FCC HAM General Exam Question Pool 2007

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Questions and Answers Pool from 2007 for the FCC General Test for Amateur Radio.

G1A01 On which of the following bands is a General Class license holder granted all amateur frequency privileges? / A. 20, 17, and 12 meters B. 160, 80, 40, and 10 meters C. 160, 30, 17, 12, and 10 meters D. 160, 30, 17, 15, 12, and 10 meters

C

G1A02 On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited? / A. 160 meters B. 30 meters C. 17 meters D. 12 meters

B

G1A03 On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited? / A. 160 meters B. 30 meters C. 20 meters D. 12 meters

B

G1A04 Which amateur band restricts communication to specific channels, using only USB voice, and prohibits all other modes, including CW and data? / A. 11 meters B. 12 meters C. 30 meters D. 60 meters

D

G1A05 Which of the following frequencies is in the General Class portion of the 40 meter band? / A. 7.250 MHz B. 7.500 MHz C. 40.200 MHz D. 40.500 MHz

A

G1A06 Which of the following frequencies is in the 12 meter band? / A. 3.940 MHz B. 12.940 MHz C. 17.940 MHz D. 24.940 MHz

D

G1A07 Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 75 meter phone band? / A. 1875 kHz B. 3750 kHz C. 3900 kHz D. 4005 kHz

C

G1A08 Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 20 meter phone band? / A. 14005 kHz B. 14105 kHz C. 14305 kHz D. 14405 kHz

C

G1A09 Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 80 meter band? / A. 1855 kHz B. 2560 kHz C. 3560 kHz D. 3650 kHz

C

G1A10 Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 15 meter band? / A. 14250 kHz B. 18155 kHz C. 21300 kHz D. 24900 kHz

C

G1A11 Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General Class license? / A. 28.020 MHz B. 28.350 MHz C. 28.550 MHz D. All of these answers are correct

D

G1A12 When a General Class licensee is not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a particular band, which portion of the voice segment is generally available to them? / A. The lower end B. The upper end C. The lower end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the upper end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz D. The upper end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the lower end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

B

G1A13 Which amateur band is shared with the Citizens Radio Service? / A. 10 meters B. 11 meters C. 12 meters D. None

D

G1A14 Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user and another service as a primary user on a band? / A. Amateur stations must obtain permission from a primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station B. Amateur stations are allowed to use the frequency band only during emergencies C. Amateur stations are allowed to use the frequency band only if they do not cause harmful interference to primary users D. Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24 hour use of the band

C

G1A15 What must you do if, when operating on either the 30 or 60 meter bands, a station in the primary service interferes with your contact? / A. Notify the FCC's regional Engineer in Charge of the interference B. Increase your transmitter's power to overcome the interference C. Attempt to contact the station and request that it stop the interference D. Stop transmitting at once and/or move to a clear frequency

D

G1A16 Which of the following operating restrictions applies to amateur radio stations as a secondary service in the 60 meter band? / A. They must not cause harmful interference to stations operating in other radio services B. They must transmit no more than 30 minutes during each hour to minimize harmful interference to other radio services C. They must use lower sideband, suppressed-carrier, only D. They must not exceed 2.0 kHz of bandwidth

A

G1B01 What is the maximum height above ground to which an antenna structure may be erected without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC, provided it is not at or near a public-use airport? / A. 50 feet B. 100 feet C. 200 feet D. 300 feet

C

G1B02 With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply? / A. Identification must be in Morse Code B. The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization C. The frequency must be posted on the Internet or published in a national periodical D. There must be no more than one beacon signal in the same band from a single location

D

G1B03 Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC Rules? / A. Observation of propagation and reception, or other related activities B. Automatic Identification of Repeaters C. Transmission of bulletins of General interest to amateur radio licensees D. Identifying Net Frequencies

A

G1B04 Which of the following must be true before an amateur station may provide news information to the media during a disaster? / A. The information must directly relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property and there is no other means of communication available B. The exchange of such information must be approved by a local emergency preparedness official and transmitted on officially designated frequencies C. The FCC must have declared a state of emergency D. Both amateur stations must be RACES stations

