Bio 242 Final Exam

Created by mashara_Sieg16 

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The response target cell to a hormone depends on which of the following?

a. concentration of the hormone

b. concentration of receptors

c. affinity of the receptor for the hormone

d. a & c

e. a, b, & c

Answer:
a, b & c

Given the following observations:

1. A hormone will affect only a specific tissue (i.e., a hormone will not affect all tissues.)

2. A tissue can respond to more than one hormone.

3. Some tissues can respond rapidly to a hormone while others take many hours to respond.

Which observation can be explained by hormone receptors?

Answer:
2 & 3

Endocrine organs can be regulated by all of the following, except______.

a. hormones from other endocrine glands.

b. changes in the genetic makeup of certain hypothalamic cells

c. direct neural stimulation

d. changes in the composition of the blood

e. regulatory hormones from the hypothalamus

Answer:
changes in the genetic makeup of certain hypothalamic cells

Hormones (1) generally utilize negative feedback mechanisms to regulate their secretion; (2) will only affect target cells far removed from the hormone-producing secretory cells; (3) must bind to transport proteins in order to circulate in the blood; (4) may be released in low concentrations but can produce large effects in the target cells; (5) can affect the responsiveness of the target tissue by controlling the number of receptor sites for the hormone.

Answer:
1, 4, & 5

The class adrenal gland hormones that provides resistance to stress, produces anti-inflammatory effects, and promotes normal metabolism to ensure adequate quantities of ATP is _______.

Answer:
glucocorticoids

Cyclic-AMP (cAMP) functions to _______.

Answer:
c. open ion channels and activate key enzymes in the cytoplasm

The cell bodies of neurosecretory cells capable of releasing ADH are located in the _______.

Answer:
hypothalamus

One of the least complicated of the endocrine control systems directly responds to changing blood levels of ions and nutrients. Which of the following describes this mechanism?

Answer:
humoral stimulation

Which statement(s) is/are true of classic hormones?

a. Hormones act on target cells and tissues.

b. Very small quantities of hormones are highly effective.

c. Tissues that are not solely endocrine glands can produce hormones.

d. Hormones are transported via the blood.

e. All of the above are true.

Answer:
e. All of the above are true.

Cells that respond to peptide hormones usually do so through a sequence of biochemical reactions involving receptor and kinase activation. In order for cells to respond, it is necessary for first and second messengers to communicate. This is possible because_______.

Answer:
G protein acts as the link between first and second messengers

The rate of hormonal secretion of epinephrine is primarily controlled by ________.

Answer:
the nervous system

Increased levels of phosphodiesterase in target cells would decrease the activity of _________.

Answer:
FSH

What is likely to cause an increase in intercellular cAMP levels?

Answer:
stimulation of adenylate cyclase activity

In general, steroid hormones function as________.

Answer:
hormones

Which form of thyroid hormone has greater activity at target cells?

Answer:
T₃

Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) stimulates the release of what from the anterior pituitary?

a. sex hormones

b. FSH

c. both a & b

d. a, b, & c

Answer:
c. both a & b

In primary hyposecretion of thyroid hormones_______.

Answer:
levels of thyroid hormones in the blood decrease

Which of the following is not a category of water-soluble hormones?

a. peptides

b. amines

c. eicosanoids

d. steroids

e. proteins

Answer:
d. steroids

The most complex and diverse endocrine responses involve the ______.

Answer:
hypothalamus

What is an example of permissiveness?

Answer:
Estrogen stimulates synthesis if progesterone receptors in the endometrium.

Exocrine glands secrete hormones.

Answer:
False

Neural input to the hypothalamus is involved in regulating the secretion of hormones by both lobes of the pituitary gland.

Answer:
True

Epinephrine is secreted by the adrenal cortex.

Answer:
False

Thyroid hormones are classified as amines.

Answer:
True

Calcitonin is secreted by the thyroid gland.

Answer:
True

If the effect of two or more hormones acting together is greater than the sum of each acting alone, then the two hormones are said to have a permissive effect.

