500 questions
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Created by:
cncosmyway on August 10, 2010
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256 terms
Terms | Definitions |
|---|---|
 Keratin | cordlike protein that helps to waterproof the skin |
| Meissner corpuscles | receptor is responsible for detecting light touch |
| Pacinian corpuscles | receptor is responsible for detecting deep pressure |
| Common peroneal nerve | endangerment site on the posterior knee |
| Sternocleidomastoid | neck muscle you use extra caution while massaging due to its close proximity to the carotid artery |
| Infraspinatus | muscle located directly inferior to the scapular spine |
| Lateral | In an injury to the acromioclavicular joint, which end of the clavicle is involved? |
| Hip | If a client is experiencing pain in the inguinal region, which joint is MOST LIKELY affected? |
| Quadriceps | Which muscle group resists knee flexion? |
| Behind the abdominal peritoneum | The kidneys lie in a retroperitoneal position. What does that mean? |
| Ascends | During exhalation, the diaphragm does what? |
| Reflex | What is an instantaneous, involuntary response to a stimulus, either inside or outside the body? |
| Tibialis anterior | lower leg muscle is responsible for dorsiflexion |
| A nerve must stimulate a muscle | For a skeletal muscle to contract, what must happen first |
| Psoriasis | is NOT a contagious skin condition |
| Malignant melanoma | One of the most lethal types of skin cancer is |
| Flexion and extension | A hinge joint is capable of making which of the following movements? |
| Pivot | joint moves in one plane only |
| Flexion | position shortens the muscles of the anterior neck |
| pectoralis minor & serratus anterior | Muscles that can entrap the brachial plexus |
| Golgi tendon organs | receptor measures the amount of tension produced at the musculotendinous junction and inhibits contraction |
| Rectus femoris | NOT a member of the hamstring muscles |
| Triceps brachii | muscle extends the elbow |
| Biceps femoris | hamstring muscle attaches to the fibula |
| Endocrine | system's primary function is to support the nervous system in its regulation of bodily functions through hormone production and secretion |
| Chyme | Pyloric sphincter allows transport of what substance |
| Active range of motion | A client rotating his head is an example of which of the following? |
| Masseter, pterygoids, temporalis | muscles most likely involved in temporomandibular joint dysfunction |
| Pain, swelling, redness, heat | Which are the cardinal signs of inflammation? A. Ischemia, heat, redness, pain B. Pain, swelling, redness, heat C. Cyanosis, pallor, pain, swelling D. Ischemia, swelling, heat, pain |
| C. Right ventricle | What heart chamber pumps blood to the lungs? A. Right atrium C. Right ventricle B. Left atrium D. Left ventricle |
| A. Femoral artery | When massaging the sartorius and adductor longus, the therapist needs to avoid pressure on what structure? A. Femoral artery C. Common peroneal nerve B. Radial artery D. Trigeminal nerve |
| B. Shorter treatments more frequently | What massage considerations are best used for a terminally ill client? A. Longer treatments more frequently C. Longer treatments less frequently B. Shorter treatments more frequently D. Shorter treatments less frequently |
| B. Inversion | When you have a lateral sprain of the foot, what position was the foot in when injured? A. Plantar flexion C. Dorsiflexion B. Inversion D. Eversion |
| A. Hands over the throat | What is the universal sign of an obstructed airway? A. Hands over the throat C. Coughing B. Hands over the chest D. Waving arms overhead |
| C. Triceps brachii | Which muscle inserts on the olecranon process? A. Biceps brachii C. Triceps brachii B. Coracobrachialis D. Brachioradialis |
| B. Stop massaging, remain in the room, be supportive, obtain permission before resuming massage | What is an appropriate response if a client has an emotional release during treatment? A. Find out why the client is crying, counsel client about the issue C. Leave the room, tell the client to let you know when s/he is finished B. Stop massaging, remain in the room, be supportive, obtain permission before resuming massage D. Continue with the massage, ignoring the emotional release |
| B. Constipation | Circular gliding strokes applied on the abdomen in clockwise movements is helpful in what condition? A. Ulcerative Colitis C. Hiatal Hernia B. Constipation D. Urinary Incontinence |
| C. Carpometacarpal of the thumb | What is an example of a saddle joint? A. Proximal radioulnar joint C. Carpometacarpal of the thumb B. Talocrural joint D. Metacarpophalangeal joint |
| B. Confidentiality | A client approaches you at a social function and asks about another one of your clients' progress with treatment. This conflicts directly with which code of ethics principle? A. Disclosure C. Networking B. Confidentiality D. Dual relationships |
| C. Lighten pressure, ask client to qualify the pain level, work within his or her tolerance | During a technique requiring direct sustained pressure, the client complains of pain. What is the best approach? A. Explain to the client why the amount of pressure is needed and continue C. Lighten pressure, ask client to qualify the pain level, work within his or her tolerance B. Continue with massage, going deeper during client exhalation D. Apply ice next to painful area, using distraction techniques |
| D. Client may have allergies or scent sensitivities | Why should you avoid scented massage lubricants? A. It may interfere with releasing energy blocks C. They often stain linens B. They are cost prohibitive D. Client may have allergies or scent sensitivities |
| A. Mineral oil-based lubricants | Which should a therapist avoid when choosing a massage lubricant? A. Mineral oil-based lubricants C. Hypoallergenic lubricants B. Nut-based lubricants D. Vegetable-based lubricants |
| D. Shoulder | If a client has pain in the acromial region, which joint is most likely involved? A. Elbow C. Hip B. Knee D. Shoulder |
| B. Adduction | Movement toward the midline is known as which of the following? A. Medial C. Abduction B. Adduction D. Lateral |
| C. Softens and distends | What affect does heat have on the body's fascia? A. Shortens and thickens C. Softens and distends B. Lengthens and repairs D. Increases conductivity |
| C. Try to rouse the person to consciousness | If you come across an unconscious adult, what should you do first? A. Try to locate a pulse in the person's throat C. Try to rouse the person to consciousness B. Clear the person's airway by tilting the head back |