A

G1B05 When may music be transmitted by an amateur station? / A. At any time, as long as it produces no spurious emissions B. When it is unintentionally transmitted from the background at the transmitter C. When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz D. When it is an incidental part of a space shuttle or ISS retransmission

D

G1B06 When is an amateur station permitted to transmit secret codes? / A. During a declared communications emergency B. To control a space station C. Only when the information is of a routine, personal nature D. Only with Special Temporary Authorization from the FCC

B

G1B07 What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service? / A. Only "Q" codes are permitted B. They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message C. They are not permitted because they obscure the meaning of a message to FCC monitoring stations D. Only "10-codes" are permitted

B

G1B08 Which of the following is prohibited by the FCC Rules for amateur radio stations? / A. Transmission of music as the primary program material during a contact B. The use of obscene or indecent words C. Transmission of false or deceptive messages or signals D. All of these answers are correct

D

G1B09 When may an amateur station transmit communications in which the licensee or control operator has a pecuniary (monetary) interest? / A. Only when other amateurs are being notified of the sale of apparatus normally used in an amateur station and such activity is not done on a regular basis B. Only when there is no other means of communications readily available C. At any time as long as the communication does not involve a third party D. Never

A

G1B10 What is the power limit for beacon stations? / A. 10 watts PEP output B. 20 watts PEP output C. 100 watts PEP output D. 200 watts PEP output

C

G1B11 How does the FCC require an amateur station to be operated in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules? / A. In conformance with the rules of the IARU B. In conformance with amateur radio custom C. In conformance with good engineering and good amateur practice D. All of these answers are correct

C

G1B12 Who or what determines "good engineering and good amateur practice" that apply to operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules? / A. The FCC B. The Control Operator C. The IEEE D. The ITU

A

G1B13 What restrictions may the FCC place on an amateur station that is causing interference to a broadcast receiver of good engineering design? / A. Restrict the amateur station operation to times other than 8 pm to 10:30 pm local time every day, as well as on Sundays from 10:30 am to 1 pm local time B. Restrict the amateur station from operating at times requested by the owner of the receiver C. Restrict the amateur station to operation only during RACES drills D. Restrict the amateur station from operating at any time

A

G1C01 What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz? / A. 200 watts PEP output B. 1000 watts PEP output C. 1500 watts PEP output D. 2000 watts PEP output

A

G1C02 What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12 meter band? / A. 1500 PEP output, except for 200 watts PEP output in the novice portion B. 200 watts PEP output C. 1500 watts PEP output D. Effective radiated power equivalent to 50 watts from a half wave dipole

C

G1C03 What is the maximum transmitting power a General class licensee may use when operating between 7025 and 7125 kHz? / A. 200 watts PEP output B. 1500 watts PEP output C. 1000 watts PEP output D. 2000 watts PEP output

B

G1C04 What limitations, other than the 1500 watt PEP limit, are placed on transmitter power in the 14 MHz band? / A. Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used B. Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz C. Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency D. Effective radiated power cannot exceed 3000 watts

A

G1C05 What is the maximum transmitting power a station with a General Class control operator may use on the 28 MHz band? / A. 100 watts PEP output B. 1000 watts PEP output C. 1500 watts PEP output D. 2000 watts PEP output

C

G1C06 What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 1825 kHz? / A. 200 watts PEP output B. 1000 watts PEP output C. 1200 watts PEP output D. 1500 watts PEP output

D

G1C07 Which of the following is a requirement when a station is transmitting on the 60 meter band? / A. Transmissions may only use Lower Sideband (LSB) B. Transmissions must use only CW or Data modes C. Transmissions must not exceed an effective radiated power of 50 Watts PEP referred to a dipole antenna D. Transmissions must not exceed an effective radiated power of 200 Watts PEP referred to a dipole antenna

C

G1C08 What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY emissions transmitted on frequency bands below 28 MHz? / A. 56 kilobaud B. 19.6 kilobaud C. 1200 baud D. 300 baud

