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Keratin

cordlike protein that helps to waterproof the skin

Meissner corpuscles

receptor is responsible for detecting light touch

Pacinian corpuscles

receptor is responsible for detecting deep pressure

Common peroneal nerve

endangerment site on the posterior knee

Sternocleidomastoid

neck muscle you use extra caution while massaging due to its close proximity to the carotid
artery

Infraspinatus

muscle located directly inferior to the scapular spine

Lateral

In an injury to the acromioclavicular joint, which end of the clavicle is involved?

Hip

If a client is experiencing pain in the inguinal region, which joint is MOST LIKELY affected?

Quadriceps

Which muscle group resists knee flexion?

Behind the abdominal peritoneum

The kidneys lie in a retroperitoneal position. What does that mean?

Ascends

During exhalation, the diaphragm does what?

Reflex

What is an instantaneous, involuntary response to a stimulus, either inside or outside the body?

Tibialis anterior

lower leg muscle is responsible for dorsiflexion

A nerve must stimulate a muscle

For a skeletal muscle to contract, what must happen first

Psoriasis

is NOT a contagious skin condition

Malignant melanoma

One of the most lethal types of skin cancer is

Flexion and extension

A hinge joint is capable of making which of the following movements?

Pivot

joint moves in one plane only

Flexion

position shortens the muscles of the anterior neck

pectoralis minor & serratus anterior

Muscles that can entrap the brachial plexus

Golgi tendon organs

receptor measures the amount of tension produced at the musculotendinous junction and
inhibits contraction

Rectus femoris

NOT a member of the hamstring muscles

Triceps brachii

muscle extends the elbow

Biceps femoris

hamstring muscle attaches to the fibula

Endocrine

system's primary function is to support the nervous system in its regulation of bodily functions
through hormone production and secretion

Chyme

Pyloric sphincter allows transport of what substance

Active range of motion

A client rotating his head is an example of which of the following?

Masseter, pterygoids, temporalis

muscles most likely involved in temporomandibular joint dysfunction

Pain, swelling, redness, heat

Which are the cardinal signs of inflammation?
A. Ischemia, heat, redness, pain B. Pain, swelling, redness, heat C. Cyanosis, pallor, pain, swelling D. Ischemia, swelling, heat, pain

C. Right ventricle

What heart chamber pumps blood to the lungs?
A. Right atrium C. Right ventricle
B. Left atrium D. Left ventricle

A. Femoral artery

When massaging the sartorius and adductor longus, the therapist needs to avoid pressure on what
structure?
A. Femoral artery C. Common peroneal nerve
B. Radial artery D. Trigeminal nerve

B. Shorter treatments more frequently

What massage considerations are best used for a terminally ill client?
A. Longer treatments more frequently C. Longer treatments less frequently
B. Shorter treatments more frequently D. Shorter treatments less frequently

B. Inversion

When you have a lateral sprain of the foot, what position was the foot in when injured?
A. Plantar flexion C. Dorsiflexion
B. Inversion D. Eversion

A. Hands over the throat

What is the universal sign of an obstructed airway?
A. Hands over the throat C. Coughing
B. Hands over the chest D. Waving arms overhead

C. Triceps brachii

Which muscle inserts on the olecranon process?
A. Biceps brachii C. Triceps brachii
B. Coracobrachialis D. Brachioradialis

B. Stop massaging, remain in the room, be
supportive, obtain permission before
resuming massage

What is an appropriate response if a client has an emotional release during treatment?
A. Find out why the client is crying, counsel
client about the issue
C. Leave the room, tell the client to let you
know when s/he is finished
B. Stop massaging, remain in the room, be
supportive, obtain permission before
resuming massage
D. Continue with the massage, ignoring the
emotional release

B. Constipation

Circular gliding strokes applied on the abdomen in clockwise movements is helpful in what condition?
A. Ulcerative Colitis C. Hiatal Hernia
B. Constipation D. Urinary Incontinence

C. Carpometacarpal of the thumb

What is an example of a saddle joint?
A. Proximal radioulnar joint C. Carpometacarpal of the thumb
B. Talocrural joint D. Metacarpophalangeal joint

B. Confidentiality

A client approaches you at a social function and asks about another one of your clients' progress with
treatment. This conflicts directly with which code of ethics principle?
A. Disclosure C. Networking
B. Confidentiality D. Dual relationships