| C. 100% | What percentage of income from bartered services is reportable to the Internal Revenue Service? A. 50% C. 100% B. 90% D. None is reportable |
| B. Client record keeping | APIE and SOAP are examples of what? A. Massage organizations C. Bookkeeping methods B. Client record keeping D. Advanced certifications |
| C. Teres minor, subscapularis, supraspinatus, infraspinatus | Which muscles are parts of the rotator cuff? A. Infraspinatus, subscapularis, teres major, subclavius C. Teres minor, subscapularis, supraspinatus, infraspinatus B. Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, pectoralis minor, subscapularis D. Subclavius, infraspinatus, teres major, supraspinatus |
| B. Passive range of motion | example which of the following? A. Active resisted range of motion C. Active assisted range of motion B. Passive range of motion D. Active range of motion |
| C. Reciprocal inhibition | A muscle is inhibited by contraction of its antagonist; this is an example of which of the following? A. Active resisted range of motion C. Reciprocal inhibition B. Hilton's Law of Bilateral Symmetry D. Law of facilitation |
| D. Latissimus dorsi | What is the antagonist to pectoralis major? A. Serratus anterior C. Coracobrachialis B. Rhomboids D. Latissimus dorsi |
| A. Serratus anterior | What is the antagonist to the rhomboids? A. Serratus anterior C. Levator scapulae B. Infraspinatus D. Pectoralis minor |
| B. Gastrocnemius | What is synergist to the Biceps Femoris? A. Peroneus longus C. Rectus femoris B. Gastrocnemius D. Tibialis anterior |
| B. Location and condition of the victim | When calling Emergency Medical Services (EMS: 911), always give them what two items of information? A. Your name and your credentials C. Time and place of the accident B. Location and condition of the victim D. Your name and your location |
| A. Request that the intake is conducted verbally | If a client refuses to fill out the intake form, what is the next action that should be taken? A. Request that the intake is conducted verbally C. Fill out the intake form after the session B. Conduct the intake objectively D. Refuse to treat |
| A. Flexed | To reduce physical strain when performing massage, the therapist should keep his or her knees slightly A. Flexed C. Locked B. Rigid D. Hyperextended |
| D. Signed medical release form by client's spouse or family member | A client's records can be released under these circumstances, EXCEPT by A. Court ordered (subpoena) C. Signed medical release form by client B. Request made by parent or guardian (if the client is a minor) D. Signed medical release form by client's spouse or family member |
| B. Clockwise gliding strokes over the abdomen | During the intake, if your client states he or she is constipated, what is an appropriate treatment modification? A. Avoid the lower back C. Deep cross-fiber friction over the abdomen B. Clockwise gliding strokes over the abdomen D. Counterclockwise gliding strokes over the abdomen |
| D. Listening | Crepitus can be detected by what means? A. Observation C. Palpation B. Range-of-motion D. Listening |
| A. Use lighter-than-normal pressure | If you suspect that a client is intoxicated, what are appropriate treatment modifications? A. Use lighter-than-normal pressure C. Work on known trigger points only B. Refuse to treat D. Ask the client to drink 16oz of water beforehand |
| B. Blood plasma, C. Interstitial fluid | From which of the following is lymph derived? A. Cerebrospinal fluid C. Interstitial fluid B. Blood plasma D. B and C |
| C. Air absorption | The functions of the nasal cavity include all of the following EXCEPT? A. Air filtering C. Air absorption B. Air warming D. Air conduction |
| D. Pyloric sphincter | Which structure lies between the stomach and the small intestines? A. Esophageal sphincter C. Gastric sphincter B. Ileocecal sphincter D. Pyloric sphincter |
| B. Rectus femoris | What muscle is synergist to the iliopsoas? A. Piriformis C. Gluteus maximus B. Rectus femoris D. Tensor fascia latae |
| A. Femoral artery | When working the insertion of psoas major, on what structure should the therapist avoid applying direct pressure? A. Femoral artery C. Peroneal artery B. Floating ribs D. Vagus nerve |
| B. Cerebellum | Body balance and voluntary muscle movement are controlled by which part of the brain? A. Midbrain C. Medulla oblongata B. Cerebellum D. Cerebrum |
| A. Gastrocnemius | Which muscle spans two joints? A. Gastrocnemius C. Popliteus B. Soleus D. Piriformis |
| C. Biceps femoris | Contraction of which muscle causes your knee to bend? A. Biceps brachii C. Biceps femoris B. Rectus femoris D. Pectineus |
| D. Lack of skin color | You note that a client has skin pallor. What does that mean? A. Skin redness C. Localized tenderness B. Bluish tint to the skin D. Lack of skin color |
| B. Soleus | Contraction of which muscle causes your toes to point downward? A. Flexor digitorum longus C. Extensor digitorum longus B. Soleus D. Tibialis anterior |
| A. Coracobrachialis | Which muscle spans only one joint? A. Coracobrachialis C. Biceps brachii B. Pectoralis major D. Triceps brachii |
| C. Isotonic | Skeletal muscle movement occurs with which type of contraction? A. Tonic C. Isotonic B. Isometric D. Rhythmic |
| C. Sacrum to the ischial tuberosity | What are the attachments of the sacrotuberous ligament? A. Sciatic notch to the lesser trochanter C. Sacrum to the ischial tuberosity B. Ischial spine to the sacrum D. Ischial spine to the greater trochanter |
| D. Triceps brachii | Contraction of which muscle causes you to straighten your arm? A. Brachialis C. Coracobrachialis B. Biceps brachii D. Triceps brachii |
| A. Lack of oxygen | Hypoxia refers to A. Lack of oxygen C. Swelling B. Dehydration D. Inflammation |
| B. Elevated right shoulder | While examining a client and recording intake notes, which would be considered objective data? A. Pain at end of rotation of cervical vertebra C. Frequent headaches B. Elevated right shoulder D. Dizziness upon standing |
| B. Raynaud disease | What syndrome is characterized by cycles of vasospasm, typically in the fingers and toes? A. Guillain Barré syndrome C. Nephrotic syndrome B. Raynaud disease D. Postpoliomyelitis |
| C. Quarterly | If a therapist is self-employed, how often does he or she pay self-employment tax? A. Weekly C. Quarterly B. Monthy D. Annually |
| B. Angina pectoris | Which of the following conditions is frequently caused by constriction of coronary arteries and lack of oxygen to the heart muscle and is often felt as chest pain? A. Arrhythmia C. Heartburn B. Angina pectoris D. Tachycardia |