D

G1C09 What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for packet emission transmissions on the 2 meter band? / A. 300 baud B. 1200 baud C. 19.6 kilobaud D. 56 kilobaud

C

G1C10 What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10 meter band? / A. 56 kilobaud B. 19.6 kilobaud C. 1200 baud D. 300 baud

C

G1C11 What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 6 and 2 meter bands? / A. 56 kilobaud B. 19.6 kilobaud C. 1200 baud D. 300 baud

B

G1C12 What is the maximum authorized bandwidth for RTTY, data or multiplexed emissions using an unspecified digital code transmitted on the 6 and 2 meter bands? / A. 20 kHz B. 50 kHz C. The total bandwidth shall not exceed that of a single-sideband phone emission D. The total bandwidth shall not exceed 10 times that of a CW emission

A

G1C13 What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations when operating on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band? / A. 2.8 kHz B. 5.6 kHz C. +/-2.8 kHz D. 3 kHz

A

G1D01 What is the proper way to identify when transmitting on General class frequencies if you have a CSCE for the required elements but your upgrade from Technician has not appeared in the ULS database? / A. Give your call sign followed by the words "General class" B. No special identification is needed, since your license upgrade would already be shown in the FCC's database C. Give your call sign followed by the words "temporary AG" D. Give your call sign followed the abbreviation "CSCE"

C

G1D02 What license examinations may you administer when you are an accredited VE holding a General Class operator license? / A. Novice B. General C. Technician D. All elements

C

G1D03 Which of the following band segments may you operate on if you are a Technician Class operator and have a CSCE for General Class privileges? / A. Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted on the FCC database B. Only on the Technician band segments until your license arrives in the mail C. On any General Class band segment D. On any General Class Band segment except 30 and 60 meters

C

G1D04 Which of the following are requirements for administering a Technician Class operator examination? / A. At Least three VEC-accredited General Class or higher VEs must be present B. At least two VEC-accredited General Class or higher VEs must be present C. At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need be VEC accredited D. At least three VEs of Technician Class or higher must be present

A

G1D05 Which of the following is sufficient for you to be an administering VE for a Technician Class operator license examination? / A. Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination B. Receipt of a CSCE for General class C. Possession of properly obtained telegraphy and written examinations D. A FCC General class or higher license and VEC accreditation

D

G1D06 When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are a Technician Class licensee and have a CSCE for General Class operator privileges? / A. Whenever you operate using General class frequency privileges B. Whenever you operate on any amateur frequency C. Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges D. A special identifier is not required as long as your General class license application has been filed with the FCC

A

G1D07 Who is responsible at a Volunteer Exam Session for determining the correctness of the answers on the exam? / A. The FCC B. The administering VEs C. The VEC D. The local VE team liaison

B

G1D08 What document must be issued to a person that passes an exam element? / A. FCC form 605 B. CSCE C. CCSA D. NCVEC form 605

B

G1D09 How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination(CSCE)valid for exam element credit? / A. 30 days B. 180 days C. 365 days D. For as long as your current license is valid

C

G1D10 What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner? / A. 12 years B. 18 years C. 21 years D. There is no age limit

B

G1D11 What criteria must be met for a non U.S. citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner? / A. The person must be a resident of the U.S. for a minimum of 5 years B. The person must hold a U.S. amateur radio license of General class or above C. The person's home citizenship must be in the ITU 2 region D. None of these answers is correct; non U.S. citizens cannot be volunteer examiners

B

G1D12 Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization? / A. The Federal Communications Commission B. The Universal Licensing System C. A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator D. The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau

C

G1D13 When may you participate as a VE in administering an amateur radio license examination? / A. Once you have notified the FCC that you want to give an examination B. Once you have a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class C. Once your General class license appears in the FCC's ULS database D. Once you have been granted your General class license and received your VEC accreditation

D

G1E01 - rules; ITU regions G1E01 (A) [97.115(b)(2)] Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in stating a message over an amateur station? / A. The third party is a person previously licensed in the amateur service whose license had been revoked B. The third party is not a U.S. citizen C. The third party is a licensed amateur D. The third party is speaking in a language other than English, French, or Spanish

