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David's body temperature rises far above normal during his surgery. Which of the following structures plays a role in regulating body temperature?

skin and skeletal muscle

The major cause of malignant hyperthermia is uncontrolled release of calcium into the sarcoplasm of muscle cells. What intracellular organelle functions to store and release calcium?

sarcoplasmic reticulum

Skeletal muscle contraction is calcium dependent. The protein ________ binds calcium and is part of the _________ myofilament.

troponin thin

During David's hyperthermic crisis, Dr. Hodges reports that he has an elevated level of exhaled carbon dioxide. Which ATP-generating metabolic pathway produces carbon dioxide as a by-product?

aerobic metabolism

Malignant hyperthermia causes a high demand for ATP within the muscle cells. If there is not enough ATP, muscles cannot relax. Which of the following events allows skeletal muscles to relax?

binding of ATP to myosin head

The drug Dantrolene treats malignant hyperthermia by blocking calcium release into the sarcoplasm and terminating skeletal muscle contractions. Which of the following statements best describes why skeletal muscle relaxes in the absence of calcium?

The active site on actin is blocked by tropomyosin.

During malignant hyperthermia, there is an increased amount of calcium released into the sarcoplasm of skeletal muscle cells. In a previous question you named the organelle which stores and releases calcium. Place in correct order the following events that must occur in the muscle cell before calcium is released from this organelle.
1. ACh molecules land on receptors on the motor end plate
2. an action potential reaches the synaptic terminal
3. calcium ions are released into the sarcoplasm
4. an action potential is generated and travels across the sarcolemma surface
5. acetylcholine is released into the synaptic cleft
6. the action potential travels down t tubules

2, 5, 1, 4, 6, 3

David's tight jaw muscles during surgery would mean that which of the following muscles is likely to be contracting without relaxing?

masseter, temporalis, and medial pterygoid

Jaw muscles tend to contract slowly over long periods of time. As such, which of the following are correct?

These muscle fibers are likely to be red in color. The jaw muscles have extensive capillary networks. The contraction speed of these muscle fibers is slow.

David's tight jaw muscles are not the same thing as having what people refer to as "lock jaw." Tetanus (lock jaw) is caused by the bacterium Clostridium tetani. Which ONE of the following choices is the most likely source of this organism?

deep puncture wound

During which phase of a muscle twitch are active sites on thin filaments exposed, and cross-bridge interactions occur?

contraction phase

Which of the following occurs during the relaxation phase of a muscle twitch?

Calcium levels are falling.

The rapid rise and fall in force produced by a muscle fiber after a single action potential is

a twitch

When a muscle is stimulated repeatedly at a high rate, the amount of tension gradually increases to a steady maximum tension, and a higher stimulation frequency eliminates the relaxation phase. This is called

complete tetanus

If a second stimulus arrives before the relaxation phase has ended, a second, more powerful contraction occurs. This is called

wave summation.

A single motor neuron together with all the muscle fibers it innervates is called

a motor unit.

The increase in muscle tension that is produced by increasing the number of active motor units is called

recruitment.

In which of the following would the motor units have the fewest muscle fibers?

muscles that control the eyes

Creatine phosphate

acts as an energy reserve in muscle tissue.

During anaerobic glycolysis

ATP is produced, pyruvic acid is produced and oxygen is not consumed

Which of these would lead to increased oxygen consumption?

increased conversion of lactic acid to glucose, increased aerobic respiration by muscle cells, increased heat production, increased muscle activity

Which of the following is/are characteristic(s) of Type II-A skeletal muscle fibers?

They are known as fast-twitch oxidative fibers.

The type of muscle fiber that is most resistant to fatigue is the ________ fiber.

slow

Large-diameter, densely packed myofibrils, large glycogen reserves, and few mitochondria are characteristics of

fast fibers

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding human muscles?

Slow fibers are abundant in the back muscles. Eye muscles are composed entirely of fast fibers. Most have both slow and fast fibers. Slow fibers are abundant in the calf muscles.

Polio:

is a viral disease that attacks motor neurons in the spinal cord and brain.

Tetanus is most likely to result from which condition?

a deep puncture wound, such as that from a nail

Which of the following hormones directly stimulates growth of muscle tissue, leading to increased muscle mass?

testosterone

After death, muscle fibers run out of ATP and calcium begins to leak from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm. This results in a condition known as

rigor mortis.

The muscle weakness of myasthenia gravis results from

loss of acetylcholine receptors in the end-plate membrane.