| C. Aneurysm | Which of the following is a weakness in the wall of a blood vessel? A. Phlebitis C. Aneurysm B. Peripheral vascular disease D. Stenosis |
| D. Myocardial infarction | What is a synonym for a heart attack? A. Angina pectoris C. Hypertension B. Arteriosclerosis D. Myocardial infarction |
| C. Varicose veins | Which of the following describes dilated veins, causing their valves to become incompetent? A. Thromboangiitis obliterans C. Varicose veins B. Hemangioma D. Anemia |
| A. Lupus | Which is an autoimmune, inflammatory disease of the body's connective tissues? A. Lupus C. Urticaria B. Icterus D. Transient ischemic attack |
| B. Migraine headaches | Which type of headaches is caused by dilation of extracranial blood vessels? A. Menstrual headaches C. Contraction headaches B. Migraine headaches D. Sinus headaches |
| C. Phlebitis | What is inflammation of the veins called? A. Myocarditis C. Phlebitis B. Lymphangitis D. Telangiectasia |
| C. Contact dermatitis | Which type of dermatitis results from the skin coming into contact with irritants or allergens? A. Atopic dermatitis C. Contact dermatitis B. Topical dermatitis D. Seborrheic dermatitis |
| A. Athlete's foot | Which of the following is a contagious superficial foot fungus characterized by skin discoloration and a ridge of red tissue? A. Athlete's foot C. Plantar ringworm B. Plantar tinea D. Dorsalis fungi |
| A. Acute | Which of the following describes diseases that have an abrupt onset of severe symptoms and run a brief course (less than 6 months)? The disease then either resolves or brings death. A. Acute C. Local B. Chronic D. Systemic |
| B. Chronic | Which of the following describes diseases that develop slowly and last longer than 6 months to a lifetime? A. Digital C. Complex B. Chronic D. Acute |
| D. Subjective data | Which of the following refers to information gained from the client? A. Pertinent data C. Empirical data B. Objective data D. Subjective data |
| C. Informed consent | What is the client's authorization for professional services based on information provided by the therapist? A. Referral consent C. Informed consent B. Client intake form D. Treatment record |
| B. Objective data | Which of the following refers to data that are measurable and quantitative? A. Subjective data C. Empirical data B. Objective data D. Intake data |
| D. Pinching and releasing the skin | What is the best way to evaluate turgor? A. Observing client's breathing patterns C. Client intake form B. Releasing applied pressure on the abdomen D. Pinching and releasing the skin |
| D. Edema | If the skin leaves pits after pressure application, what does it suggest? A. Low platelet count C. Dehydration B. Active trigger points D. Edema |
| B. Dehydration | A therapist is testing for turgor and the client's skin leaves an elevation or a tent after it is pinched. What does this suggest? A. Edema C. Active trigger points B. Dehydration D. Low platlet count |
| C. A rigid zone or knot in muscle or fascia that can refer pain when pressed | What are trigger points? A. Areas of numbness brought on by dehydration and fatigue C. A rigid zone or knot in muscle or fascia that can refer pain when pressed B. Where two nerves connect to transmit information D. Where nerves terminate on muscles |
| D. Releasing applied pressure on the abdomen | What is the best way to test for rebound tenderness? A. Client intake form C. Pinching the skin B. Observing client's breathing pattern D. Releasing applied pressure on the abdomen |
| A. Endfeel | What is the term used to describe sensations felt at the end of passive range of motion? A. Endfeel C. Crepitus B. Isometric D. Fulling |
| D. Local contraindications | Conditions in which massage can be administered while avoiding an affected area or area in question are A. Absolute contraindications C. Restricted contraindications B. Confined contraindications D. Local contraindications |
| B. Endangerment sites | Areas of the body containing superficial delicate anatomical structures that are unprotected and prone to injury meriting caution during are A. Trigger points C. Muscle spasms B. Endangerment sites D. Synaptic end bulbs |
| A. Professional liability | Malpractice insurance is also known as A. Professional liability C. Business activity B. Term life insurance D. Disability |
| B. Muscular tension headaches | Massage helps to reduce the pain in which kind of headaches? A. Migraine or vascular headaches C. Menstrual headaches B. Muscular tension headaches D. Hangover headaches |
| A. Fifteen seconds | How long should the therapist wash his or her hands before and after a regular massage? A. Fifteen seconds C. Two minutes B. Five seconds D. One minute |
| B. Countertransference | An emotional reaction of the therapist that reflects the therapist's inner needs and conflicts defines A. Intimacy C. Transference B. Countertransference D. Integrity |
| D. Hand washing | The best thing a massage therapist can do to control the transmission of disease is A. Vitamin supplements C. Crepitation B. Inoculations D. Hand washing |
| B. It blurs client-therapist boundaries | Why should a massage therapist refuse to date his or her clients? A. It violates the therapist's scope of practice C. It violates the therapist's Ling oath B. It blurs client-therapist boundaries D. It is illegal in most states |
| C. Two minutes | If the therapist comes into contact with body fluids or fluids of unknown origin, what is the recommended time lenght for the handwashing procedure? A. One minute C. Two minutes B. Fifteen seconds D. Thrity seconds |
| A. Lower extermities | What general body area should be avoided if the client has had surgery as a cancer treatment? A. Lower extermities C. Scalp B. Upper extermities D. Neck |
| B. Massage with gloves | What treatment modifications should the therapist use if a cancer patient, who has been cleared for massage, has received the chemotherapeutic drug thiotepa or cyclophosphamide within 24 hours of his or her scheduled appointment? A. Avoid sustained pressure C. Avoid vibration B. Massage with gloves D. Massage is contraindicated |
| D. Are asymmetrical in shape | Common moles have all the following characteristics EXCEPT A. Even borders C. Are smooth to the touch B. Evenly shaded brown color D. Are asymmetrical in shape |
| C. Avoid the use of deep pressure in areas with neuropathy | If a cancer patient, who is receiving chemotherapy and has received clearance for massage therapy, is experiencing neuropathy, what treatment modifications should the therapist use? A. Neuropathy is an absolute contraindication C. Avoid the use of deep pressure in areas with neuropathy B. The area with neuropathy is locally contraindicated D. There are no modifications |