Answer:
False

IN the direct gene activation mechanism of hormone action, the hormone enters the target cell and binds to an intercellular receptor. The activated receptor-hormone complex then alters a second messenger system to produce the protein that causes the physiological responses that are characteristics of the hormone.

Answer:
False

An atherosclerotic deposit that blocked blood flow in the hypophyseal portal system would cause the testes and ovaries to malfunction.

Answer:
True

The hypophyseal portal system_________.

Answer:
carries hormones form the hypothalamus to the adenohypophysis

Which of the following steps occurs thirdly?

a. adenylate phosphate cyclase is activated

b. receptor sites are stimulated on the target

c. increases on cAMP concentrations

d. ATP breakdown

Answer:
d. ATP breakdown

Which of one of the following is incorrect with regard to oxytocin?

a. It is synthesized by the posterior pituitary.

b. It stimulates contraction of the smooth muscles of the uterus.

c. It aids in ejection of milk during lactation.

d. It may play a role in bonding and social interactions.

e. All of the above are correct.

Answer:
a. It is synthesized by the posterior pituitary.

Tropic hormones______.

Answer:
include ACTH and TSH

Which of the following statements concerning hormones is true?

a. A hormone that combines with a membrane-bound receptor is acting as the first messenger.

b. Hormones that stimulate the synthesis of 2ⁿᵈ messenger molecules often produce a delayed response.

c. Hormones that are lipid soluble bind to receptors on the cell membranes's surface.

Answer:
a. A hormone that combines with a membrane-bound receptor is action as the first messenger.

The neurohypophysis is not a true endocrine gland because________.

a. it is strictly a part of the neural system and has little or nothing to do with hormonal release

b. embryonically it was an endocrine tissue, but in the adult human it is no longer functional

c. it is unable to function as an endocrine tissue because it is actually part of the neural system due to its location

d. it is only a hormone storage area that receives hormones from the hypothalamus for release

e. Two of the above are not true.

Answer:
e. Two of the above are not true.

If both ACTH and cortisol levels increase, which of the following would occur?

a. ACTH production is increased even more by positive feedback.

b. High cortisol levels will begin to cause ACTH levels to decline.

c. High ACTH levels will begin to cause cortisol levels to decline.

Answer:
b. High cortisol levels will begin to cause ACTH levels to decline.

Concerning the half-life of hormones,______.

a. lipid-soluble hormones generally have a longer half-life

b. hormones with shorter half-lives regulate body action more precisely than hormones with longer half-lives

c. hormones with a longer half-life are maintained at more constant levels in the blood

d. all of the above

Answer:
d. all of the above

Given the following list of molecule types:
1. amino acids derivatives

2. fatty acid (lipid) derivatives

3. polypeptides

4. proteins

5. steroids

Of the molecule types listed, which include hormones (both classic and local)?

Answer:
1, 2, 3, 4, & 5

The deflection waves in an ECG tracing include______.

Answer:
the T-wave, which indicates ventricular repolarization

The fibrous pericardium_______.

Answer:
forms the outer layer of the percardium

Which of these structures return the blood to the right atrium?

a. coronary sinus

b. inferior vena cava

c. superior vena cava

d. both b & c

e. a, b, & c

Answer:
e. a, b, & c

The first heart sound is heard when the _______.

Answer:
AV valves close

If the aorta was not an elastic artery, there would be________.

Answer:
large decreases in the diastolic pressure in the system circulation

Blood flows neither into nor out of the ventricles during_______.

a. the period of isovolumetric contraction

b. the period of isovolumetric relaxation

c. ventricular systole

d. a & b

e. a, b, & c

Answer:
d. a & b

According to the Frank-Starling's law of the heart, the cardiac output is directly related to the ________.

Answer:
venous return

When the semilunar valves are open, the pressure in the left ventricle is_________.

Answer:
greater than the pressure in the aorta

Pressure in the aorta is at its lowest______.

