasing work productivity

C

Employee Onboarding is:

a. Initial training for all employees to learn the culture and the business and make key contacts
b. Benefits start up for key managers only
c. The strategy to identify key performers and provide proprietary background checks
d. An external service provided for terminated employees

A

Compensation policies refer to an organization's ability to:

a. Tightly manage employee salaries and stay within prescribed budgets
b. Remain competitive to attract and retain employees through pay and reward systems
c. train management and executives to communicate rewards to their employees
d. manage pay grades through service and merit award programs

B

The Family Medical and Leave Act:

a. Enables employees up to 12 weeks of unpaid leave without loss of a position
b. Enables employees up to 12 weeks of paid leave without loss of position
c. Enables employees with leave that can be taken after three months of completed service
d. Is available to all organizations that have employees

A

This is a conventional distinction made between managers and leaders.

a. Managers maintain while leaders develop
b. Managers innovate while leaders administer
c. Managers inspire while leaders control
d. Managers originate while leaders imitate

A

What best describes the leader-follower relationship?

a. The relationship is a one-way street
b. Leadership and followership are the same thing
c. Leadership and followership merge and are linked concepts
d. It is based on the idea of 'one-man leadership'

C

Among the following, ideal followers are more likely to be perceived as

a. Independent
b. Forward-looking
c. Inspiring
d. Innovative

A

Being a leader is either in one's genes or not. Which of the following statement is true?

a. Innate factors more than formative experiences influence leadership.
b. Leadership is either innate or acquired, not both
c. Typically most individuals can be categorized based on their innate qualities as leaders and nonleaders.
d. Each person can make the most of leadership opportunities he or she faces

D

Leadership is often more associated with

a. Consistency
b. Planning
c. Paperwork
d. Change

D

This is a conventional distinction made between managers and leaders.

a. Managers maintain while leaders develop
b. Managers innovate while leaders administer
c. Managers inspire while leaders control
d. Managers originate while leaders imitate

A

The "ends" of leadership involve

a. The process of coordinating the work of group members
b. The ability to build cohesive teams
c. Getting results through others
d. The ability to build goal-oriented teams

C

What is the unique contribution of the LMX theory?

a. It looks at just the personal characteristics of the leader
b. It looks at the nature of the relationship between the leader and his/her followers
c. It looks at the characteristics of the situation
d. It looks at the interaction between the leader and his/her followers

B

Leaders who are appointed by superiors

a. Need to be sensitive to their constituencies
b. Always have credibility with subordinates
c. Are better able to influence a group toward goal achievement
d. Have the loyalty of the organization's subordinates

A

Women leaders' interactive leadership style developed

a. Due to their socialization experiences and career paths
b. Because of exchanges with subordinates for services rendered
c. By influencing others primarily through their organizational position and authority
d. Because of their organizational position

A

What is the major factor that prevents senior female executives from advancing to corporate leadership?

a. Lack of significant general management
b. Male stereotyping and preconceptions
c. Inhospitable corporate culture
d. Exclusion from informal networks

B

According to a recent study, one of the general factors that explains the shift toward more women leaders is that women themselves have changed. How is this evident?

a. A trend toward less stereotypically masculine characterizations of leadership
b. Women's aspirations and attitudes have become more similar to those of men over time
c. A legislation prohibiting gender-based discrimination at work
d. Changes in organizational norms that put a higher priority on results than an "old boy" network

B

Leaders

a. Tend to accept the definitions of situations presented to them
b. Encourage growth and development in their followers in ways broader than mere job training
c. Emphasize routinization and control of followers' behavior
d. Motivate followers more with extrinsic, even contractual consequences, both positive and negative

B

Adaptive problems can be solved

a. Only by experts
b. Only by changing the system itself
c. Using currently existing resources
d. Using current ways of thinking

B

The key to developing one's leadership ability is making the most of

a. Experience
b. Research
c. Education
d. Skills

A

Leadership development is enhanced when experience involves the three processes of:
a. Stop, look and listen
b. Perception, attribution and learning
c. Action, observation and reflection
d. Action, behavior and consequence

C

Crediting your own successes to dispositional factors and others' successes to factors in the environment are aspects of
a. Attribution
b. Fundamental attribution error
c. Self-fulfilling prophecy
d. Double-loop learning

B

The tendency to make external attributions for one's own failures, yet make internal attributions for one's successes is called
a. Fundamental attribution error
b. Actor/observer difference
c. Self-serving bias
d. Fallacy of the single cause

C

Mastering _____ can be thought of as learning how to learn.
a. Double-loop learning
b. Single-loop learning
c. Deutero-learning
d. Triple-loop learning