| B. Apply local heat on the affected limb after treatment | If a cancer patient with edema has received clearance for massage therapy, treatment modifications include all of the following EXCEPT A. Elevating the affected limb C. Stroke lightly and rhythmically toward heart on the affected limb B. Apply local heat on the affected limb after treatment D. Work the affected limb proximally, then distally |
| D. Avoid joint mobilizations, stretches, and jostling that would cause a rocking motion | If a cancer patient, who is receiving radiation or chemotherapy and has received clearance for massage therapy, what treatment modifications can the therapist use if the client is nauseated when he or she arrives for a massage and still wishes to receive a massage? A. Offer ipecac in a 10 to 1 solution C. Use aromatherapy in the lubricant B. Lower the table D. Avoid joint mobilizations, stretches, and jostling that would cause a rocking motion |
| A. Use lighter pressure as she is a candidate for osteoporosis | If the client indicates that she is taking steroids for a chronic condition, what treatment modifications should be used? A. Use lighter pressure as she is a candidate for osteoporosis C. Have her doctor approve the lubricant B. Don gloves as her medications can leave residue on her skin D. Avoid aromatherapy as it can act as an antidote for her medication |
| C. Peripheral vascular disease and neuropathy | What two conditions are likely to occur in a client with long-term diabetes? A. Osteoporosis and trigeminal neuralgia C. Peripheral vascular disease and neuropathy B. Pericarditis and varicosities D. Cirrhosis and gout |
| C. Four years | According to NCBTMB, how long should the therapist maintain client records after the client discontinues service? A. Six months C. Four years B. Three years D. Ten years |
| B. Malpractice | What type of insurance protects the therapist if he or she injures a client? A. Disability C. Health B. Malpractice D. HMO |
| B. Decubitus ulcers | Which of the following represents cell necrosis due to local ischemia resulting from prolonged pressure? A. Sebaceous cysts C. Furuncles B. Decubitus ulcers D. Stretch marks |
| C. Ringworm | Which of the following is a contagious fungal disease characterized by itching and scaling, sometimes manifesting as a raised red-ringed patch? A. Impetigo C. Ringworm B. Rosacea D. Lice |
| B. Herpes simplex | This highly contagious viral infection appears as fever blisters or cold sores on the skin and mucous membranes. A. Impetigo C. Folliculitis B. Herpes simplex D. Psoriasis |
| A. Gastroesophageal reflux disease | What condition is failure of the lower gastroesophageal sphincter to close normally after food has entered the stomach, which, in turn, causes a burning in the chest region? A. Gastroesophageal reflux disease C. Costal chondritis B. Pectoris angina D. Hiatal hernia |
| D. Hernias | Which of the following are protrusions of tissues or part of an organ through a weakness in a membranous or cavity wall? A. Aneurysms C. Diverticula B. Ulcers D. Hernias |
| A. Repetitive strain injuries | What of the following is a spectrum of injuries related to prolonged repetitive or constant motion, usually combined with compressive forces? Types include carpal tunnel syndrome, thoracic outlet syndrome, and tennis elbow. A. Repetitive strain injuries C. Contractures B. Compartment syndromes D. Torticollar injuries |
| A. Muscle relaxers and narcotic analgesics | What type of medications depress sensory information entering the nervous system? A. Muscle relaxers and narcotic analgesics C. Platelet inhibitors B. Corticosteroids D. Nonsteroidal antinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) |
| C. Fibromyalgia | What disease causes tender points within the muscle? This disease is more common in women. A. Multiple sclerosis C. Fibromyalgia B. Scleroderma D. Chloasma |
| D. Tendinitis | Inflammation of a tendon is called what? |
| B. Osteoarthritis | Which of the following is a chronic, progressive erosion of the articular cartilage caused by long-standing inflammation often called "wear and tear" arthritis? A. Lyme arthritis C. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Osteoarthritis D. Polyrheumatica arthritis |
| D. Torticollis | Which of the following is a condition involving spasms of the sternocleidomastoid muscles? A. Anterior compartment syndrome C. Posterior compartment syndrome B. Tetanus D. Torticollis |
| C. Herniated disc | What is protrusion of the nucleus pulposus from the annulus fibrosus of an intervertebral disc? A. Ankylosing spondylitis C. Herniated disc B. Itinerant disc D. de Quervain spondylitis |
| B. Bursitis | Which is acute or chronic inflammation of the bursae? A. Synovitis C. Spondylolisthesis B. Bursitis D. Tendonitis |
| D. Osteoporosis | Which of the following is a condition characterized by a decrease in bone mass with a subsequent increase in the susceptibility to fractures? A. Hallux valgus C. Still disease B. Scoliosis D. Osteoporosis |
| A. Baker's | What is a cyst behind the knee caused by escape of synovial fluid, which becomes enclosed in a membranous sac? A. Baker's C. Dupuytren B. de Quervain D. Volkmann |
| D. Multiple sclerosis | What is an autoimmune disorder in which myelin sheaths in the central nervous system are progressively destroyed? A. Alzheimer disease C. Palsy B. Myasthenia gravis D. Multiple sclerosis |
| A. Bulging disc | What condition is similar to a herniated disc, but less severe as the nucleus pulposus remains contained within the annular wall? A. Bulging disc C. Nerve in situ B. Nerve compression D. Nerve entrapment |
| D. Peripheral neuropathy | What is degeneration of the peripheral nervous system called? A. Alzheimer disease C. Vertigo B. Insomnia D. Peripheral neuropathy |
| D. Quadriplegia | What is paralysis of the trunk, arms, and legs? A. Hemiplegia C. Paraplegia B. Synplegia D. Quadriplegia |
| D. Paraplegia | Which paralysis involves the trunk and lower extremities? A. Quadriplegia C. Heteroplegia B. Hemiplegia D. Paraplegia |
| B. Asthma | What is a chronic, inflammatory disorder caused by airway sensitivity to various stimuli? A. Apnea C. Cystic fibrosis B. Asthma D. Pneumonia |
| B. Cigarette smoking | What is the most common cause of chronic bronchitis? A. Alcohol overconsumption C. Insufficient mucous production B. Cigarette smoking D. Mineral deficiency |
| A. Emphysema | What disease results from the gradual destruction of elasticity in the alveolar walls due to long-term exposure to irritants such as cigarette smoke, air pollution, or industrial dust? A. Emphysema C. Pleurisy B. Pneumonia D. Pulmonary embolism |
