Surgical Tech Certification Questions

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Surgical technology certification practice questions.

Mask should?

1.) Mask should never be untied and allowed to hang down.
2.) Masks should only be handled by the strings.
3.) Masks should always be changed between procedures.
4.) Masks should not only cover the mouth.

The prefix that means above or upon is:

Epi-

What classification is a Bake surgical instrument?

Dilating

The microorganism that is the cause of myonecrosis in the surgical patient is..?

Clostridium perfringens

Which instrument is the best choice for grasping bowel tissue?

babcock clamp

The humidity in the O.R. is maintained between?

50-55%

Self gowning?

1.) Folded gown is grabbed in neck area
2.) Bottom of unfolded gown can touch the floor
3.) Circulator aids in turning the gown

The prefix that means within is:

Endo-

Microbes that prefer an alkaline enviroment are referred to as:

Alkalophilic

A severe fracture of the tibial plateau is treated by using:

Buttress plates

What type of catheter is used to monitor the central venous pressure?

Swan-Ganz

Which of the following implants can be used to treat a lateral malleolar fracture?

Rusch rod

A tube placed in the incision made into the tympanic membrane during a myringotomy is a/an:

PE tube

How much sterile water should be injected into the 5-cc balloon of a Foley catheter?

10 cc

An item used to wrap an extremity prior to casting and clings to itself is:

Webril

What type of catheter is used for the infusion of dialysis fluid into the peritoneal cavity?

Tenckhoff

What skin cleansing agent has an effective cumulative bacterial suppressive action?

Hexachlorophene

What personal protective equipment should be worn underneath the sterile gown to provide radiation from X-rays?

lead gown

The following statements are true except:
a.) Back of wrap-around gown is sterile
b.) Gowns are sterile from the nipple line to the waist
c.) Axillary region of a gown is considered unsterile
d.) Cuffs of a gown are considered unsterile

Back of wrap-around gown is sterile

When performing the surgical scrub, the arms should be scrubed?

2" above the elbow

All of the following statements are true except:
a.) Emancipated minor can sign the consent
b.) Illiterate patient marks consent with an X
c.) Consent not essential in life-threatening emergency
d.) Patient can sign consent after preoperative medications have been administered

Patient can sign consent after preoperative medications have been administered

The suffix meaning blood condition is:

-emia

What is the most commonly transmitted pathogen in the operating room?

Staphylococcus aureus

A virus that invades a bacterial cell is called a/an?

Bacteriophage

Administering a drug within a joint is called a ____ injection.

Intra-articular

The word root meaning gland is:

Aden/o

Interferons act by:

Interrupting replication of DNA in viruses

AIDS is considered:

Pandemic

The smallest microorganisms are:

Virus

The plicae circulares, microvilli and villi:

Increase absorption area. The microvilli, villi, and the
plicae circulares increase the surface area for absorption and digestion in the small intestine.

Which device could be used when placing a patient in
the operative position for a thyroidectomy?
• A. Shoulder roll
• B. Chest roll
• C. Bean bag
• D. Axillary roll

A.) Shoulder roll. A shoulder roll can be used to slightly hyperextend the region to facilitate making the incision and exposing the thyroid.

Otosclerosis?

an abnormal growth of bone near the middle ear.

Otitis media?

the medical term for middle ear infection

Cholesteatoma?

the medical term for accumulation of squamous epithelium that forms a mass that is destructive to the middle ear.

Chondrolipoma?

a benign mesenchymoma(a mixed mesenchymal tumor composed of two or more cellular elements not commonly associated, exclusive of fibrous tissue.) with cartilaginous and lipomatous(a benign tumor composed of adipose tissue (body fat))

Which muscle alters the shape of the lens to
accommodate vision?

The ciliary muscle alters the shape of the lens to accommodate near or far vision.

What type of procedure is performed to correct
panfacial fractures?

Le Fort II and III are performed to correct panfacial fractures.

A colposcopy may be performed for what condition?

Cervical carcinoma(a malignant neoplasm arising from cells originating in the cervix uteri) A colposcopy is performed to evaluate patients whose Pap smear results are abnormal.