A

G1E02 When may a 10 meter repeater retransmit the 2 meter signal from a station having a Technician Class control operator? / A. Under no circumstances B. Only if the station on 10 meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission C. Only during an FCC-declared General state of communications emergency D. Only if the 10 meter control operator holds at least a General class license

D

G1E03 What kind of amateur station simultaneously retransmits the signals of other stations on another channel? / A. Repeater Station B. Beacon Station C. Telecommmand Station D. Relay Station

A

G1E04 Which of the following conditions require an amateur radio station to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities? / A. When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station B. When using a band where the amateur service is secondary C. When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions D. All of these answers are correct

D

G1E05 What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station? / A. Any message, as long as the amateur operator is not paid B. Only messages for other licensed amateurs C. Only messages relating to amateur radio or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief D. No messages may be transmitted to foreign countries for third parties

C

G1E06 Which of the following applies in the event of interference between a coordinated repeater and an uncoordinated repeater? / A. The licensee of the non-coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference B. The licensee of the coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference C. Both repeater licensees share equal responsibility to resolve the interference D. The frequency coordinator bears primary responsibility to resolve the interference

A

G1E07 With which of the following is third-party traffic prohibited, except for messages directly involving emergencies or disaster relief communications? / A. Countries in ITU Region 2 B. Countries in ITU Region 1 C. Any country other than the United States, unless there is a third-party agreement in effect with that country D. Any country which is not a member of the Internal Amateur Radio Union (IARU)

C

G1E08 Which of the following is a requirement for a non-licensed person to communicate with a foreign amateur radio station from a US amateur station at which a licensed control operator is present? / A. Information must be exchanged in English B. The foreign amateur station must be in a country with which the United States has a third party agreement C. The control operator must have at least a General class license D. All of these answers are correct

B

G1E09 What language must you use when identifying your station if you are using a language other than English in making a contact? / A. The language being used for the contact B. Any language if the US has a third party agreement with that country C. English D. Any language of a country that is a member of the ITU

C

G1E10 Which of the following is a permissible third party communication during routine amateur radio operations? / A. Permitting an unlicensed person to speak to a licensed amateur anywhere in the world B. Sending a business message for another person, as long it is for a non-profit organization C. Sending a business message for another person, as long as the control operator has no pecuniary interest in the message D. Sending a message to a third party through a foreign station, as long as that person is a licensed amateur radio operator

D

G2A01 P breaking into a QSO in progress; VOX operation G2A01 (A) Which sideband is most commonly used for phone communications on the bands above 20 meters? / A. Upper Sideband B. Lower Sideband C. Vestigial Sideband D. Double Sideband

A

G2A02 Which sideband is commonly used on the 160, 75, and 40 meter bands? / A. Upper Sideband B. Lower Sideband C. Vestigial Sideband D. Double Sideband

B

G2A03 Which sideband is commonly used in the VHF and UHF bands? / A. Upper Sideband B. Lower Sideband C. Vestigial Sideband D. Double Sideband

A

G2A04 Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17 and 12 meter bands? / A. Upper Sideband B. Lower Sideband C. Vestigial Sideband D. Double Sideband

A

G2A05 Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the High Frequency Amateur bands? / A. FM B. AM C. SSB D. PM

C

G2A06 Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other voice modes on the HF amateur bands? / A. Very high fidelity voice modulation B. Less bandwidth used and high power efficiency C. Ease of tuning on receive D. Less subject to static crashes (atmospherics)

B

G2A07 Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband (SSB) voice mode? / A. Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed B. Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed C. SSB voice transmissions have higher average power than any other mode D. SSB is the only mode that is authorized on the 160, 75 and 40 meter amateur bands

B

G2A08 Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB) voice mode? / A. It is a form of amplitude modulation in which one sideband and the carrier are suppressed B. It is a form of frequency modulation in which higher frequencies are emphasized C. It reproduces upper frequencies more efficiently than lower frequencies D. It is the only voice mode authorized on the HF bands between 14 and 30 MHz