| B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease | What is a group of pulmonary disorders characterized by persistent or recurring obstruction of air flow that worsens with exertion? A. Severe acute respiratory syndrome C. Pulmonary distress syndrome B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease D. Lung membrane disease |
| C. Pneumonia | What is the most common infectious cause of death in the United States? A. Cystic fibrosis C. Pneumonia B. Polio D. Tuberculosis |
| B. Could pass through both ears | A coronal plane through the head A. Could pass through both the nose and the occipital region C. Must pass through the mouth B. Could pass through both ears D. Could lie in a horizontal plane |
| A. C1 | What number cervical vertebrae corresponds to the atlas? A. C1 C. C2 B. C3 D. C7 |
| D. Ischial tuberosity | What is the origin of the biceps femoris? A. Fibular head C. Femoral condyle B. Biceps tuberosity D. Ischial tuberosity |
| C. Pancreatic hormones | Insulin and glucagon are examples of what? A. Thyroid hormones C. Pancreatic hormones B. Pituitary hormones D. Adrenal hormones |
| B. Place a cushion under the arms | How would you best relax the pectoralis major muscle while the client is in a supine position? A. Place a cushion under the head C. Place a cushion behind the knees B. Place a cushion under the arms D. Place a cushion behind the ankles |
| D. Gastrocnemius | If you're standing on your tip toes and have pain in your leg, which muscle is most likely involved? A. Semitendinosus C. Rectus femoris B. Quadratus lumborum D. Gastrocnemius |
| C. Cross fiber friction | If when palpating a tight muscle, you discover bands of fibrous adhesions, what would be the best technique to relieve the fibrosity? A. Gliding C. Cross fiber friction B. Kneading D. Cupping percussion |
| B. Piriformis | Spasm in which of the following muscles can lead to irritation of the sciatic nerve? A. Obturator internus C. Gluteus minimus B. Piriformis D. Gemellus superior |
| D. Xiphoid process | Which of the following would you avoid when compressing the sternum? A. Manubrium C. Sternocostal joints B. Sternal body D. Xiphoid process |
| B. Biceps brachii and deltoid | If a client has difficulty actively flexing the elbow and abducting the shoulder, which muscles are most likely involved in the restriction? A. Supraspinatus and deltoid C. Pectoralis major and sternocleidomastoid B. Biceps brachii and deltoid D. Coracobrachialis and latissimus dorsi |
| D. Turning the humerus inward | Which of the following best represents medial rotation? A. Turning the head to the side C. Bending the knee B. Turning the leg outward D. Turning the humerus inward |
| D. Upper right | In what abdominopelvic quadrant is the liver and gallbladder located? A. Upper left C. Lower right B. Lower left D. Upper right |
| B. Elbow extension | Which of the following is an example of concentric contraction of the triceps brachii? A. Elbow flexion C. Shoulder flexion B. Elbow extension D. Shoulder abduction |
| A. Supraspinatus | Which of the following muscles are most likely involved in a rotator cuff injury? A. Supraspinatus C. Brachioradialis B. Pectoralis minor D. Levator scapulae |
| C. Common insertion of three thigh muscles on the medial proximal tibia | The term pes anserinus refers to which of the following? A. Type of seizure disorder C. Common insertion of three thigh muscles on the medial proximal tibia B. Nerve involved in Bell palsy D. Type of muscle contracture |
| B. Lateral epicondyle of the humerus | Where is the bony landmark for the type of tendonitis found in tennis elbow? A. Medial epicondyle of the humerus C. Coracoid process of the ulna B. Lateral epicondyle of the humerus D. Olecranon process |
| D. Subscapularis | Which muscle would MOST likely be the source of pain and limited range of motion found in frozen shoulder? A. Rhomboids C. Trapezius B. Pectoralis major D. Subscapularis |
| D. Brachialis | When flexing the elbow, which muscle is concentrically contracting? A. Triceps brachii C. Deltoids B. Coracobrachialis D. Brachialis |
| B. 100% | If you gave a massage to a fellow licensed massage therapist, what percentage of the cost of the massage you gave is recorded on your accounting ledger? A. 50% C. If it is a massage trade, nothing is recorded B. 100% D. The difference between the two massage costs |
| A. Bolster behind her knees | A client who has lordosis complains of back pain while in the supine position. What modifications would most likely increase her comfort? A. Bolster behind her knees C. Bolster between her shoulders B. Bolster beneath her sacrum D. Bolster behind her ankles |
| D. Senescence | At which life stage does circulation of blood and lymph decrease in the lower extremities? A. Infancy C. Adolescent B. Childhood D. Senescence |
| A. Abducts and laterally rotates | What is the action of the piriformis on the hip? A. Abducts and laterally rotates C. Abducts and medially rotates B. Adducts and laterally rotates D. Adducts and medially rotates |
| B. Lordosis | Tight iliopsoas muscles can create or exacerbate which condition? A. Kyphosis C. Halitosis B. Lordosis D. Paget disease |
| C. Aponeurosis | Which of the following is a broad flattened sheet of connective tissue? A. Epithelium C. Aponeurosis B. Tendon D. Adipose |
| D. Physical therapy | In Western medicine, which is NOT considered treatment for a malignancy? A. Surgery C. Medication B. Radiation D. Physical therapy |
| C. Confidentiality | While at a social function, you run into a client and ask him about his progress with treatment. This is a breach of the following? A. Scope of practice C. Confidentiality B. Dual relationships D. Self-disclosure |
| C. Cushion under her shoulders | While in the prone position, a client who has a dowager's hump complains of discomfort at the base of her neck. Which of the following would provide the most comfort for this region? A. Cushion under forehead C. Cushion under her shoulders B. Cushion under abdomen D. Cushion under the sternum |
| A. Blocks sweat glands and may cause body to overheat | Why is oil NOT recommended for pre-event sports massage? A. Blocks sweat glands and may cause body to overheat C. Creates a buildup of lactic acid B. Blocks calcium channels in sarcomeres D. Causes an overproduction of ATP |
| C. Ligament | What is the primary structure injured during a sprain? A. Tendon C. Ligament B. Scar tissue D. Superficial fascia |
| B. Low back over kidneys | Use of vigorous percussion is NOT recommended over which area? A. Quadriceps C. Shoulders B. Low back over kidneys D. Soles of feet |