The only artery in the body that carries deoxygenated
blood is the:

pulmonary artery

Which intravenous drug would be used to reduce
intracranial pressure during a craniotomy?

Mannitol

Sterile water is used for irrigation during a
mastectomy, because it is categorized as which of
the following?
• A. Hypotonic
• B. Hypertonic
• C. Isometric
• D. Isotonic

Hypotonic solution causes cells to burst due to the excessive intake of water by the cell.

Which of the following types of needles would be
used for repair of the liver?

Blunt needles have a round shaft that has a blunt tip used for repair of the kidney and liver.

What is the main element of hemoglobin?

Iron

Which of the following is commonly used in the
treatment of retinal detachment?
• A. Electrosurgical unit
• B. Cryotherapy unit
• C. CO2 laser
• D. Cell saver

Cryotherapy unit is used to seal tears and holes for the treatment of retinal detachment.

Incontinence

lack of control of urination

Enucleation

Removal of an entire eyeball

evisceration

the removal of the contents of the eye,leaving the shrunken remnants of the eye.

Which mode of the electrosurgical unit does not
require use of a patient return electrode?

The bipolar units do not require a grounding pad because the inactive dispersive electrode is built into one of the tips of the forceps.

The nerve that is at greatest risk for injury during a
thyroidectomy is the:

The recurrent laryngeal nerve must be identified and kept from injury in order to avoid the patient suffering from temporary or permanent hoarseness or loss of the voice.

What disease is caused by a
pathogen?

Pneumonia is most commonly caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae.

In which surgical procedure would Glisson's capsule
be encountered?

Glisson's capsule is the external covering of the liver and is made of dense connective tissue and would be encountered during a hepatic lobectomy(the removal of a lobe of the liver).

What is another term for intractable pain due to
irritation of the fifth cranial nerve?

Trigeminal neuralgia is the result of irritation and compression of the fifth cranial nerve that can result in severe chronic, intractable pain.

Which instrument would be used during a
dacryocystorhinostomy?

Oscillating saw.During a dacryocystorhinostomy, the ostium is created using one of the following: punches, small oscillating saw or a powered burr.

What is the name of the elastic rolled bandage
designed to exsanguinate an extremity before a
tourniquet cuff is inflated?

An Esmarch bandage is used to facilitate the drainage of blood from an extremity before the tourniquet is inflated.

Cephalosporins are what classification of drug?

Cephalothin sodium (Keflin) is an antibiotic.

When two chest tubes are inserted into the pleural
cavity after an open cardiovascular procedure, what
does the superior tube evacuate?

When two chest tubes are inserted, the upper tube is used to evacuate air, and the lower tube evacuates fluids.

Polyglycolic acid suture falls into which classification?

synthetic absorbable

A patient with pain during mastication might require
surgical decompression of which cranial nerve?

V. The trigeminal mandibular (V3) cranial nerve carries motor fibers to the tongue and sensory impulses from the tongue to the brain.

How would the Centers for Disease Control and
Prevention classify a disease that is constantly
present in a community?

Endemic

The organ that is divided into head, neck, body and
tail which lies posterior to the stomach is the:

pancreas

Third-degree burn tissue with a charred and pearly white appearance is called:

Eschar

Insertion of an intraaortic balloon pump is done to
treat patients with a/an:

Left ventricular failure. When a patient has left ventricular failure, an intraaortic balloon pump is inserted to provide circulatory support.

What procedure involves the excision of lymphoid
tissue superior to the soft palate to facilitate
breathing?

Adenoidectomy. An adenoidectomy is the removal of the lymphoid adenoids located at the roof of the nasopharynx and above the soft palate to ease breathing and prevent recurrent attacks of otitis media.

What is an indication for a total hip
arthroplasty?

Osteoarthritis. Patients with osteoarthritis, a type of degenerative joint disease, benefit from total hip arthroplasty.

What procedure do burr holes provide adequate exposure?

Subdural hematoma. Burr holes are placed in order to aspirate an abscess, introduce air into the lateral ventricles for ventriculography, or place a shunt.