Answer:
just before the semilunar valves

Select the correct statement about cardiac output.

a. A slow hear rate can increase end diastolic volume, stroke volume, and force of contraction.

b. Decreased venous return return will result in increased end diastolic volume.

c. If a semilunar valve were partially obstructed, the ESV in the affected ventricle would be decreased.

d. Stroke volume increases if end diastolic volume decreases.

e. Two of the statements above are correct about cardiac output.

Answer:
a. A slow heart rate can increase end diastolic volume, stroke volume, and force of contraction.

In capillary exchange, which of the following statements is true?

a. Nine-tenths (9/10) of the fluid that leave the capillary reenters the capillary.

b. Interstitial fluid normally has a high osmotic pressure that plasma (fluid portion of the blood).

c. Constriction of the precapillary sphincter will increase blood pressure in the capillary.

d. Protein concentration in the interstitial spaces is normally higher than protein concentration in the plasma.

e. Two of the above are correct statements.

Answer:
a. Nine-tenths (9/10) of the fluid that leave the capillary reenters the capillary.

Blood flow through the capillary beds can be controlled by_____.

a. the metabolic needs of tissues

b. the precapillary sphincter

c. an increase in vasodilator substances

d. any two of the preceding

e. a, b, & c

Answer:
e. a, b, & c

Which of the following properties of capillaries enhances the exchange that occurs between the capillaries and the interstitial spaces?

a. the thinness if the capillary wall

b. the extensive branching if the capillaries

c. the blood velocity through the capillaries

d. a & b

e. a, b, & c

Answer:
e. a, b, & c

Which coat of an artery contains endothelium?

Answer:
tunica intima

As blood travels from the aorta toward the capillaries, the_________.

Answer:
resistance increases

The blood osmotic pressure is most affected by changes in________.

Answer:
the concentration of plasma proteins

Baroreceptors that function in the regulation of blood pressure are located in the________.

Answers:
carotid sinus

In response to hemorrhage (severe blood loss), there is_________.

Answer:
mobilization of the venous reserve

The tricuspid valve is closed_______.

Answer:
when the ventricles are systole

Which one of the following listed is pierced thirdly by the point of a pin entering the body from the outside?

a. pericardial fluid

b. visceral pericardium

c. parietal pericardium

d. myocardium

Answer:
b. visceral pericardium

Which of the following structures does not open into or out of the left side of the heart?

a. aorta

b. pulmonary veins

c. pulmonary trunk

d. a & b

e. a, b, & c

Answer:
c. pulmonary trunk

The pectinate muscles are ________.

Answer:
prominent muscular ridges in the walls of the right atrium and auricle

Sympathetic stimulation of the heart________.

a. increases the heart rate

b. increases the contractility of the heart

c. activates the Frank-Starling effect

d. a & b

e. a, b, & c

Answer:
e. a, b, & c

Ventricular pressure is greatest when______.

Answer:
all valves are open

Which of the following is greater?

a. the number of action potential per minute spontaneously generated by the SA node

b. the number of action potentials per minute spontaneously generated by the AV node

c. Neither is greater under resting conditions.

Answer:
a. the number of action potential per minute spontaneously generated by the SA node

Manganese ion blocks the calcium channels in the cardiac muscle membrane. How would the presence of the manganese in the extracellular fluid affect the contraction of the heart muscle?

Answer:
The heart would beat less forcefully.

At an intercalated disc _________.

Answer:
two cardiac cells are connected by a gap junction

In the cardiac cycle, ___________.

Answer:
the two atria relax while the two ventricles contract

Cardiac muscle does not exhibit tetanus because it has_________.

Answer:
a long absolute refractory period

The atria contract during_________.

Answer:
after the P-wave

A person with a systolic blood pressure of 140 mmHg and a diastolic pressure of 95 mmHg would have a mean arterial pressure of about _________.

Answer:
110 mmHg

Plasma solutes enter the tissue fluid most easily from __________.

Answer:
fenestrated capillaries

A blood vessel adapted to withstand a high pulse pressure would be expected to have_______.