C. Lighten pressure, ask client to qualify the
pain level, work within his or her
tolerance

During a technique requiring direct sustained pressure, the client complains of pain. What is the best
approach?
A. Explain to the client why the amount of
pressure is needed and continue
C. Lighten pressure, ask client to qualify the
pain level, work within his or her
tolerance
B. Continue with massage, going deeper
during client exhalation
D. Apply ice next to painful area, using
distraction techniques

D. Client may have allergies or scent
sensitivities

Why should you avoid scented massage lubricants?
A. It may interfere with releasing energy
blocks
C. They often stain linens
B. They are cost prohibitive D. Client may have allergies or scent
sensitivities

A. Mineral oil-based lubricants

Which should a therapist avoid when choosing a massage lubricant?
A. Mineral oil-based lubricants C. Hypoallergenic lubricants
B. Nut-based lubricants D. Vegetable-based lubricants

D. Shoulder

If a client has pain in the acromial region, which joint is most likely involved?
A. Elbow C. Hip
B. Knee D. Shoulder

B. Adduction

Movement toward the midline is known as which of the following?
A. Medial C. Abduction
B. Adduction D. Lateral

C. Softens and distends

What affect does heat have on the body's fascia?
A. Shortens and thickens C. Softens and distends
B. Lengthens and repairs D. Increases conductivity

C. Try to rouse the person to consciousness

If you come across an unconscious adult, what should you do first?
A. Try to locate a pulse in the person's throat C. Try to rouse the person to consciousness
B. Clear the person's airway by tilting the
head back

C. 100%

What percentage of income from bartered services is reportable to the Internal Revenue Service?
A. 50% C. 100%
B. 90% D. None is reportable

B. Client record keeping

APIE and SOAP are examples of what?
A. Massage organizations C. Bookkeeping methods
B. Client record keeping D. Advanced certifications

C. Teres minor, subscapularis, supraspinatus,
infraspinatus

Which muscles are parts of the rotator cuff?
A. Infraspinatus, subscapularis, teres major,
subclavius
C. Teres minor, subscapularis, supraspinatus,
infraspinatus
B. Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, pectoralis
minor, subscapularis
D. Subclavius, infraspinatus, teres major,
supraspinatus

B. Passive range of motion

example which of the following?
A. Active resisted range of motion C. Active assisted range of motion B. Passive range of motion D. Active range of motion

C. Reciprocal inhibition

A muscle is inhibited by contraction of its antagonist; this is an example of which of the following?
A. Active resisted range of motion C. Reciprocal inhibition
B. Hilton's Law of Bilateral Symmetry D. Law of facilitation

D. Latissimus dorsi

What is the antagonist to pectoralis major?
A. Serratus anterior C. Coracobrachialis
B. Rhomboids D. Latissimus dorsi

A. Serratus anterior

What is the antagonist to the rhomboids?
A. Serratus anterior C. Levator scapulae
B. Infraspinatus D. Pectoralis minor

B. Gastrocnemius

What is synergist to the Biceps Femoris?
A. Peroneus longus C. Rectus femoris
B. Gastrocnemius D. Tibialis anterior

B. Location and condition of the victim

When calling Emergency Medical Services (EMS: 911), always give them what two items of
information?
A. Your name and your credentials C. Time and place of the accident
B. Location and condition of the victim D. Your name and your location

A. Request that the intake is conducted
verbally

If a client refuses to fill out the intake form, what is the next action that should be taken?
A. Request that the intake is conducted
verbally
C. Fill out the intake form after the session
B. Conduct the intake objectively D. Refuse to treat

A. Flexed

To reduce physical strain when performing massage, the therapist should keep his or her knees slightly
A. Flexed C. Locked
B. Rigid D. Hyperextended

D. Signed medical release form by client's
spouse or family member

A client's records can be released under these circumstances, EXCEPT by
A. Court ordered (subpoena) C. Signed medical release form by client
B. Request made by parent or guardian (if the
client is a minor)
D. Signed medical release form by client's
spouse or family member

B. Clockwise gliding strokes over the
abdomen

During the intake, if your client states he or she is constipated, what is an appropriate treatment
modification?
A. Avoid the lower back C. Deep cross-fiber friction over the
abdomen
B. Clockwise gliding strokes over the
abdomen
D. Counterclockwise gliding strokes over the
abdomen

D. Listening

Crepitus can be detected by what means?
A. Observation C. Palpation
B. Range-of-motion D. Listening

A. Use lighter-than-normal pressure

If you suspect that a client is intoxicated, what are appropriate treatment modifications?
A. Use lighter-than-normal pressure C. Work on known trigger points only
B. Refuse to treat
D. Ask the client to drink 16oz of water
beforehand