A

G2A09 Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160, 75 and 40 meter bands? / A. The lower sideband is more efficient at these frequency bands B. The lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands C. Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector D. Current amateur practice is to use lower sideband on these frequency bands

D

G2A10 Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation? / A. The received signal is more natural sounding B. VOX allows "hands free" operation C. Frequency spectrum is conserved D. The duty cycle of the transmitter is reduced

B

G2A11 Which of the following user adjustable controls are usually associated with VOX circuitry? / A. Anti-VOX B. VOX Delay C. VOX Sensitivity D. All of these choices are correct

D

G2A12 What is the recommended way to break into a conversation when using phone? / A. Say "QRZ" several times followed by your call sign B. Say your call sign during a break between transmissions from the other stations C. Say "Break" "Break" "Break" and wait for a response D. Say "CQ" followed by the call sign of either station

B

G2A13 What does the expression "CQ DX" usually indicate? / A. A general call for any station B. The caller is listening for a station in Germany C. The caller is looking for any station outside their own country D. This is a form of distress call

C

G2B01 What action should be taken if the frequency on which a net normally meets is in use just before the net begins? / A. Reduce your output power and start the net as usual B. Increase your power output so that net participants will be able to hear you C. Ask the stations if the net may use the frequency, or move the net to a nearby clear frequency if necessary D. Cancel the net for that day

C

G2B02 What should be done if a net is about to begin on a frequency you and another station are using? / A. Move to a different frequency as a courtesy to the net B. Tell the net that they must to move to another frequency C. Reduce power to avoid interfering with the net D. Pause between transmissions to give the net a chance to change frequency

A

G2B03 What should you do if you notice increasing interference from other activity on a frequency you are using? / A. Tell the interfering stations to change frequency since you were there first B. Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary Coordinator C. Move your contact to another frequency D. Turn on your amplifier

C

G2B04 What minimum frequency separation between CW signals should be allowed to minimize interference? / A. 5 to 50 Hz B. 150 to 500 Hz C. 1 to 3 kHz D. 3 to 6 kHz

B

G2B05 What minimum frequency separation between SSB signals should be allowed to minimize interference? / A. Between 150 and 500 Hz B. Approximately 3 kHz C. Approximately 6 kHz D. Approximately 10 kHz

B

G2B06 What minimum frequency separation between 170 Hz shift RTTY signals should be allowed to minimize interference? / A. 60 Hz B. 250 to 500 Hz C. Approximately 3 kHz D. 170 Hz

B

G2B07 What is a band plan? / A. A voluntary guideline for band use beyond the divisions established by the FCC B. A guideline from the FCC for making amateur frequency band allocations C. A guideline from the ITU for making amateur frequency band allocations D. A plan devised by a club to best use a frequency band during a contest

A

G2B08 What is the "DX window" in a voluntary band plan? / A. A portion of the band that should not be used for contacts between stations within the 48 contiguous United States B. An FCC rule that prohibits contacts between stations within the United States and possessions on that band segment C. An FCC rule that allows only digital contacts in that portion of the band D. A portion of the band that has been set aside for digital contacts only

A

G2B09 What should you do to comply with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency for Slow-Scan TV (SSTV) operation? / A. Transmit only on lower sideband B. Transmit your callsign as an SSTV image for 1 minute to ensure a clear frequency C. Select a frequency in the portion of the band set aside for digital operation D. Follow generally accepted band plans for SSTV operation

D

G2B10 What should you do to comply with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency for radio-teletype (RTTY) operation? / A. Call CQ in Morse code before attempting to establish a contact in RTTY B. Select a frequency in the upper end of the phone band C. Select a frequency in the lower end of the phone band D. Follow generally accepted band plans for RTTY operation

D

G2B11 What should you do to comply with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency for HF PSK operation? / A. Call CQ in Morse code before attempting to establish a contact in PSK B. Select a frequency in the upper end of the phone band C. Select a frequency in the lower end of the phone band D. Follow generally accepted band plans for PSK operation