Answer:
an elastic tunica media

Contraction of the papillary muscles_________.

Answer:
prevent the AV valves from projecting into the atria

The blood vessels that play the most important role in the regulation of blood flow to a tissue and blood pressure are the _______.

Answer:
arterioles

In a case where interstitial hydrostatic pressure is essentially zero, the only force causing capillaries to reabsorb fluid is_______.

Answer:
colloid osmotic pressure of the blood

Which one of the following does not have the same effect as other listed on heart rate and the force of contraction?

a. epinephrine

b. norepinephrine

c. sympathetic stimulation

d. acetylcholine

Answer:
d. acetylcholine

With the progressive change from arteries to capillaries, which of the following listed is not true?

a. there is a decrease in the diameter of the vessels

b. there is a decrease in the thickness of the wall of the vessels

c. there is an increase in the velocity at which the blood travels through the vessels

d. there is a decrease in the pressure within the vessels

Answer:
c. there is an increase in the velocity at which the blood travels through the vessels

The goal of cardiovascular regulation includes all of the following except to ensure that___________.

a. blood flow changes occur at the appropriate time

b. blood flow changes occur in the appropriate area

c. changes occur without drastically altering blood pressure

d. sufficient concentrations of blood cells are present to meet emergency situations

e. changes occur without drastically altering blood flow to a vital organ

Answer:
d. sufficient concentrations of blood cells are present to meet emergency situations

Which of the following statements regarding intrinsic regulation of the heart is false?

a. Stretching the SA node will increase generation of action potentials in the node.

b. Elevated venous return increases cardiac output.

c. The heart's pumping effectiveness is greatly influenced by small changes in afterload.

d. If cardiac muscle fibers are stretched, they have a stronger contraction force.

Answer:
c. The heart's pumping effectiveness is greatly influenced by small changes in afterload.

I.P. Daily suffers from a regurgitating ["backwash"] mitral valve. This condition could cause______.

Answer:
fluid congestion in the lungs

Approximately what percentage of ventricular filling is a accomplished passively?

Answer:
75%

A heart rate of 45 BPM (beats per minute) and an absence of P waves would suggest________.

Answer:
heart block

There are no valves at the point where venous blood into the atria.

Answer:
True

The process of cyclic changes in vessel diameter that occurs at he origin of a capillary is called vasomotion.

Answer:
True

The "lub" sounds of the heat are valuable in diagnosis because they provide information about the function of the heart's semilunar valves.

Answer:
False

Osmotic pressure is created by the presence in a fluid of small diffusible molecules that easily move through the capillary membrane.

Answer:
False

The capillaries contain only about 5% of the total blood volume at any point in time.

Answer:
True

The atria and ventricles each act as a functional syncytium.

Answer:
True

Which of the following is not a function of the lymphatic system?

1. draining the interstitial fluid

2. transporting large quantities of proteins

3. transporting dietary fats

4. protecting against invasion of microbes

5. carries out the immune response

Answer:
2 only

Which of the following are considered nonspecific defense responses of the body?

a. mechanical barriers

b. fever

c. phagocytosis

d. inflammation

e. a, b, c, & d

Answer:
e. a, b, c, & d

During erythrocyte destruction, the iron from hemoglobin ultimately end up in which one of the following?

a. bilirubin

b. globin

c. erythropoietin

d. heme

e. transferrin

Answer:
e. transferrin

This cell releases cytokines to activate B-lymphocytes, increase the activity of macrophages, and in general regulates the overall immune system.

Answer:
helper T-cells

Which of these conditions does not does not occur during inflammatory response?

a. histamine and other chemical mediators are released

b. clotting proteins enter tissue form the blood

c. increase permeability of blood vessels

d. chemotaxis of phagocytes

e. vasoconstriction of blood vessels

Answer:
e. vasoconstriction of blood vessels

A surface chemical or secretion that destroys bacteria is_______.

Answer:
lysozome

Non-motile, histamine-releasing cells that are derived form bone marrow and found in connective tissue near potential sites of microbial entry are_______.