B. Blood plasma, C. Interstitial fluid

From which of the following is lymph derived?
A. Cerebrospinal fluid C. Interstitial fluid
B. Blood plasma D. B and C

C. Air absorption

The functions of the nasal cavity include all of the following EXCEPT?
A. Air filtering C. Air absorption
B. Air warming D. Air conduction

D. Pyloric sphincter

Which structure lies between the stomach and the small intestines?
A. Esophageal sphincter C. Gastric sphincter
B. Ileocecal sphincter D. Pyloric sphincter

B. Rectus femoris

What muscle is synergist to the iliopsoas?
A. Piriformis C. Gluteus maximus
B. Rectus femoris D. Tensor fascia latae

A. Femoral artery

When working the insertion of psoas major, on what structure should the therapist avoid applying direct
pressure?
A. Femoral artery C. Peroneal artery
B. Floating ribs D. Vagus nerve

B. Cerebellum

Body balance and voluntary muscle movement are controlled by which part of the brain?
A. Midbrain C. Medulla oblongata
B. Cerebellum D. Cerebrum

A. Gastrocnemius

Which muscle spans two joints?
A. Gastrocnemius C. Popliteus
B. Soleus D. Piriformis

C. Biceps femoris

Contraction of which muscle causes your knee to bend?
A. Biceps brachii C. Biceps femoris
B. Rectus femoris D. Pectineus

D. Lack of skin color

You note that a client has skin pallor. What does that mean?
A. Skin redness C. Localized tenderness
B. Bluish tint to the skin D. Lack of skin color

B. Soleus

Contraction of which muscle causes your toes to point downward?
A. Flexor digitorum longus C. Extensor digitorum longus
B. Soleus D. Tibialis anterior

A. Coracobrachialis

Which muscle spans only one joint?
A. Coracobrachialis C. Biceps brachii
B. Pectoralis major D. Triceps brachii

C. Isotonic

Skeletal muscle movement occurs with which type of contraction?
A. Tonic C. Isotonic
B. Isometric D. Rhythmic

C. Sacrum to the ischial tuberosity

What are the attachments of the sacrotuberous ligament?
A. Sciatic notch to the lesser trochanter C. Sacrum to the ischial tuberosity
B. Ischial spine to the sacrum D. Ischial spine to the greater trochanter

D. Triceps brachii

Contraction of which muscle causes you to straighten your arm?
A. Brachialis C. Coracobrachialis
B. Biceps brachii D. Triceps brachii

A. Lack of oxygen

Hypoxia refers to
A. Lack of oxygen C. Swelling
B. Dehydration D. Inflammation

B. Elevated right shoulder

While examining a client and recording intake notes, which would be considered objective data?
A. Pain at end of rotation of cervical
vertebra
C. Frequent headaches
B. Elevated right shoulder D. Dizziness upon standing

B. Raynaud disease

What syndrome is characterized by cycles of vasospasm, typically in the fingers and toes?
A. Guillain Barré syndrome C. Nephrotic syndrome
B. Raynaud disease D. Postpoliomyelitis

C. Quarterly

If a therapist is self-employed, how often does he or she pay self-employment tax?
A. Weekly C. Quarterly
B. Monthy D. Annually

B. Angina pectoris

Which of the following conditions is frequently caused by constriction of coronary arteries and lack of
oxygen to the heart muscle and is often felt as chest pain?
A. Arrhythmia C. Heartburn
B. Angina pectoris D. Tachycardia

C. Aneurysm

Which of the following is a weakness in the wall of a blood vessel?
A. Phlebitis C. Aneurysm
B. Peripheral vascular disease D. Stenosis

D. Myocardial infarction

What is a synonym for a heart attack?
A. Angina pectoris C. Hypertension
B. Arteriosclerosis D. Myocardial infarction

C. Varicose veins

Which of the following describes dilated veins, causing their valves to become incompetent?
A. Thromboangiitis obliterans C. Varicose veins
B. Hemangioma D. Anemia

A. Lupus

Which is an autoimmune, inflammatory disease of the body's connective tissues?
A. Lupus C. Urticaria
B. Icterus D. Transient ischemic attack

B. Migraine headaches

Which type of headaches is caused by dilation of extracranial blood vessels?
A. Menstrual headaches C. Contraction headaches
B. Migraine headaches D. Sinus headaches

