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A circumstance that causes a sudden acute episode of a chronic disease to occur:

Precipitating factor.

Which of the following would be the most likely cause of an iatrogenic disease?

An unwanted effect of a prescribed drug.

Etiology is defined as the study of the:

Causes of a disease.

Apoptosis refers to:

Pre-programmed cell self-destruction.

A tissue in which the cells vary in size and shape and show increased mitotic figures would be called:

Dysplasia.

An acute episode of a chronic disease is called:

An exacerbation.

The manifestations of a disease are best defined as the:

Signs and symptoms of a disease.

The term cancer refers to:

Malignant neoplasm.

Cessation refers to an area of necrosis where:

Dead cells form a thick cheesy substance.

Hypertrophy of the heart would be related to:

An increase in the size of the individual cells.

Lack of exercise during an illness may cause skeletal muscles to undergo:

Atrophy.

When a group of cells in the body dies, the change is called:

Necrosis.

The best definition of the term prognosis is:

The predicted outcome or likelihood of recovery from a specific disease.

An abscess is an example of a:

Purulent exudate.

Patients taking glucocorticoids for long periods of time are likely to develop all of the following except:

Relief of fever.

Which of the following statements applies to fever?

It results from release of pyrogens into the circulation.

Chemical mediators released during the inflammatory response include:

Histamine and prostaglandins.

A serous exudate is best described as:

Watery, colorless exudate.

Healing of large areas of skin loss (including dermis and epidermis) would best take place through:

Covering area with biosynthetic skin substitute.

The characteristic appearance of a full thickness burn is:

Dry, firm, charred, or white surface.

Which of the following drugs relieves fever and pain, but is not an anti-inflammatory agent?

Acetaminophen.

The term leukocytosis means:

Increased white blood cells in the blood.

Indicators of a general inflammatory response would include:

Elevated c-reactive protein.

Scar tissue consists primarily of:

Collagen fibers.

The inflammatory responce is cause by:

Any tissue injury.

Mechanisms to bring an elevated body temperature down to the normal lever include:

General cutaneous vasodilation.

The warmth and redness related to the inflammatory response results from:

Increased blood flow into the area.

A major source of infection in burn areas is:

Microbes surviving in the hair follicles in the burn area.

During an inflammatory response, erythema is cause by:

Vasodilation in the area.

Edema or tissue swelling associated with inflammation results directly from:

Increased fluid and protein in the interstitial compartment.

What is the correct order of the following evens in the inflammatory response immediately after tissue injury?

3,2,5,1,and 4.

Application of ice to an injured knee reduces edema by:

Causing local vasoconstriction.

The process of phagocytosis involves the:

Ingestion of foreign material or cell debris by leukocytes.

Humoral immunity is mediated by:

B lymphocytes.

What does seroconversion mean in relation to HIV and AIDS.

Antibodies for HIV have been identified in the blood.

The role of memory cells is to:

Support the immune response by recognizing certain antigens.

Cytokines:

Activate and stimulate proliferation and B and T lymphocytes.

All of the following conditions frequently occur in AIDS patients except:

Polyarthritis.

Which cells are required to process and present antigens from foreign material as the intitial step in the immune response?

Macrophages.

Anaphaylaxis is considered a critical situation because:

Bronchoconstriction and systemic vasodilation develop rapidly.

Host-versus-graft disease refers to:

Transplant rejection by the recipient's immune system.

Distinguishing clinical features of a systemic lupus erythematosus include:

Inflammation in multiple organs.

Neutrophils are:

Primarily phagocytic cells.

Incompatible blood transfusions result in:

Hemolysis of erythrocytes.

Systemic lupus erythematosus is caused by:

Immune complex deposits of antinuclear antibodies.

A patient experienced an episode of influenza 6 months ago. A recent exposure to a mutated form of the same virus would result in:

A primary immune response.

Which type of immunity is provided by a vaccination?

Active artificial.

When an allergen binds with IgE antibodies on mast cells, resulting in release of chemical mediators, this reaction is called:

type I hypersensitivity

The target cells for HIV are the:

T-helper lymphocytes.

HIV infection impairs:

Both humoral and cell-mediated immunity.

An autoimmune disease means:

Failure of the immune system to distinguish self from nonself.

HIV is transmitted by:

Blood, semen, and vaginal secretions from and infected person.

A retrovirus such as HIV contains:

RNA and enzymes for its conversion.

The structure of a virus includes:

A protein coat and DNA or RNA.

The term 'nosocomial' infection means:

Infection acquired in a hospital or medical facility.

What does leukocytosis frequently indicate?

Presence of inflammation or infection.

The primary pathological effect of influenza virus is:

Inflammation and necrosis of the upper respiratory epithelium.

A bacterial endospore can:

Survive high temperatures and dry environment.

An anaerobe thrives and reproduces best in:

The absence of O2.

When do clinical signs of infection appear?

When the microbial colony is large enough to damage the host.