| D. Has properly cooled down | Postevent sports massage should be postponed until the athlete A. Can walk a straight line C. Has drunk 16 oz of fluids B. Has removed his or her shoes and socks D. Has properly cooled down |
| C. Sympathetic nervous system | Which of the following is activated during the stress response? A. Parasympathetic nervous system C. Sympathetic nervous system B. Visceral reflex D. Somatic inverse response |
| B. Trachea | What structure lies anterior to the esophagus? A. Sternum C. Thymus B. Trachea D. Pylorus |
| A. Spleen | Which organ stores blood cells and destroys old, worn-out red blood cells and platelets? A. Spleen C. Kidneys B. Gallbladder D. Thyroid |
| B. Hyperemia | Which of the following best describes increased blood flow? A. Ischemia C. Hematuria B. Hyperemia D. Polyemia |
| D. External intercostals | Which muscle elevates the rib cage during inspiration? A. Subscapularis C. Diaphragm B. Internal intercostals D. External intercostals |
| D. Muscular | What body system produces heat, creates movement, and maintains posture? A. Integumentary C. Nervous B. Circulatory D. Muscular |
| A. Sternoclavicular joint & C. Sacroiliac joint | Which joint connects the appendicular skeleton to the axial skeleton? A. Sternoclavicular joint C. Sacroiliac joint B. Acromioclavicular joint D. A and C |
| C. Between a bone and a tendon | Where are bursa sacks usually located? A. Between a muscle and a tendon C. Between a bone and a tendon B. Within the joint capsule D. Between a muscle and a bone |
| A. Hinge | Which of the following joints moves in only one plane? A. Hinge C. Gliding B. Saddle D. Ellipsoid |
| D. Isometric | What describes a muscle contraction where the muscle does NOT lengthen or shorten? A. Eccentric C. Isotonic B. Concentric D. Isometric |
| C. Pronation | What is the term used to describe medial rotation of the forearm? A. Radial deviation C. Pronation B. Supination D. Protraction |
| C. Depression | Which movement is associated with opening the jaw or dropping the shoulder? A. Anterior tilt C. Depression B. Retraction D. Upward rotation |
| B. Inversion | Which term represents movement of the feet where the soles are facing each other and the persons weight is on the lateral edges? A. Eversion C. Supination B. Inversion D. Pronation |
| B. Radiocarpal | Which of the following is an example of an ellipsoid joint? A. Patellofemoral C. Radioulnar B. Radiocarpal D. Talocrural |
| D. Atlantooccipital | Name the joint between the skull and the first cervical vertebra. A. Atlantoaxial C. Occipitocervalis B. Intervertebral D. Atlantooccipital |
| B. Nerve roots | What structure(s) emerge(s) from intervertebral foramina? A. Blood vessels C. Spinal cord B. Nerve roots D. Intervertebral discs |
| C. Cheekbone | What is another name for the zygomatic arch? A. Chin C. Cheekbone B. Forehead D. Occipital ridge |
| A. Metacarpals | Which bones in the hand are positioned distal to the carpals? A. Metacarpals C. Ossicles B. Metatarsals D. Palatines |
| C. Radius | Which bone moves during supination and pronation? A. Humerus C. Radius B. Ulna D. Clavicle |
| D. Medial epicondyle | From which bony marking do the flexors of the wrist originate? A. Lateral epicondyle C. Radial tuberosity B. Deltoid tuberosity D. Medial epicondyle |
| B. Proximal radioulnar | Which joint allows supination and pronation of the forearm? A. Distal radioulnar C. Humeroulnar B. Proximal radioulnar D. Humeroradial |
| D. Tibiofemoral | Which of the following is the scientific name for the knee? A. Talocrural C. Iliofemoral B. Tibiofibular D. Tibiofemoral |
| C. Acetabulum | What is the scientific name for the hip socket? A. Glenoid C. Acetabulum B. Olecranon D. Flavum |
| A. Meniscus | What is the name given for the cartilage inside the knee? A. Meniscus C. Innominate B. Cruciate D. Intrapatellar |
| C. The ribs | The term costal refers to A. Vertebrae C. The ribs B. The great toe D. The sternum |
| A. Body | To what part of the sternum do most ribs attach? A. Body C. Xiphoid process B. Manubrium D. Costal |
| B. Sternoclavicular joint | What is the medial clavicular joint called? A. Scapoclavicular joint C. Vertebroclavicular joint B. Sternoclavicular joint D. Acromioclavicular joint |
| D. Radiocarpal | Which of the following joints is considered to be biaxial? A. Glenohumeral C. Acromioclavicular B. Humeroulnar D. Radiocarpal |
| C. Pernicious anemia | Which of the following occurs when the stomach is unable to manufacture intrinsic factor, a substance needed for absorption of vitamin B12 from the digestive tract? A. Sickle cell anemia C. Pernicious anemia B. Hemolytic anemia D. Aplastic anemia |
| B. Cycles of rhythmic lifting, squeezing, and releasing of tissue, working parallel to the muscle fibers | Which of the following best describes kneading strokes? A. Rubbing one surface over another; skin over skin or skin over underlying structures C. Rapid shaking, quivering, trembling, or rocking movements B. Cycles of rhythmic lifting, squeezing, and releasing of tissue, working parallel to the muscle fibers D. Gliding movements that are repeated and follow the contour of the client's body |
| D. Tilt her body to the left by placing a pillow or cushion under her right flank when supine | Which of the following statements is true regarding precautions when massaging a pregnant client? A. Place a cushion under her abdomen while she is prone C. Apply only hacking percussion on her abdomen in the second trimester B. Avoid massage on her right calf D. Tilt her body to the left by placing a pillow or cushion under her right flank when supine |
| B. They have brittle bones | Clients who have osteoporosis should only receive lighter-than-normal massage. Why? A. They are usually elderly C. They will also have neuropathy B. They have brittle bones D. Their skin will be overly sensitive |
| C. Rubbing one surface over another; skin over skin or skin over underlying structures | Which of the following best describes friction? A. Cycles of rhythmic lifting, squeezing, and releasing of tissue, working parallel to the muscle fibers C. Rubbing one surface over another; skin over skin or skin over underlying structures B. Repetitive staccato striking movements of the hands, moving either simultaneously or alternately D. Rapid shaking, quivering, trembling, or rocking movements |
| D. Reschedule the massage | A client complains of being very tired and is running a low-grade fever. How should the therapist proceed? A. Perform a light massage, avoiding her head and neck C. Proceed with the massage avoiding the prone position B. Offer her a few C vitamins tablets and proceed with the massage D. Reschedule the massage |
