What would make antibodies to the B agglutinogen, but not the A agglutinogen?
Would have type A and B agglutinogens?
Would make antibodies to the A and B agglutionogens?
Would make antibodies to the A agglutinogen, but not the B agglutinogen?
Which of the following is considered a lymphocyte?
Which of the following is a characteristic of a mature erythrocyte?
It has a biconcave disc shape.
Highly phagocytic cell with a U shaped nucleus.
Small agranulocyte that can live for years.
Has a role in killing parasitic worms.
The most numerous type of white blood cell.
Bilobed nucleus and dark staining cytoplasmic granules.
Aging red blood cells are fragmented and trapped in the:
Blood type is determined by:
Glycoproteins present on the surface of erythrocytes.
Erythropoietin is made primarily by the:
The migration of white blood cells out of the capillary blood vessels is called:
A free-floating blood clot is called a thrombus.
Which of the following is not a role of Albumin?
It serves an immune system function.
Erythropoiesis is best defined as:
Red blood cell production.
The percentage of blood volume occupied by erythrocytes is called the:
Converts fibrinogen to fibrin.
Fibrin digesting enzyme.
Platelet derived growth factor:
Stimulates blood vessel healing.
Choose the true statement about fetal hemoglobin.
Fetal hemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than adult hemoglobin.
Which of the following is true regarding the extrinsic pathway of blood clotting?
The extrinsic pathway is triggered by tissue factor.
One molecule of hemoglobin can bind a maximum of ___ oxygen molecules.
Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) can develop when an Rh+ mother is pregnant with an Rh- child.
Overproduction of white blood cells is called:
Which of the following shows the correct sequence of hemostasis from start to end?
Vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, and coagulation.
Granulocytes do not include:
The buffy coat that appears after a sample of blood has been centrifuged contains:
The process of actively metabolizing oxygen to produce bleach and hydrogen to kill bacteria is known as:
Erythroblastosis fetalis is caused by:
Rh incompatibility between an Rh- mother and an Rh+ child during pregnancy.
Individuals with malaria have a better chance of surviving if they have which type of anemia?
Which of the following is a function of basophils?
Release histamine during an allergic reaction.
Which of the following facts has the greatest effect on making RBCs very effecient oxygen transporters?
They generated ATP by anaerobic mechanisms and do not consume any of the oxygen they carry.
A major plasma protein that maintains the blood osmotic pressure.
Another term for reduced hemoglobin.
Which leukocyte contains histamine in its granules?
Which of the following is a function of neutrophils?
Which of the following types of white blood cells kills parasitic worms, destroys antibody complexes, and inactivates some inflammatory chemicals of allergy?
The terms biconcave and anucleated apply to:
Red blood cells.
Which of the following is a function of erythrocytes?
Transport oxygen and carbon dioxide.
The final step in clot formation is:
Fibrinogen → Fibrin.
Which antibodies would be found in the serum of a person with AB blood?
Neither A nor B antibodies.
Eighty-five percent of Americans carry the ___ Rh agglutinogen on their RGVs.
A healthy adult male has approximately ___ liters of blood.
Mature red blood cells in the circulating blood are filled with:
Which of the following is a function of lymphocytes?
Destruction of virus containing cells.
Diapedesis refers to:
The escape of leukocytes from blood vessels into tissue spaces.
The percentage of total volume used to determine the number of erythrocytes in a blood sample is referred to as the:
The most numerous leukocyte is the:
Pernicious anemia may result from:
The lack of vitamin B12 in diet or deficiency of intrinsic factor needed to absorb B12.
Increased blood flow due to vasodilation of blood vessels entering the injured area.
Seeps from the capillaries and contains clotting factors and antibodies.
The process in which white blood cells are attracted to the site of an injury.
Caused by an excess blood flow to the injured area; helps dilute harmful substances and brings in excess oxygen.
Helper T cells.
Bind to antigen presenting cells to begin the process of co-stimulation.
Memory B cells.
Remember antigens from one exposure event to another.
Cytotoxic T cells.
Attack and lyse cells that are not 'self'.
Immunity gained from being exposed to the pathogen and developing the illness.
Injections of clonal antibodies to fight off a current pathogen invasion.
Transport of antibodies across the placental membrane or through mother's milk.