C. Phlebitis

What is inflammation of the veins called?
A. Myocarditis C. Phlebitis
B. Lymphangitis D. Telangiectasia

C. Contact dermatitis

Which type of dermatitis results from the skin coming into contact with irritants or allergens?
A. Atopic dermatitis C. Contact dermatitis
B. Topical dermatitis D. Seborrheic dermatitis

A. Athlete's foot

Which of the following is a contagious superficial foot fungus characterized by skin discoloration and a
ridge of red tissue?
A. Athlete's foot C. Plantar ringworm
B. Plantar tinea D. Dorsalis fungi

A. Acute

Which of the following describes diseases that have an abrupt onset of severe symptoms and run a brief
course (less than 6 months)? The disease then either resolves or brings death.
A. Acute C. Local
B. Chronic D. Systemic

B. Chronic

Which of the following describes diseases that develop slowly and last longer than 6 months to a lifetime?
A. Digital C. Complex
B. Chronic D. Acute

D. Subjective data

Which of the following refers to information gained from the client?
A. Pertinent data C. Empirical data
B. Objective data D. Subjective data

C. Informed consent

What is the client's authorization for professional services based on information provided by the
therapist?
A. Referral consent C. Informed consent
B. Client intake form D. Treatment record

B. Objective data

Which of the following refers to data that are measurable and quantitative?
A. Subjective data C. Empirical data
B. Objective data D. Intake data

D. Pinching and releasing the skin

What is the best way to evaluate turgor?
A. Observing client's breathing patterns C. Client intake form
B. Releasing applied pressure on the
abdomen
D. Pinching and releasing the skin

D. Edema

If the skin leaves pits after pressure application, what does it suggest?
A. Low platelet count C. Dehydration
B. Active trigger points D. Edema

B. Dehydration

A therapist is testing for turgor and the client's skin leaves an elevation or a tent after it is pinched. What
does this suggest?
A. Edema C. Active trigger points
B. Dehydration D. Low platlet count

C. A rigid zone or knot in muscle or fascia
that can refer pain when pressed

What are trigger points?
A. Areas of numbness brought on by
dehydration and fatigue
C. A rigid zone or knot in muscle or fascia
that can refer pain when pressed
B. Where two nerves connect to transmit
information
D. Where nerves terminate on muscles

D. Releasing applied pressure on the
abdomen

What is the best way to test for rebound tenderness?
A. Client intake form C. Pinching the skin
B. Observing client's breathing pattern D. Releasing applied pressure on the
abdomen

A. Endfeel

What is the term used to describe sensations felt at the end of passive range of motion?
A. Endfeel C. Crepitus
B. Isometric D. Fulling

D. Local contraindications

Conditions in which massage can be administered while avoiding an affected area or area in question are
A. Absolute contraindications C. Restricted contraindications
B. Confined contraindications D. Local contraindications

B. Endangerment sites

Areas of the body containing superficial delicate anatomical structures that are unprotected and prone to
injury meriting caution during are
A. Trigger points C. Muscle spasms
B. Endangerment sites D. Synaptic end bulbs

A. Professional liability

Malpractice insurance is also known as
A. Professional liability C. Business activity
B. Term life insurance D. Disability

B. Muscular tension headaches

Massage helps to reduce the pain in which kind of headaches?
A. Migraine or vascular headaches C. Menstrual headaches
B. Muscular tension headaches D. Hangover headaches

A. Fifteen seconds

How long should the therapist wash his or her hands before and after a regular massage?
A. Fifteen seconds C. Two minutes
B. Five seconds D. One minute

B. Countertransference

An emotional reaction of the therapist that reflects the therapist's inner needs and conflicts defines
A. Intimacy C. Transference
B. Countertransference D. Integrity

D. Hand washing

The best thing a massage therapist can do to control the transmission of disease is
A. Vitamin supplements C. Crepitation
B. Inoculations D. Hand washing

B. It blurs client-therapist boundaries

Why should a massage therapist refuse to date his or her clients?
A. It violates the therapist's scope of practice C. It violates the therapist's Ling oath
B. It blurs client-therapist boundaries D. It is illegal in most states

C. Two minutes

If the therapist comes into contact with body fluids or fluids of unknown origin, what is the recommended
time lenght for the handwashing procedure?
A. One minute C. Two minutes
B. Fifteen seconds D. Thrity seconds

A. Lower extermities

What general body area should be avoided if the client has had surgery as a cancer treatment?
A. Lower extermities C. Scalp
B. Upper extermities D. Neck