| C. VII | Bell palsy is a type of paralysis of which cranial nerve? A. I C. VII B. V D. X |
| C. Bacteria | What is the most common cause of a urinary tract infection? A. Virus C. Bacteria B. Direct trauma D. Vitamin deficiency |
| B. Postmenopausal women | Which population group is prone to have osteoporosis? A. Men over 50 of Asian decent C. Adolescents B. Postmenopausal women D. Nursing mothers |
| A. Fibromyalgia | Which of the following conditions is indicated for massage? A. Fibromyalgia C. Fever B. Abnormal lumps D. Acute inflammation |
| D. Knees flexed while shifting weight between the feet | Proper body mechanics is extremely important to prevent injury to the therapist. Which of the following demonstrates good body mechanics? A. Feet close together and bent at the waist C. Body weight always on the right foot B. Knees locked with back straight D. Knees flexed while shifting weight between the feet |
| D. Adjust the massage to his vitality and stamina and avoid any open sores | A client comes into your office and states during the premassage interview that he is HIV positive. Which of the following is part of a safe treatment this client? A. Obtain medical clearance prior to giving him a massage, then use vibration over the sternum to stimulate the thymus C. Proceed with the massage, following universal precautions with only these clients B. Massage is contraindicated D. Adjust the massage to his vitality and stamina and avoid any open sores |
| C. Repetitive staccato striking movements of the hands, moving either simultaneously or alternately | Which of the following best describes percussion? A. Cycles of rhythmic lifting, squeezing, and C. Repetitive staccato striking movements of releasing of tissue, working parallel to the muscle fibers the hands, moving either simultaneously or alternately B. Rapid shaking, quivering, trembling, or rocking movements D. Rubbing one surface over another; skin over skin or skin over underlying structures |
| A. External iliac | Blood traveling through the femoral artery must first pass through which artery? A. External iliac C. Sciatic B. Basilic D. Saphenous |
| D. Hepatitis B | A therapist who works in a hospital setting and is exposed to body fluids such as blood is more likely than a therapist who works in a spa to contract which disease? A. Hepatitis A C. Leukemia B. Hemophilia D. Hepatitis B |
| C. Ballistic | Which of the following types of stretching is no longer recommended in sports or clinical settings? A. Assisted C. Ballistic B. Static D. Strain-counterstrain |
| D. Sartorius | Which of the following muscles does NOT flex the hip? A. Rectus femoris C. Gluteus maximus B. Iliopsoas D. Sartorius |
| A. Sliding movements of the hand that are repeated and follow the contour of the client's body | Which of the following best describes gliding strokes? A. Sliding movements of the hand that are repeated and follow the contour of the client's body C. Cycles of rhythmic lifting, squeezing, and releasing of tissue, working parallel to the muscle fibers B. Rubbing one surface over another; skin over skin or skin over underlying structures D. Rapid shaking, quivering, trembling, or rocking movements |
| B. Strongly urge him to see his physician as this is characteristic of skin cancer | You notice a large mole on a client's posterior upper arm, which has changed over his past few visits. What is the best course of action? A. Treat it with tea tree essential oil C. Proceed with the massage as moles are not contagious B. Strongly urge him to see his physician as this is characteristic of skin cancer D. Proceed with the massage and avoid the area |
| D. Gluteal muscles | Deep massage of which muscle group may relieve sciatic pain? A. Hamstrings C. Adductors B. Quadriceps D. Gluteal muscles |
| B. Income of an independent contractor | A 1099 tax form is used to notify the federal government of what? A. Business property depreciation C. Capital gains B. Income of an independent contractor D. Income of an employee |
| C. Proceed with the massage and avoid the affected area | If a client with phlebitis comes in to your office for a massage, which of the following is part of a safe treatment plan for this client? A. Massage is contraindicated C. Proceed with the massage and avoid the affected area B. Proceed with the massage, using vibration over the affected area to stimulate leukocyte migration D. Proceed with the massage, working deeply over the affected area |
| D. Lordosis | Which of the following is hypercurvature of the spine in the lumbar region? A. Scoliosis C. Spondylosis B. Kyphosis D. Lordosis |
| A. Centripetally | In Swedish massage, massage applied on the extremities should be applied A. Centripetally C. Centrifugally B. In sequence D. Using slow rhythm |
| C. Set of guiding moral principles | How is a code of ethics best described? A. Federal rules and regulations C. Set of guiding moral principles B. Common business practices D. Set of universal truths |
| B. Address any medical conditions in the treatment plan, then position the client for comfort and use lighter-than- normal pressure | An elderly female client with a stooped posture is referred to you for a massage. Which of the following is part of a safe treatment plan for her? A. Proceed with the massage, working vigorously to promote circulation C. Proceed with the massage, working deeply on her back to promote pain relief B. Address any medical conditions in the treatment plan, then position the client for comfort and use lighter-than- normal pressure D. Massage is contraindicated |
| C. Use a lighter-than-normal pressure and a soothing rhythm to promote relaxation, then reducing the treatment time to about 30 minutes to prevent further fatiguing the client | A client who reports chronic fatigue comes in to your office for a massage. Which of the following is part a treatment plan that supports her needs? A. Proceed with the massage, working deeply C. Use a lighter-than-normal pressure and a on her back and neck to promote pain relief and reduce fatigue soothing rhythm to promote relaxation, then reducing the treatment time to about 30 minutes to prevent further fatiguing the client B. Proceed with the massage, working vigorously to promote circulation D. Massage is contraindicated |
| A. Schedule the massage for next, or third day after the accident, then conduct a complete intake to determine an appropriate treatment plan | A client wishes to receive a massage the day after a vehicular accident that caused the client moderate back pain. Which of the following is part of a safe treatment for this client? A. Schedule the massage for next, or third day after the accident, then conduct a complete intake to determine an appropriate treatment plan C. Proceed with the massage, working deeply on his back to promote pain relief B. Find out if he has whiplash, then proceed with neuromuscular techniques on his neck D. Proceed with the massage, using cross fiber friction to minimize adhesions and promote proper scar formation |