D

G2B12 What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference when selecting a frequency to call CQ using phone? / A. Ask if the frequency is in use, say your callsign, and listen for a response B. Keep your CQ to less than 2 minutes in length to avoid interference to contacts that may be in progress C. Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ to avoid interference to contacts that may be in progress D. Call CQ at low power first and if there is no indication of interference, increase power as necessary

A

G2B13 What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference when calling CQ using Morse code or CW? / A. Send the letter "V" 12 times and then listen for a response B. Keep your CQ to less than 2 minutes in length to avoid interference with contacts already in progress C. Send "QRL? de" followed by your callsign and listen for a response D. Call CQ at low power first; if there is no indication of interference then increase power as necessary

C

G2C01 When normal communications systems are not available, what means may an amateur station use to provide essential communications when there is an immediate threat to the safety of human life or the protection of property? / A. Only transmissions sent on internationally recognized emergency channels B. Any means, but only to RACES recognized emergency stations C. Any means of radiocommunication at its disposal D. Only those means of radiocommunication for which the station is licensed

C

G2C02 Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster? / A. Only a person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license B. Only a RACES net control operator C. Only official emergency stations may transmit during a disaster D. Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational

A

G2C03 When may the FCC restrict normal frequency operations of amateur stations participating in RACES? / A. When they declare a temporary state of communication emergency B. When they seize your equipment for use in disaster communications C. Only when all amateur stations are instructed to stop transmitting D. When the President's War Emergency Powers have been invoked

D

G2C04 When is an amateur station prevented from using any means at its disposal to assist another station in distress? / A. Only when transmitting in RACES B. Only when authorized by the FCC rule C. Never D. Only on authorized HF frequencies

C

G2C05 What type of transmission would a control operator be making when transmitting out of the amateur band without station identification during a life threatening emergency? / A. A prohibited transmission B. An unidentified transmission C. A third party communication D. An auxiliary transmission

B

G2C07 What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in? / A. Continue your communication because you were on frequency first B. Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed C. Change to a different frequency D. Immediately cease all transmissions

B

G2C08 When are you prohibited from helping a station in distress? / A. When that station is not transmitting on amateur frequencies B. When the station in distress offers no call sign C. You are never prohibited from helping any station in distress D. When the station is not another amateur station

C

G2C09 What type of transmissions may an amateur station make during a disaster? / A. Only transmissions when RACES net is activated B. Transmissions necessary to meet essential communications needs and to facilitate relief actions C. Only transmissions from an official emergency station D. Only one-way communications

B

G2C10 Which emission mode must be used to obtain assistance during a disaster? / A. Only SSB B. Only SSB and CW C. Any mode D. Only CW

C

G2C11 What information should be given to a station answering a distress transmission? / A. The ITU region and grid square locator of the emergency B. The location and nature of the emergency C. The time that the emergency occurred and the local weather D. The name of the local emergency coordinator

B

G2C12 What frequency should be used to send a distress call? / A. Whatever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message B. 3873 kHz at night or 7285 kHz during the day C. Only frequencies that are within your operating privileges D. Only frequencies used by police, fire or emergency medical services

A

G2D01 What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC? / A. Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations B. Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations C. Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters D. Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency

A

G2D02 What are the objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary? / A. To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations B. To encourage amateur self-regulation and compliance with the rules C. To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage D. To provide emergency and public safety communications

B

G2D03 What skills learned during "Fox Hunts" are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary? / A. Identification of out of band operation B. Direction-finding skills used to locate stations violating FCC Rules C. Identification of different call signs D. Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies

B

G2D04 What is an azimuthal projection map? / A. A world map projection centered on the North Pole B. A world map projection centered on a particular location C. A world map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator D. A world map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit

B

G2D05 What is the most useful type of map to use when orienting a directional HF antenna toward a distant station? / A. Azimuthal projection B. Mercator projection C. Polar projection D. Stereographic projection

A

G2D06 How is a directional antenna pointed when making a "long-path" contact with another station? / A. Toward the rising sun B. Along the Gray Line C. 180 degrees from its short-path heading D. Toward the North

C

G2D07 Which of the following information must a licensee retain as part of their station records? / A. The call sign of other amateurs operating your station B. Antenna gain calculations or manufacturer's data for antennas used on 60 meters C. A record of all contacts made with stations in foreign countries D. A copy of all third party messages sent through your station