Which of the following acts as an ATPase during the contraction cycle of muscle?

the head portion of the myosin molecule

What causes the release of calcium from the terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum within a muscle cell?

arrival of an action potentia

The binding of calcium to which molecule causes the myosin binding sites to be exposed?

troponin

A myosin head binds to which molecule to form a cross bridge?

actin

What causes the myosin head to disconnect from actin?

binding of ATP

What energizes the power stroke?

hydrolysis of ATp

The most important factor in decreasing the intracellular concentration of calcium ion after contraction is

active transport of calcium into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

In response to action potentials arriving along the transverse tubules, the sarcoplasmic reticulum releases

calcium ions.

Which of the following become connected by myosin cross-bridges during muscle contraction?

thin filaments and thick filaments

When calcium ion binds to troponin,

tropomyosin moves into the groove between the helical actin strands.

Each skeletal muscle fiber is controlled by a motor neuron at a single

neuromuscular junction.

The neuromuscular junction is a connection between a neuron and a __________.

muscle fiber

The end of a neuron that contains acetylcholine-filled vesicles is called the __________.

synaptic terminal

What is the synaptic cleft?

the space between the synaptic terminal and the motor end plate

Inside a neuron, acetylcholine is contained within __________.

vesicles

What causes the vesicles inside a neuron to fuse with the plasma membrane?

an action potential in the neuron

Acetylcholine receptors are primarily located __________.

on the motor end plate

Curare is a poison that prevents acetylcholine from binding to acetylcholine receptors. Which of the following is the most likely cause of death from curare exposure?

paralysis of skeletal muscles

An action potential in the muscle fiber causes __________.

the muscle fiber to contract

The role of acetylcholinesterase in the neuromuscular junction is to __________.

remove acetylcholine from the synaptic cleft

Since each myofibril is attached at either end of the muscle fiber, when sarcomeres shorten, the muscle fiber

shortens.

Interactions between actin and myosin filaments of the sarcomere are responsible for

muscle contraction.

Mature skeletal muscle fibers:

individually contain hundreds of nuclei just internal to the plasma membrane.

The region of the sarcomere containing the thick filaments is the

A band

Which thin filament structure is distinguished by its constituents of three globular subunits, one of which has a receptor that binds two calcium ions?

troponin

Determine the correct structural hierarchy of skeletal muscles, from microscopic to gross levels.

myofibril - fiber - fascicle - muscle

How is the H band distinguished from the other prominent structural features of the sarcomere?

It is a lighter region that contains thick filaments, but no thin filaments.

Cross-bridges are portions of

myosin molecules

Which of the following best describes the term sarcomere?

repeating unit of striated myofibrils

The plasma membrane of skeletal muscle is called the

sarcolemma.

Which statement about the microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle fibers is true?

Each fiber has many nuclei. Muscle fibers are continuous from tendon to tendon. Cross striations result from the lateral alignment of thick and thin filaments. Tubular extensions of the sarcolemma penetrate the fiber transversely.

Which statement is correct regarding thick filament structure?

It consists of a core of titin, forming a strand that continues across the I band to the Z line on that side

The dense layer of connective tissue that surrounds an entire skeletal muscle is the

epimysium

The thin filaments of striated muscle are made of which protein(s)?

actin, tropomyosin, nebulin, troponin

The skeletal muscle complex known as the triad consists of

a transverse tubule and two terminal cisternae.

The advantage of having many nuclei in a skeletal muscle fiber is

the ability to produce large amounts of the muscle proteins needed for muscle contraction.

Which of the following is a recognized function of skeletal muscle?

maintain posture, guard body entrances and exits, maintain body temperature, produce movement

Which of the following best describes the term Z line?

thin filaments are anchored here

The region of the sarcomere that always contains thin filaments is the

I band

At rest, active sites on the actin are blocked by

tropomyosin molecules.

The bundle of collagen fibers at the end of a skeletal muscle that attaches the muscle to bone is called a(n

tendon.

One of Mrs. Morgan's fractures is described as being located on the proximal diaphysis. Which of these phrases best describes the anatomical location of this fracture?

shaft of the bone closest to the shoulder joint

Mrs. Morgan's fracture is described as having "bone tissue sticking out of the skin." This could make her susceptible to which of the following complications?

osteomyelitis

Mrs. Morgan's fracture has not developed a soft callus. Which type of cartilage is her body having trouble forming?

fibrocartilage

A depressed fracture is _______.

one in which broken bone fragments are displaced inward

One way bones are classified is by their shape. How would you classify the bones fractured by Mrs. Morgan?

humerus - long; occipital - flat; vertebrae - irregular

What type of fracture occurred to Mrs. Morgan's humerus?

compound

With such a fall, Mrs. Morgan could have also dislocated her shoulder joint. Which of the following terms specifically refers to a shoulder dislocation?

luxation of the humerus

Mrs. Morgan also had a tooth knocked out of its socket. (Yes it was a bad day!) Which of the following terms best describes the articulation of a tooth in its bony socket?

synarthrosis and gomphosis

An immovable joint is a(n)

synarthrosis.