The venous sinus at the junction of the sclera and
cornea is the:

Canal of Schlemm

The area of the bladder that is formed by the two
ureteral orifices and the urethral orifice is known as
the:

Trigone. A small triangular area of the bladder that is formed by the two openings of the ureters and the opening of the urethra is the trigone.

Which of the following defines enuresis?

Incontinence

What cardiac drug increases myocardial contractility?

Calcium chloride.

What specimen would not
be placed in a preservative solution?

Calculi. Any type of stones, renal or gallbladder, should be sent dry to pathology. Preservative solutions destroy the stones, making it impossible for pathological examination.

Which procedure can be performed to repair a
bucket-handle tear?

Meniscectomy.If a tear cannot be repaired by the placement of sutures, a meniscectomy is performed to remove the injured portion of the bucket-handle tear in the meniscus.

The prostate gland secretes:

Alkaline fluid. The prostate gland secretes an acidic liquid that contains citric acid, calcium and enzymes.

Which of the following terms describes abnormal
excessive development of the male breast?

Gynecomastia

What incision divides the linea
alba?

Vertical midline.

Dupuytren's disease is characterized by contraction
of the:

Palmar fascia

The structure anterior to the esophagus and
extending from the larynx to T-5 is the:

Trachea. The trachea is located anterior to the esophagus and extends from the larynx to the fifth thoracic vertebrae. It is a tubular passageway for air.

Which preoperative drug is delivered transdermally to
prevent postoperative nausea?

Scopolamine.

To prevent cross-contamination, masks should only
be removed by the:

Strings. To prevent crosscontamination, masks should be handled by the strings only, changed after every case, and promptly discarded in the proper receptacle.

What is one of four defects involved
in tetralogy of Fallot?

Right ventricular hypertrophy, an aorta that overrides the ventricular septal defect, pulmonary valve stenosis and ventricular septal defect are the four defects that are involved with tetralogy of Fallot.

What is used to instill contrast media
into the biliary system intraoperatively?

Cholangiocath

Where is central venous pressure measured?

Right atrium. Venous blood pressure within the right atrium is referred to as central venous pressure (CVP).

Salping/o is the root word for which anatomical
structure?

Fallopian tube.

The funnel-shaped distal opening of a fallopian tube
is the:

Infundibulum. The open funnelshaped distal end of each fallopian tube is the infundibulum that is surrounded by the fimbriae.

Which part of the microscope is most proximal to the
patient?
• A. Beam splitter
• B. Fiberoptics
• C. Binoculars
• D. Objective lens

Objective lens.

Which organ is responsible for the synthesis of many
of the coagulation factors?

Liver. The majority of coagulation factors are synthesized in the liver and released into blood plasma.

The acronym "MAC" denotes what type of anesthesia
care?

Monitored. MAC is an acronym for monitored anesthesia care, calling for the presence of an anesthesia provider.

Sterile dressing materials should be opened onto the
sterile backtable by the:

Circulator.The circulator is responsible for retrieving the sterile dressing materials, inspects the packaging and opens onto the sterile field.

Which ligament stabilizes the duodenojejunal angle?

Treitz

What disease causes the overproduction of
adrenaline?

Addison's

What condition results from an
uneven curvature of the cornea?

Myopia. Myopia results when either the eyeball is longer than normal, or imperfections occur in the lens or cornea.

What is the purpose of applying cricoid pressure?

Occlude the esophagus. During endotracheal intubation the anesthesia provider requests cricoid pressure to prevent gastric contents from entering the lungs and trachea. The pressure is maintained until the ET tube is in the correct position.

The purpose of the anesthesia machine soda lime
canister is to absorb:

Carbon dioxide.

What condition would a
posterior repair be performed?

Rectocele. A rectocele is the prolapse of the rectum into the vaginal vault. A rectocele can be viewed pushing against the posterior vaginal wall. An anterior and posterior repair is performed to repair a cystocele and rectocele.

What term is used to describe the back-and-forth
action of a power saw blade?

Reciprocating.

What term is used to describe the side-to-side motion
action of a power saw blade?