| C. Muscle spindles | Which of the following receptors monitor changes in muscle length as well as the rate of this change and respond by reflexive contraction? A. Golgi tendon organs C. Muscle spindles B. Pacinian spindles D. Ruffini organs |
| B. Pacinian spindles | Which of the following muscles inverts the foot? A. Gastrocnemius C. Peroneus longus B. Tibialis anterior D. Plantaris |
| C. Is impossible or undesirable to treat a particular client in the usual manner | If a client has a condition that is contraindicated, it means that it A. Requires over-the-counter or prescription medication C. Is impossible or undesirable to treat a particular client in the usual manner B. Requires immediate medical attention D. Is recommended for massage |
| B. Help keep the client warm and promote professionalism | Proper draping methods are an important part of massage because they A. Are an important aspect of marketing C. Help massage lubricant absorption B. Help keep the client warm and promote professionalism D. Help the client to stay calm |
| D. Emphysema | A person who habitually smokes cigarettes is more likely than a nonsmoker to develop which of the following? A. Tuberculosis C. Influenza B. Pleurisy D. Emphysema |
| B. Plantar flexion | When a person is raised up on his toes, the ankle is in what position? A. Dorsiflexion C. Eversion B. Plantar flexion D. Inversion |
| B. Upper lumbar region | To what area of the body is vigorous percussion generally avoided? A. Upper thoracic region C. Middle gluteal region B. Upper lumbar region D. Upper calf region |
| C. Massage proximal to the injured area | When working on a client who has an injury on one limb that is confined to a small area, what is the best course of action? A. Massage in wide circles around the injured area C. Massage proximal to the injured area B. Massage over the injured area D. Massage distal to the injured area |
| D. Dating a client | Which of the following violates the Code of Ethics published by the National Certification Board of Therapeutic Massage and Bodyworkers? A. Accepting a $10 tip C. Becoming politically active B. Leasing space from another massage therapist D. Dating a client |
| D. Postpone the massage until he receives medical clearance | If a client who is under the care of a local nephrologist comes into the massage with pitting edema, what should be part of his current treatment plan? A. The edematous area should be elevated for 10 minutes prior to the massage C. The edematous area should be massaged for 10 minutes to relieve swelling B. The edematous area should be wrapped with compressive bandaging D. Postpone the massage until he receives medical clearance |
| B. Median | Which of the following nerves are involved in carpal tunnel syndrome? A. Tibial C. Ulnar B. Median D. Radial |
| A. Hypertension | Which of the following is a synonym for high blood pressure? A. Hypertension C. Thrombosis B. Arthrosclerosis D. Arteriolitis |
| B. Bladder infection | Which of the following is a synonym for cystitis? A. Heart attack C. Kidney stone B. Bladder infection D. Whiplash |
| C. Deep friction | What is the best massage stroke to break up fibrosis of scar tissue? A. Gliding C. Deep friction B. Kneading D. Percussion |
| D. To determine any contraindications | Why do massage therapists conduct a client intake with heath histories? A. To determine if you will work with the client C. To learn interviewing skills B. To learn more about the client's parents D. To determine any contraindications |
| B. eliminate spasm - restore flexibility - improve muscle strength - rebuild endurance | What are the four stages of rehabilitation? A. improve muscle strength - rebuild endurance - eliminate spasm - restore flexibility C. eliminate spasm - rebuild endurance - restore flexibility - improve muscle strength B. eliminate spasm - restore flexibility - improve muscle strength - rebuild endurance D. rebuild endurance - eliminate spasm - improve muscle strength - restore flexibility |
| D. Any of the above | When assessing a client's pain and discomfort, what is the initial question to ask? A. When did it start? C. Does the pain radiate? B. What makes it better or worse? D. Any of the above |
| A. Tell the client that massage can be preformed through clothing | What is the best way to proceed when a client does NOT wish to disrobe? A. Tell the client that massage can be preformed through clothing C. Refuse to massage the client B. Ask the client if he or she will disrobe down to the undergarments D. Explain to the client the importance of skin-to-skin contact |
| C. Abdomen | Where might a client report discomfort if he or she was diagnosed with diverticulosis? A. Shoulder C. Abdomen B. Hip D. Neck |
| B. Elevate the limb and massage around the affected area | How would you work with someone who has varicose veins? A. Apply heat to the affected area C. Massage distal the affected area only B. Elevate the limb and massage around the affected area D. Apply deep pressure on the affected area |
| D. Percussion | Which massage stroke is best for muscular atrophy due to inactivity, because it activates muscle spindles? A. Gliding strokes C. Kneading strokes B. Friction D. Percussion |
| B. Sole proprietorship | What type of business entity put the owner(s) at the greatest risk? A. Corporation C. Partnership B. Sole proprietorship D. Limited liability |
| C. Limbic system | What system helps to regulate human emotions? A. Portal system C. Limbic system B. Renin-angiotensin system D. Blood-brain system |
| A. Gastrocnemius and soleus | Which two muscles are contracted when someone is wearing high-heeled shoes? A. Gastrocnemius and soleus C. Tibialis anterior and posterior B. Gastrocnemius and pectineus D. Plantaris and supinator |
| D. Hamstrings and calf | When flexing the knee, what two muscle groups move closer together? A. Calf and quadriceps C. Adductors and hamstrings B. Quadriceps and adductors D. Hamstrings and calf |
| B. Sacroiliac, pubic symphysis, iliofemoral | Which of the following are three joints of the pelvis? A. Pubic symphysis, iliofemoral, sacrotuberal C. Iliofemoral, patellofemoral, tibiofemoral B. Sacroiliac, pubic symphysis, iliofemoral D. Sacroiliac, chondrocostal, tibiofibular |
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