B

G2D08 Why do many amateurs keep a log even though the FCC doesn't require it? / A. The ITU requires a log of all international contacts B. The ITU requires a log of all international third party traffic C. The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest D. To help with a reply if the FCC requests information on who was control operator of your station at a given date and time

D

G2D09 What information is traditionally contained in a station log? / A. Date and time of contact B. Band and/or frequency of the contact C. Call sign of station contacted and the signal report given D. All of these choices are correct

D

G2D10 What is QRP operation? / A. Remote Piloted Model control B. Low power transmit operation, typically about 5 watts C. Transmission using Quick Response Protocol D. Traffic Relay Procedure net operation

B

G2D11 Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference? / A. A bi-directional antenna B. An isotropic antenna C. A unidirectional antenna D. An omnidirectional antenna

C

G2D12 Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60 meter band? / A. If you are using other than a dipole antenna, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna B. You must keep a log of the date, time, frequency, power level and stations worked C. You must keep a log of all third party traffic D. You must keep a log of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used

A

G2E01 Which mode should be selected when using a SSB transmitter with an Audio Frequency Shift Keying (AFSK) RTTY signal? / A. USB B. DSB C. CW D. LSB

D

G2E02 How many data bits are sent in a single PSK31 character? / A. The number varies B. 5 C. 7 D. 8

A

G2E03 What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling information? / A. Directory B. Preamble C. Header D. Footer

C

G2E04 Which of the following 20 meter band segments is most often used for most data transmissions? / A. 14.000 - 14.050 MHz B. 14.070 - 14.100 MHz C. 14.150 - 14.225 MHz D. 14.275 - 14.350 MHz

B

G2E05 Which of the following describes Baudot RTTY? / A. 7-bit code, with start, stop and parity bits B. Utilizes error detection and correction C. 5-bit code, with additional start and stop bits D. Two major operating modes are SELCAL and LISTEN

C

G2E06 What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands? / A. 85 Hz B. 170 Hz C. 425 Hz D. 850 Hz

B

G2E07 What does the abbreviation "RTTY" stand for? / A. "Returning To You", meaning "your turn to transmit" B. Radio-Teletype C. A general call to all digital stations D. Repeater Transmission Type

B

G2E08 What segment of the 80 meter band is most commonly used for data transmissions? / A. 3570 - 3600 kHz B. 3500 - 3525 kHz C. 3700 - 3750 kHz D. 3775 - 3825 kHz

A

G2E09 Where are PSK signals generally found on the 20 meter band? / A. In the low end of the phone band B. In the high end of the phone band C. In the weak signal portion of the band D. Around 14.070 MHz

D

G2E10 What is a major advantage of MFSK16 compared to other digital modes? / A. It is much higher speed than RTTY B. It is much narrower bandwidth than most digital modes C. It has built-in error correction D. It offers good performance in weak signal environment without error correction

D

G2E11 What does the abbreviation "MFSK" stand for? / A. Manual Frequency Shift Keying B. Multi (or Multiple) Frequency Shift Keying C. Manual Frequency Sideband Keying D. Multi (or Multiple) Frequency Sideband Keying

B

G2F01 - abbreviations; full break in G2F01 (D) Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)? / A. Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK B. Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand keys C. An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission D. Incoming signals are received between transmitted code character elements

D

G2F02 What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS" when using Morse code? / A. Send slower B. Change frequency C. Increase your power D. Repeat everything twice.