Oscillating

Which laser is used to coagulate bleeders during a
laparoscopic procedure?

CO2. A CO2 laser is used to coagulate bleeders during a laparoscopic procedure.

The amount of applied tension necessary to break a
suture is known as:

Tensile strength. Tensile strength refers to how much tension is
necessary to break a suture, but also refers to how long the suture retains its strength while a surgical wound is healing.

Which of the following types of dressings is used
when frequent wound inspections are necessary?

Montgomery straps. Montgomery straps often are used for abdominal procedures when the wound must be frequently inspected or dressings changed.

In the presence of infection, the absorption rate of
plain gut suture is:

Increased.Plain gut suture is usually not used in the presence of an infection, because it is absorbed faster.

The outermost covering of the brain and spinal cord
is the:

Dura mater.

What monitoring device is used to obtain indirect
arterial blood pressure?

Sphygmomanometer.

The internal mammary artery retractor would be used
in what procedure?

Coronary artery bypass with graft. Coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) is the revascularization of myocardium that has become ischemic due to stenotic or occluded coronary vessels. The internal mammary artery is sutured to the affected coronary artery at a point distal to the stenosis.

Which of the following anatomical structures is
involved in a hiatal hernia?

Stomach

What is the procedure for surgical repair of a cranial
defect?

Cranioplasty

Aqueous humor of the eye is found within the:

Anterior chamber

Which of the following congenital conditions is an
atypical communication of intracranial vessels?

Arteriovenous malformation. Arteriovenous malformations (AVMs) may be a result of trauma or congenital defect.

A triangular muscle that abducts the arm and covers
the shoulder is the:

Deltoid

What hemostatic agents is
contraindicated for use on bone?

Oxidized cellulose. Oxidized cellulose is not recommended for use on bone, unless immediately removed after hemostasis is achieved because it can interfere with bone regeneration.

What is the congenital abnormality that is
characterized by the presence of cerebrospinal fluid
and spinal nerves in a sac, protruding dorsally?

Myelomeningocele.

Glaucoma results from blockage of the:

Canal of Schlemm. Glaucoma is caused by the blockage of the canal of Schlemm by the iris thus preventing aqueous fluid to drain from the eye.

Which surgical procedure is performed to fuse a
joint?

Arthrodesis

The suffix meaning "surgical fixation of."

-desis

What is a non-crushing vascular
clamp?

Satinsky

Which fixation device is indicated for a femoral neck
fracture?

Cannulated screw

Which instrument is used during a keratoplasty?
• A. #11 knife blade
• B. Sphenoidal punch
• C. Westcott scissors
• D. Corneal trephine

Corneal trephine

What tunica would be found in a
blood vessel?

Intima.The tunica adventitia, tunica intima and tunica media are all layers of an artery.

Sperm is produced in the:

Seminiferous tubules

In which procedure would fine hooks of various angles be used?

Stapedectomy

Which duct carries bile from the liver and gallbladder
to the duodenum?

Common bile.

What is an endoscopic procedure of
the suspension of the bladder neck for treatment of stress incontinence?

Stamey procedure

What does the A represent in a V-A shunt procedure
for hydrocephalus?

Atrial. The ventriculoatrial shunt is a multi-hole draining catheter that is placed in order to drain cerebral spinal fluid in the treatment of hydrocephalus.

Which of the following terms refers to the removal of
facial wrinkles?

Rhytidectomy is another term for a facelift.

Emulsification of abnormal tissue during neurosurgical procedures is accomplished by the use of:

CUSA. A cavitron ultrasonic aspirator (CUSA) is a device that emits a variable ultrasonic energy field that emulsifies abnormal tissue while saving normal neural tissue.

What part of the three-layer dressing absorbs wound
secretions?

Intermediate.A three-layer dressing consists of an outer, intermediate and inner layer. The inner layer is nonadherent and its wicking action moves secretions away from the wound to be absorbed by the intermediate layer to reduce the chance of infection. The outer layer keeps the other layers in place.

Which is a agent for a mechanical method of hemostasis?