A

People who become leaders in any field tend to first stand out by virtue of their
a. Interpersonal skills
b. Technical proficiency
c. Emotional intelligence
d. Intercultural competence

B

How are mentorees benefited in a mentoring relationship?
a. By gaining an influential ally and by learning about the subtler aspects of organizational ethics
b. By the greater influence they accrue by having former mentorees in various positions across the organization
c. By having a younger replacement ready to fill their position if they are promoted
d. By encouraging younger colleagues in the organization

A

What is the advantage of role playing as a leadership concept?
a. Individualized feedback to students through leadership behavior ratings
b. Depict the challenges commonly faced in the work environment
c. Used as a vehicle for leadership discussions
d. Greater transferability to the workplace

D

According to research, between 50-90 percent of all new businesses fail within five years due to
a. Insufficient capital
b. Managerial incompetence
c. Location
d. Lack of planning

B

Identify the major worry for top leaders, regardless of country or organization.
a. Organizational barriers
b. Difficulty finding laborers
c. The lack of high quality leadership talent
d. Too much focus on short-term development

C

Adopting valid and well-researched processes for hiring, developing or promoting leadership talent is necessary for developing
a. A good competency model
b. A good leadership talent management system
c. A critical leadership position
d. A performance appraisal system

B

In _____, applicants are put through a series of leadership potential assessment techniques and only the applicants who "pass" one assessment are allowed to move on to the next.
a. Compensatory approach
b. Qualitative approach
c. Multiple hurdles approach
d. Quantitative approach

C

In structured interviews, The common set of questions make it much easier to compare different leaders' skills.

A. True
B. False

A

What is the first step in improving the bench strength of the leaders within an organization?
a. To promote the right people
b. To cultivate employee loyalty
c. To be up-to-date with the latest developments in technology
d. To evaluate and reward its leaders

A

How can one differentiate between successful and unsuccessful leaders?
a. By the attributes of their followers
b. By the attributes they possess
c. By the productivity of their followers
d. By the behaviors they exhibit

D

This phenomenon is becoming more prevalent as organizations move toward virtual teams or increase the number of people any one superior may supervise.
a. Superiors may be largely unaware or unfamiliar with a target leader's performance
b. Superiors do not take the time to provide accurate performance appraisal ratings
c. Superiors have difficulty dealing with conflict
d. Superiors would rather give average ratings than deal with the emotions associated with unflattering ratings

A

Followers are more likely to use _____ power to change their leader's behavior if they have a relatively high amount of referent power with their fellow co-workers.
a. Reward
b. Coercive
c. Legitimate
d. Expert

B

Leaders in well-functioning firms are not influenced by their subordinates

A. True
B. False

B

A politician's advisor explains how demographic changes in the politician's district make it important for the politician to spend relatively more time in the district seeing constituents than she has needed to in the recent past. This is an example of
a. Ingratiation
b. An inspirational appeal
c. A consultation
d. A rational persuasion

D

What is the major disadvantage of the performance measurement system?
a. It may be manipulated to allow continuation of the actions that best fulfill his/her reading of the system goals
b. A person might cheat on the measurement system by exploiting its weaknesses in hopes of advancement
c. It "takes underground" constructive dialogue about system goals or modifications in system measurements
d. A person acts in a way that optimizes his/her performance measurements without realizing that this outcome was not what the system intended

C

Theory Y reflects a view that most people
a. Need to be coaxed to work productively
b. Are not naturally motivated to work
c. Need to be coerced to work productively
d. Are intrinsically motivated by their work

D

Which of the following statements concerning servant leadership is true?
a. The leader's primary role is to do whatever it takes to assure that things run smoothly
b. It is derived from a bureaucratic view of organizations
c. It places emphasis upon listening effectively to others
d. It has commonly involved a very top-down and hierarchical approach to leadership

C

What is the ultimate test of a servant leader's work?
a. Whether they understand others' feelings and perspectives
b. Whether it helps re-create a sense of community among people
c. Whether they can influence others through their persuasiveness
d. Whether those served develop toward being more responsible and competent individuals

D

By discouraging cross-functional collaboration, leaders can help guarantee that
a. Focusing on only short-term outcomes will dampen team members' creativity
b. Team members will have little motivation to change the status quo
c. Team members will only offer up tried and true solutions to problems
d. The tighter the deadlines, the more likely that innovation will be reduced

C

Which set of leaders will perform best under stressful conditions?
a. Leaders with less experience
b. Leaders with more experience
c. Leaders with less intelligence
d. Leaders with more intelligence

B

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