A

G2F03 What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission? / A. Listening for novice stations B. Operating full break-in C. Listening only for a specific station or stations D. Closing station now

C

G2F04 What does it mean when a CW operator sends "CL" at the end of a transmission? / A. Keep frequency clear B. Operating full break-in C. Listening only for a specific station or stations D. Closing station

D

G2F05 What is the best speed to use answering a CQ in Morse Code? / A. The speed at which you are most comfortable copying B. The speed at which the CQ was sent C. A slow speed until contact is established D. 5 wpm, as all operators licensed to operate CW can copy this speed

B

G2F06 What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation? / A. Matching the speed of the transmitting station B. Operating split to avoid interference on frequency C. Sending without error D. Matching the frequency of the transmitting station

D

G2FO7 When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report? / A. Chirpy or unstable signal B. Report was read from S meter reading rather than estimated C. 100 percent copy D. Key clicks

A

G2F08 What prosign is sent using CW to indicate the end of a formal message? / A. SK B. BK C. AR D. KN

C

G2F09 What does the Q signal "QSL" mean when operating CW? / A. Send slower B. We have already confirmed by card C. I acknowledge receipt D. We have worked before

C

G2F10 What does the Q signal "QRQ" mean when operating CW? / A. Slow down B. Send faster C. Zero beat my signal D. Quitting operation

B

G2F11 What does the Q signal "QRV" mean when operating CW? / A. You are sending too fast B. There is interference on the frequency C. I am quitting for the day D. I am ready to receive messages

D

G3A01 - and indices G3A01 (A) What can be done at an amateur station to continue communications during a sudden ionospheric disturbance? / A. Try a higher frequency B. Try the other sideband C. Try a different antenna polarization D. Try a different frequency shift

A

G3A02 What effect does a Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance (SID) have on the daytime ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves? / A. It disrupts higher-latitude paths more than lower-latitude paths B. It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies C. It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications D. None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected

B

G3A03 How long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio-wave propagation on the Earth? / A. 28 days B. Several hours depending on the position of the Earth in its orbit C. Approximately 8 minutes D. 20 to 40 hours after the radiation reaches the Earth

C

G3A04 What is measured by the solar flux index? / A. The density of the sun's magnetic field B. The radio energy emitted by the sun C. The number of sunspots on the side of the sun facing the Earth D. A measure of the tilt of the Earth's ionosphere on the side toward the sun

B

G3A05 What is the solar-flux index? / A. A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on the Earth B. A count of sunspots which is adjusted for solar emissions C. Another name for the American sunspot number D. A measure of solar activity at 10.7 cm

D

G3A06 What is a geomagnetic disturbance? / A. A sudden drop in the solar-flux index B. A shifting of the Earth's magnetic pole C. Ripples in the ionosphere D. A significant change in the Earth's magnetic field over a short period of time

D

G3A07 Which latitudes have propagation paths that are more sensitive to geomagnetic disturbances? / A. Those greater than 45 degrees North or South latitude B. Those between 5 and 45 degrees North or South latitude C. Those at or very near to the equator D. All paths are affected equally

A

G3A08 What can be an effect of a geomagnetic storm on radio-wave propagation? / A. Improved high-latitude HF propagation B. Degraded high-latitude HF propagation C. Improved ground-wave propagation D. Improved chances of UHF ducting

B

G3A09 What is the effect on radio communications when sunspot numbers are high? / A. High-frequency radio signals become weak and distorted B. Frequencies above 300 MHz become usable for long-distance communication C. Long-distance communication in the upper HF and lower VHF range is enhanced D. Long-distance communication in the upper HF and lower VHF range is diminished

C

G3A10 What is the sunspot number? / A. A measure of solar activity based on counting sunspots and sunspot groups B. A 3 digit identifier which is used to track individual sunspots C. A measure of the radio flux from the sun measured at 10.7 cm D. A measure of the sunspot count based on radio flux measurements

A

G3A11 How long is the typical sunspot cycle? / A. Approximately 8 minutes B. Between 20 and 40 hours C. Approximately 28 days D. Approximately 11 years

D

G3A12 What is the K-index? / A. An index of the relative position of sunspots on the surface of the sun B. A measure of the short term stability of the Earth's magnetic field C. A measure of the stability of the sun's magnetic field D. An index of solar radio flux measured at Boulder, Colorado

B

G3A13 What is the A-index? / A. An index of the relative position of sunspots on the surface of the sun B. The amount of polarization of the sun's electric field C. An indicator of the long term stability of the Earth's geomagnetic field D. An index of solar radio flux measured at Boulder, Colorado

C

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