B. Massage with gloves

What treatment modifications should the therapist use if a cancer patient, who has been cleared for
massage, has received the chemotherapeutic drug thiotepa or cyclophosphamide within 24 hours of his or
her scheduled appointment?
A. Avoid sustained pressure C. Avoid vibration
B. Massage with gloves D. Massage is contraindicated

D. Are asymmetrical in shape

Common moles have all the following characteristics EXCEPT
A. Even borders C. Are smooth to the touch
B. Evenly shaded brown color D. Are asymmetrical in shape

C. Avoid the use of deep pressure in areas
with neuropathy

If a cancer patient, who is receiving chemotherapy and has received clearance for massage therapy, is
experiencing neuropathy, what treatment modifications should the therapist use?
A. Neuropathy is an absolute contraindication C. Avoid the use of deep pressure in areas
with neuropathy
B. The area with neuropathy is locally
contraindicated
D. There are no modifications

B. Apply local heat on the affected limb after
treatment

If a cancer patient with edema has received clearance for massage therapy, treatment modifications
include all of the following EXCEPT
A. Elevating the affected limb C. Stroke lightly and rhythmically toward
heart on the affected limb
B. Apply local heat on the affected limb after
treatment
D. Work the affected limb proximally, then
distally

D. Avoid joint mobilizations, stretches, and
jostling that would cause a rocking motion

If a cancer patient, who is receiving radiation or chemotherapy and has received clearance for massage
therapy, what treatment modifications can the therapist use if the client is nauseated when he or she
arrives for a massage and still wishes to receive a massage?
A. Offer ipecac in a 10 to 1 solution C. Use aromatherapy in the lubricant
B. Lower the table D. Avoid joint mobilizations, stretches, and
jostling that would cause a rocking motion

A. Use lighter pressure as she is a candidate
for osteoporosis

If the client indicates that she is taking steroids for a chronic condition, what treatment modifications
should be used?
A. Use lighter pressure as she is a candidate
for osteoporosis
C. Have her doctor approve the lubricant
B. Don gloves as her medications can leave
residue on her skin
D. Avoid aromatherapy as it can act as an
antidote for her medication

C. Peripheral vascular disease and
neuropathy

What two conditions are likely to occur in a client with long-term diabetes?
A. Osteoporosis and trigeminal neuralgia C. Peripheral vascular disease and
neuropathy
B. Pericarditis and varicosities D. Cirrhosis and gout

C. Four years

According to NCBTMB, how long should the therapist maintain client records after the client
discontinues service?
A. Six months C. Four years
B. Three years D. Ten years

B. Malpractice

What type of insurance protects the therapist if he or she injures a client?
A. Disability C. Health
B. Malpractice D. HMO

B. Decubitus ulcers

Which of the following represents cell necrosis due to local ischemia resulting from prolonged pressure?
A. Sebaceous cysts C. Furuncles
B. Decubitus ulcers D. Stretch marks

C. Ringworm

Which of the following is a contagious fungal disease characterized by itching and scaling, sometimes
manifesting as a raised red-ringed patch?
A. Impetigo C. Ringworm
B. Rosacea D. Lice

B. Herpes simplex

This highly contagious viral infection appears as fever blisters or cold sores on the skin and mucous
membranes.
A. Impetigo C. Folliculitis
B. Herpes simplex D. Psoriasis

A. Gastroesophageal reflux disease

What condition is failure of the lower gastroesophageal sphincter to close normally after food has entered
the stomach, which, in turn, causes a burning in the chest region?
A. Gastroesophageal reflux disease C. Costal chondritis
B. Pectoris angina D. Hiatal hernia

D. Hernias

Which of the following are protrusions of tissues or part of an organ through a weakness in a membranous
or cavity wall?
A. Aneurysms C. Diverticula
B. Ulcers D. Hernias

A. Repetitive strain injuries

What of the following is a spectrum of injuries related to prolonged repetitive or constant motion, usually
combined with compressive forces? Types include carpal tunnel syndrome, thoracic outlet syndrome, and
tennis elbow.
A. Repetitive strain injuries C. Contractures
B. Compartment syndromes D. Torticollar injuries

A. Muscle relaxers and narcotic analgesics

What type of medications depress sensory information entering the nervous system?
A. Muscle relaxers and narcotic analgesics C. Platelet inhibitors
B. Corticosteroids D. Nonsteroidal antinflammatory drugs
(NSAIDs)

C. Fibromyalgia

What disease causes tender points within the muscle? This disease is more common in women.
A. Multiple sclerosis C. Fibromyalgia
B. Scleroderma D. Chloasma

D. Tendinitis

Inflammation of a tendon is called what?