What does bacteremia refer to?

Small numbers of microbes temporarily present in the blood.

Opportunistic infection may develop when:

A member of resident flora migrates and colonizes a new location in the body.

Entamoeba histolytica is transmitted by:

Cysts in feces, contaminating food/water.

A broad-spectrum bactericidal agent would be expected to:

Destroy many gram positive and gram negative bacteria.

All types of microorganisms can be killed by proper use of:

Autoclaves.

Secondary infection may occur with administration of antibacterial drugs because the:

Balance of species in the resident flora is upset.

The principle of Universal Precautions is based on:

Assuming that all body fluids from all individuals are possible sources of infection.

The incubation period refers to the time period between:

Entry of the pathogen into the body and the first signs of infectious disease.

How do antiviral drugs act?

Reducing the rate of viral replication.

What are local signs of infection?

Pain, erythema, and swelling.

How does penicillin act as a bactericidal agent?

Interfering with cell-wall synthesis.

What does a vaccine contain?

Attenuated or dead pathogens of their toxins.

The most critical adverse effects of chemotherapy and radiation therapy include:

Thrombocytopenia and leukopenia.

Anti-angiogenesis drugs act on malignant tumor by:

Reduce blood flow and nutrient supply to tumor cells.

What are malignant neoplasms arising from connective tissue cells called?

Sarcomas.

Glucocorticoids are often prescribed during a course of chemotherapy and radiation because:

Inflammation around the tumor may be reduced.

The development of neutropenia during chemotherapy for cancer means:

The patient is at high risk for infection.

What is the spread of malignant cells through blood and lymph to distant sites called?

Metastasis.

What is a benign neoplasm originating from adipose tissue called?

Lipoma.

What type of cells tend to be damaged the most during chemotherapy and radiation treatments?

Epithelial cells.

What is the grading of newly diagnosed malignant tumors based on?

Degree of differentiation of the cells.

The process of carcinogenesis usually begins with:

In irreversible change in the cell DNA.

Why does ovarian cancer have a poor prognosis?

Specific signs rarely appear until after secondary tumors develop.

Radiation therapy destroys:

Primarily rapidly dividing cells.

Identify the common dose-limiting factor for chemotherapy:

Bone marrow depression.

One reason for staging a malignant tumor at the time of diagnosis is to:

Determine the best treatment and the prognosis.

A warning sign of possible cancer would be any of the following except:

Sudden development of fever, nausea, and diarrhea.

What does acidosis cause?

CNS depression and drowsiness.

What would a serum pH of 7.33 in a patient with kidney disease indicate?

Metabolic acidosis.

What is the slowest but most effective control for acid-base balance?

Kidneys.

Emphysema impairs expiration causing the acid-base imbalance:

Respiratory acidosis.

Which of the following is a manifestation of respiratory alkalosis?

Seizures.

Compensation for respiratory system depression due to anesthesia and sedation would be:

1, 2.

Young infants are more vulnerable to serious dehydration because of:

Limited renal compensation.

What is likely to cause metabolic acidosis?

Prolonged diarrhea.

What is a common causes of hyponatremia?

Excessive sweating.

When excessive lactic acid accumulates in the body, serum:

Bicarbonate ion levels decrease.

What would cause edema?

Increased capillary permeability.

What do both hypokalemia and hyperkalemia cause?

Cardiac arrhythmias.

What would be related to an elevated hematocrit?

Fluid deficit.

An anxiety attack often causes hyperventilation leading to

Decreased pCO2.

Insensible fluid loss refers to water lost through:

Perspiration and expiration.

How is scoliosis identified?

Uneven hips and shoulders.

What might fluid and electrolyte deficits in a patient with anorexia nervosa cause?

Cardiac arrhythmias.

Bulimia nervosa is characterized by:

Alternating binge eating and purging.

What is a lateral curvature of the spine called?

Scoliosis.

Acne vulgaris can best be described as an infection involving the:

Sebaceous glands and hair follicles.

What are common local signs of osteomyelitis?

A red, swollen area with pain that increases with movement.

Which statement applies to testicular cancer?

It often develops from untreated, undescended testes.

All of the following changes are associated with aging except:

Decreased secretion of hormones.

Predisposing factors to osteoporosis in older women include all of the following except:

Decreased parathyroid hormone.

What is a major factor leading to increased occurrence of cancer in the elderly?

Cumulative exposure to carcinogens.

Vision in the elderly may be impaired when the lens of the eye becomes larger and less elastic, resulting in:

Presbyopia.

Lung expansion in the elderly may be reduced because of decreased:

1,2, and 4.

Severe, prolonged stress may cause acute renal failure or stress ulcers to develop due to:

Prolonged vasoconstriction and ischemia.

During the stress response, glucocorticoids assist in:

Increasing blood glucose levels and stabilizing blood pressure.

Improved function of the heart and brain during a stress response results from:

2,3.

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