Bone wax. Is a sterile mixture of beeswax that is applied to the cut edges and surface of bone. The first scrub person will soften the bone wax by kneading it into small balls that are easy to apply to the bone.

The primary function of the large intestine is:

Absorption. A function of the large intestine is the absorption of water and electrolytes.

Which of the following drains is inserted during a
cholecystostomy?

Malecot. A cholecystostomy is performed when cholecystectomy is contraindicated. A Malecot or Pezzer drain is inserted into the gallbladder to facilitate drainage.

What is removed during a glossectomy?

Tongue. A glossectomy is excision of a portion of the tongue.

Where are intestinal anastomosis instruments placed
when using bowel technique?

In separate basin. After completion of the anastomosis, the instruments that came in contact with the bowel are placed in a separate basin away from the clean instruments that will be used for wound closure. This is part of the technique referred to as "bowel technique."

What personal protective equipment would the
surgical technologist wear during extracorporeal
shock wave lithotripsy?

Lead apron. A lead apron should be worn during an extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL), because it involves two X-ray beams crossing at the point of the stone.

Which peripheral nerve is decompressed in a carpal
tunnel release?

Median. Carpal tunnel syndrome is the result of compression
on the median nerve. A carpal tunnel release is performed to relieve the compression by the transverse ligament.

What type of catheter is used for continuous irrigation
and hemostasis of the bladder following a TURP?

3-way Foley. Continuous irrigation of the bladder following a TURP is accomplished by inserting an indwelling 3-way 24 Fr. 30 cc Foley balloon catheter. The balloon also applies pressure on the operative site to help reduce hemorrhaging.

Pancreatic digestive secretions are collected in the:

Duct of Wirsung. The duct of Wirsung is the main duct of the
pancreas.

What are parts of the stomach?

The fundus, antrum and the body are parts of the stomach.

What type of fracture result in several bony fragments?

Comminuted. A fracture with more than two pieces of bone fragment is a comminuted fracture; often a significant amount of tissue trauma is associated with this type of fracture.

Which heart valve has two cusps?

Mitral. The mitral valve is located between the left atrium and left ventricle.

In which anatomical structure does an inguinal hernia
defect occur?

Transversalis fascia. The defect in an inguinal hernia occurs in the transversalis muscle and fascia.

Which of the following clamps would not be found in
an intestinal tray?
• A. Allen
• B. Best
• C. Sarot
• D. Doyen

Sarot. The full name is Sarot bronchus clamp. It is found in a cardiothoracic instrument set.

Which procedure is performed to correct the
congenital deformity cheiloschisis?

Cleft lip repair. Cheiloschisis is a cleft lip and palatoschisis is a cleft palate. Cleft lip repair is performed to correct cheiloschisis.

What is a self-retaining retractor that has the most parts/attachments?

Bookwalter

The procedure of choice for a detached retina is a:

Scleral buckling. Scleral buckling is the commonly performed procedure to treat a detached retina when a buckle ("tire") is positioned to push on and close the retinal break.

What surgical instrument is a
vaginal speculum?

Auvard.

What term means a nonmalignant enlargement of the
prostate?

BPH. Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) is a nonmalignant enlargement of the prostate and is the preoperative diagnosis for a TURP.

What procedure restores function of a nerve by freeing it from adhesions?

Neurolysis

To obtain direct arterial pressure, the catheter is
inserted into which artery?

Radial. An indwelling catheter line is inserted to measure radial and femoral artery pressure.

Which scissors are commonly used to extend an
arteriotomy?

Potts-Smith. The 45° angled Potts-Smith scissors is the instrument of choice to extend the arteriotomy such as during a carotid endarterectomy.

Which is used to increase the size of a split-thickness
graft?

Mesh graft device. The split-thickness skin graft is placed on a plastic "carrier" and inserted into the mesh graft device that will expand the size of the skin graft.

Which procedure involves the surgical placement and
fixation of a testicle in the scrotum?

Orchiopexy. An orchiopexy is performed to treat testicular torsion and undescended testicle.

What procedure is a partial
gastrectomy?

Billroth I. A subtotal gastrectomy is called a Billroth I or II procedure.

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