B. Osteoarthritis

Which of the following is a chronic, progressive erosion of the articular cartilage caused by long-standing
inflammation often called "wear and tear" arthritis?
A. Lyme arthritis C. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Osteoarthritis D. Polyrheumatica arthritis

D. Torticollis

Which of the following is a condition involving spasms of the sternocleidomastoid muscles?
A. Anterior compartment syndrome C. Posterior compartment syndrome
B. Tetanus D. Torticollis

C. Herniated disc

What is protrusion of the nucleus pulposus from the annulus fibrosus of an intervertebral disc?
A. Ankylosing spondylitis C. Herniated disc
B. Itinerant disc D. de Quervain spondylitis

B. Bursitis

Which is acute or chronic inflammation of the bursae?
A. Synovitis C. Spondylolisthesis
B. Bursitis D. Tendonitis

D. Osteoporosis

Which of the following is a condition characterized by a decrease in bone mass with a subsequent
increase in the susceptibility to fractures?
A. Hallux valgus C. Still disease
B. Scoliosis D. Osteoporosis

A. Baker's

What is a cyst behind the knee caused by escape of synovial fluid, which becomes enclosed in a
membranous sac?
A. Baker's C. Dupuytren
B. de Quervain D. Volkmann

D. Multiple sclerosis

What is an autoimmune disorder in which myelin sheaths in the central nervous system are progressively
destroyed?
A. Alzheimer disease C. Palsy
B. Myasthenia gravis D. Multiple sclerosis

A. Bulging disc

What condition is similar to a herniated disc, but less severe as the nucleus pulposus remains contained
within the annular wall?
A. Bulging disc C. Nerve in situ
B. Nerve compression D. Nerve entrapment

D. Peripheral neuropathy

What is degeneration of the peripheral nervous system called?
A. Alzheimer disease C. Vertigo
B. Insomnia D. Peripheral neuropathy

D. Quadriplegia

What is paralysis of the trunk, arms, and legs?
A. Hemiplegia C. Paraplegia
B. Synplegia D. Quadriplegia

D. Paraplegia

Which paralysis involves the trunk and lower extremities?
A. Quadriplegia C. Heteroplegia
B. Hemiplegia D. Paraplegia

B. Asthma

What is a chronic, inflammatory disorder caused by airway sensitivity to various stimuli?
A. Apnea C. Cystic fibrosis
B. Asthma D. Pneumonia

B. Cigarette smoking

What is the most common cause of chronic bronchitis?
A. Alcohol overconsumption C. Insufficient mucous production
B. Cigarette smoking D. Mineral deficiency

A. Emphysema

What disease results from the gradual destruction of elasticity in the alveolar walls due to long-term
exposure to irritants such as cigarette smoke, air pollution, or industrial dust?
A. Emphysema C. Pleurisy
B. Pneumonia D. Pulmonary embolism

B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

What is a group of pulmonary disorders characterized by persistent or recurring obstruction of air flow
that worsens with exertion?
A. Severe acute respiratory syndrome C. Pulmonary distress syndrome
B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease D. Lung membrane disease

C. Pneumonia

What is the most common infectious cause of death in the United States?
A. Cystic fibrosis C. Pneumonia
B. Polio D. Tuberculosis

B. Could pass through both ears

A coronal plane through the head
A. Could pass through both the nose and the
occipital region
C. Must pass through the mouth
B. Could pass through both ears D. Could lie in a horizontal plane

A. C1

What number cervical vertebrae corresponds to the atlas?
A. C1 C. C2
B. C3 D. C7

D. Ischial tuberosity

What is the origin of the biceps femoris?
A. Fibular head C. Femoral condyle
B. Biceps tuberosity D. Ischial tuberosity

C. Pancreatic hormones

Insulin and glucagon are examples of what?
A. Thyroid hormones C. Pancreatic hormones
B. Pituitary hormones D. Adrenal hormones

B. Place a cushion under the arms

How would you best relax the pectoralis major muscle while the client is in a supine position?
A. Place a cushion under the head C. Place a cushion behind the knees
B. Place a cushion under the arms D. Place a cushion behind the ankles

D. Gastrocnemius

If you're standing on your tip toes and have pain in your leg, which muscle is most likely involved?
A. Semitendinosus C. Rectus femoris
B. Quadratus lumborum D. Gastrocnemius

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