Injections of dead or attenuated strains of the disease causing agents.
Thyroid gland becomes hyperactive.
Disease that destroys the linings of joints.
Disease that destroys the myelin sheaths of the brain and spinal cord.
Disease that leads to drooping facial muscles because the neuromuscular junctions are damaged.
Defenses we gain through life experience and exposure to antigens.
Defenses with which we are born.
Proteins that attach to antigens.
System of proteins that lyse cell membrane.
Helper T cell.
Coordinate humoral and cellular immune responses.
A common APC.
Invoke inflammation when IgE cross links to them.
This process encourages phagocytosis.
Characterized by high numbers of neutrophils
A plasma protein.
Covers the skin and limits bacterial growth.
Natural killer cells.
A small subgroup of lymphocytes that will attack cancerous cells.
Phagocytes that will migrate to the site of an infection within a few hours.
Derived from circulation monocytes.
Neutrophils squeeze through walls of capillaries into the tissues.
Inflammatory chemicals attract neutrophils to the injured areas.
Neutrophils attach to CAMs on the endothelial linings in the injured area.
Chemicals released from injured tissues stimulate rapid proliferation and release of cells.
First line of defense against invading organisms.
Produces HCl and enzymes that kill bacteria.
Saliva and tears.
Contains the antibacterial enzyme called lysozyme.
Sticky mucous membrane lined with cilia.
A patient who lacks intrinsic factor is likely to develop?
Platelets are derived from:
Has an A antigen.
Blood group A.
Has both A and B antigens.
Blood group AB.
Has both anti A and B antibodies.
Blood group O.
Has only anti-A antibody.
Blood group B.
Tissue factor (TFIII) or tissue thromoplastin.
Triggers the 'shortcut' extrinsic mechanism that bypasses several steps of the intrinsic pathway.
Catalyzes conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin strands.
Inactive form of thrombin.
Von Willebrand Factor (VWF)
Assists platelets to adhere to collagen fibers.
Plasma minus the clotting proteins.
Sodium, calcium, potassium, chloride, phosphate, and sulfate.
Produced by the liver and exerts osmotic pressure to maintain water balance between blood and tissues.
Involved in transport of lipids and immune response.
Non-protein nitrogenous substances.
Byproducts of cellular metabolism; urea and uric acid.
Ninety percent of plasma volume; dissolving and suspending medium for solutes of blood.
Iron deficiency anemia.
Can result from inadequate intake of iron containing foods and impaired iron absorption.
Results from destruction or inhibition of the red marrow by certain bacterial toxins, drugs, and ionizing radiation.
Sickle cell anemia.
Caused by abnormal hemoglobin from a change in DNA which results in a change in one of the 287 amino acids.
Caused by defective synthesis of heme groups and production of nonfunctional hemoglobin molecules.
Result from bleeding.
Thin white colored area in centrifuged blood that contains WBC and platelets.
The liquid portion of centrifuged blood that sits atop everything else.
Erythrocyte portion of centrifuged blood.
Form a temporary plug at the site of bleeding.
Increase in number significantly during bacterial infections.
Play a critical role in immunity.
Contain the anticoagulant heparin granules.
Differentiate into macrophages.
What is the second step of T-cell activation?
In the list below, which type of cell is involved in adaptive immunity?
___ are substances that can trigger the adaptive defenses and provoke an immune response.
Dimeric antibody found in body secretions.
Antibody that mediates some allergies.
Large pentamer shaped antibody.
Most abundant class of antibodies.
Antigen receptor found on B cells.
Humoral immunity is provided by:
Which of the following is characteristic of a secondary immune response?
A secondary immune response lasts longer than a primary immune response.
Self reactive B cells are eliminated in the:
A graft that is transplanted from one person to a genetically identical individual is an example of a:
___ is the property of lymphocytes that prevents them from attacking the body's own cells.
MHC II proteins are found:
On antigen presenting cells.
Which of the following is not a property of interferons (IFNs)?
IFNs stimulate B cells to produce antibodies.
The first step in inflammation is:
A moderate fever is a protective immune response.
Phagocytes squeeze through the capillary endothelium.
White blood cells migrate to the site of tissue damage.
An increase in the number of white blood cells that are in circulation.