A slightly movable joint is a(n)

amphiarthrosis.

A freely movable joint is a(n)

diarthrosis.

Which of these is one of the four major types of synarthrotic joints?

synchondrosis, gomphosis, suture, synostosis

A synovial joint is an example of a(n)

diarthrosis.

An epiphyseal line is an example of a

synostosis.

Which bony structure(s) is/are continuous with the capsule of the joint, adding strength and helping to stabilize the joint?

periosteum

The elbow joint is an example of a(n) ________ joint.

hinge

The joint between the trapezium and metacarpal bone of the thumb is an example of a(n) ________ joint.

saddle

The joint that permits the greatest range of mobility of any joint in the body is the ________ joint.

shoulder

The intercarpal articulations are ________ joints.

gliding

The ankle joint is an example of a(n) ________ joint

hinge

Which of the following joints is an example of a ball-and-socket joint?

shoulder

An extension past the anatomical position is known as

hyperextension

Which of the following movements is a good example of flexion?

moving the hand toward the shoulder

Which special movement of the clavicles occurs when one crosses one's arms?

protraction

An open or ________ fracture projects through the skin.

compound

While on a school skiing trip in Colorado, Heidi falls and breaks her tibia and fibula in a Pott fracture. What would you expect as a prominent part of her clinical assessment several hours after the fall?

hematoma

The intestinal response to PTH stimulation is which of the following?

Calcium is absorbed quickly.

A lack of exercise could

result in porous and weak bones.

Elevated levels of calcium ion in the blood stimulate the secretion of the hormone

calcitonin.

Which type of fracture occurs in vertebrae that are subjected to extreme stresses?

compression fracture

After a fracture of the diaphysis has healed, the thickened region that results is called the

external callus.

C cells of the thyroid gland secrete which of the following?

calcitonin

Which of the following describes spiral fractures?

fractures that are produced by twisting stresses that spread along the length of the bone

Bone plays a central role in the regulation of blood levels of

calcium

________ fractures are completely internal; they do not break through the skin.

closed

Which condition, due to excessive cartilage formation at the epiphyseal cartilages, results in individuals who are very tall, with long, slender limbs?

Marfan syndrome

What characteristic may cause life-threatening issues in individuals with Marfan syndrome?

genetic mutation that affects the structure of connective tissue throughout the body

Ectopic bones may occur in which of the following conditions?

FOP

At puberty

osteoblasts begin producing bone faster than chondrocytes are producing new epiphyseal cartilage.

Endochondral ossification begins with the formation of a(n)

cartilage model

The following are important steps in the process of endochondral ossification.
1. Enlarged chondrocytes die.
2. Osteoblasts replace calcified cartilage with spongy bone.
3. Chondrocytes enlarge and the surrounding matrix begins to calcify.
4. Blood vessels penetrate the cartilage.
5. Perichondrial cells become osteoblasts and produce a thin shell of bone.

3, 1, 5, 4, 2.

During appositional growth

bones grow wider.

To form perforating fibers, osteoblasts from the periosteum cement collagen fibers from tendons, ligaments, and joint capsules into which structures?

circumferential lamellae

What structure allows a bone to grow in length?

epiphyseal cartilages

When cartilage is produced at the epiphyseal side of the metaphysis at the same rate as bone is deposited on the opposite side, bones

grow longer.

Excessive growth hormone prior to puberty could result in

gigantism.

In appositional bone growth, how are layers of compact bone added to the bone's outer surface?

Bone is deposited by superficial osteoblasts.

The following are major steps in the process of intramembranous ossification.
1. Clusters of osteoblasts form osteoid that becomes mineralized.
2. Osteoblasts differentiate within mesenchymal connective tissue.
3. Spicules of bone radiate out from the ossification centers.
4. Mesenchymal cells aggregate.

4, 2, 1, 3.

Which of the following is formed by intramembranous ossification?

both the roof of the skull and the clavicle

Secondary ossification centers occur

in the epiphyses.

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