Clinging of phagocytic cells to the inner walls of capillaries.
Which of the following is mismatched?
Helper T cells; directly target and kill cancer cells.
A vaccination works to establish:
Artificial active immunity.
Which of the following is not a sign of inflammation?
Severe combined immundeficiency syndrome (SCID).
Genetic defect resulting in a shortage of B and/or T cells.
Condition in which T helper cells are destroyed by a virus.
Which of the following is not considered a lymphoid organ or lymphoid tissue?
The most common type of leukocyte is the ___.
Which type of cell wanders through the deep cortex of lymph nodes searching for dendritic cells that are presenting their antigens?
When exposed to an allergen such a s pollen, the body makes what class of antibodies?
Where in the spleen are the lymphocytes concentrated?
Which type of cell is important to both humoral and cellular adaptive defenses?
When B cells undergo clonal expansansion, what are the effector cells?
Plasma B cells.
Lymphoid tissue associated with mucosal membrane, including the tonsils, Peyer's patches, and select areas of the respiratory system, are collectively known as ___.
To avoid an autoimmune disease, lymphocytes must avoid attacking:
Antibodies that are free in the extracellular fluid are known as:
Immunoglobulins or gamma globulins.
Vaccinations allow our bodies to generate a ___ immune response when we encounter the antigen.
Antimicrobial proteins known as ___, are produced by infected body cells in order to block viral reproduction in neighboring uninfected cells.
Antibodies in breast milk allow the passive transfer of immunity from mother to baby. Which class of antibody is transferred in breast milk?
Antigen-presenting cells only express co-stimulatory molecules when they have been signaled by the ___________ defense mechanism.
Which of the following cell types can ultimately produce antibodies?
The process of opsonization involves coating bacteria to aid phagocytes in ingesting these pathogens
Natural killer cells recognize abnormal (e.g. cancerous) cells by their absence of "self" proteins on their surfaces
B cells usually encounter their specific antigens in the outer cortex of the lymph node. What happens when the B cell encounters the antigen?
The antigen is brought into the B cell and the peptide
Which of the following is not a leukocyte?
Choose the smallest pathogen.
NK cells become more effective killers after they are stimulated by chemicals known as:
The process by which neutrophils exit a capillary is called:
There are two types of helper T cells. Which type secretes interleukin-4 and interleukin-5, which promote B cell activation?
Dendritic cells display which class of MHC proteins
Which of the following classes constitutes the largest fraction of circulating antibodies?
Lymphocytes with a CD8 protein marker become ___ when activated.
Cytotoxic T cells.
Recognize antigen fragments house in cell MHC proteins.
What portion of the antibody determines whether an antibody can activate complement proteins or act as an opsonin?
The stem (constant region).
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the innate internal defenses?
Many immune system cells are erythrocytes.
Where is the vermiform appendix located?
Cecum ye shall find.
Which of the following is considered the immune system's first line of defense.
Microorganisms are trapped in regions of the tonsils known as:
As the B cells begin dividing during the primary immune response, they begin secreting IgM or form germinal centers in the follicle. Which of the following events results in the cells producing IgG, IgA, or IgE antibodies?
Antibody class switching
Which type of cell does NOT serve as an APC?
The surface of a B cell is studded with 10,000-100,000 lymphatic antigen receptors that can bind optimally with:
Only one antigenic determinant.
Which of the following is NOT considered part of the first line of defense?
Which of the following is an agranulocyte?
The largest leukocytes.
A granulocyte with a multi-lobed nucleus that functions as a phagocyte.
Carries oxygen and carbon dioxide.
These function in blood clotting.
The fluid matrix of the blood.
The source of foreign antigens for class II MHC proteins come from _____________ sources.
exogenous (phagocytized extracellular pathogens)
Which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic system
To transport hormones to their target organs
CD4 cells bind to which class of MHC proteins?
Which of the following is not an acute inflammatory response?
Which of the following cell types has memory?
Both B and T cells.
Injection of antibodies for rabies is an example of which type of immunity?
Active Natural Immunity
Active Artificial Immunity
Vaccination w/ dead virus.
Passive Natural Immunity
Passive Artificial Immunity
Vaccination for current illness.
Secretions and milk.
B cell receptor.