Answer:
mast cells

MHC molecules_______.

a. are glycoproteins

b. have a variable region that can bind to foreign and self-antigen

c. may form an MHC/antigen complex that activates T-cells

d. attach to plasma membrane

e. all of the preceding

Answer:
e. all of the preceding

Which of the following is not a function of plasma proteins?

a. facilitating retention if fluid in the blood vessels

b. playing a role in blooding clotting

c. transporting H₂O-insoluble substances in the blood

d. serving as antibodies

e. transporting O₂ in the blood

Answer:
e. transporting O₂ in the blood

The MHC Class I/antigen complex displays a foreign AG. This prompts the immune system to _________.

Answer:
destroy the displaying cell

Which of these participates in co-stimulation?

a. cytokines

b. complement

c. antibodies

d. APC surface receptors

e. NK cells

Answer:
d. APC surface receptors

An elevated neutrophil count is usually indicative of _________.

Answers:
a bacteria infection

Which one of the following is not true?

a. the protein of a hemoglobin is called globin

b. oxygen is carried by the heme portion of hemoglobin

c. carbon dioxide can reversibly bind with the heme portion of hemoglobin

d. most of the oxygen transported per liter of blood is carried by the hemoglobin molecules

e. two of the preceding are not true

Answer:
c. carbon dioxide can reversibly bind with the heme portion of hemoglobin

___________ can become immunogenic by binding to larger host molecules.

Answer:
Haptens

The binding of an antigen to an antibody can result in _________.

a. neutralization of the antigen

b. agglutination or precipitation

c. complement activation and opsonization

d. a & b

e. a, b, & c

Answers:
e. a, b, & c

Both interstitial fluid and lymph are similar in composition t plasma except that interstitial fluid and lymph have less protein than plasma.

Answer:
Both statements are correct.

A virus is injected into a rabbit and the rabbit is allowed to make antibodies to the viral antigen. These antibodies are then removed from the rabbit plasma and injected into a human to help deal with the same viral disease. This injection would be an example of __________ acquired immunity.

Answer:
passive, artificially

Which sequence is correct for the following events?

1. fibrinogen → fibrin

2. clot retraction

3. formation of prothrombin activator

4. prothrombin → thrombin

Answer:
3, 4, 1, & 2

The function of CD4 and CD8 proteins is to assist T-cells in _________.

Answer:
the coupling during Ag recognition

Toll-like receptors (TLRs) trigger the release of ______ to attract white blood cells to the injury scene.

Answer:
cytokines

If a person's bone marrow were destroyed by radiation, which if the following cell could not be produced?

a. B-cells

b. T-cells

c. erythrocytes

d. neutrophils

e. all of the preceding

Answer:
e. all of the preceding

The following are steps in the cell-mediated immune response:
1. Several cycles of mitosis occur

2. Antigen is engulfed and presented by a macrophage

3. Cytotoxic T-cells migrate to area of infection

4. Undifferentiated T-cell with specific receptors recognize the antigen

5. T-cells differentiate into cytotoxic T-cells and T-memory cells

6. Cytotoxic T-cells release perforins

The correct sequence for these steps is________.

Answer:
2, 4, 1, 5, 3, & 6

Fred Fibula's blood was determined to be AB positive. What does this mean?

Answer:
There are no antibodies to A antigen, to B antigen or to Rh antigens in the plasma.

No visible cytoplasmic granules are present in _________.

Answer:
monocytes

Which of the following might trigger erythropoiesis?

a. moving to a higher altitude

b. an increased number of RBCs (red blood cells)

c. decreased renal blood flow

d. decreased tissue demand for oxygen

e. two of the preceding

Answer:
e. two of the preceding

Which of the following would not be classified as a lymphatic structure?

a. tonsils

b. spleen

c. pancreas

d. BALT

e. MALT

Answer:
c. pancreas

Peyer's patch are found in the________.

Answer:
small intestine

Select the correct statement about lymphoid tissue.

a. Once a lymphocyte enters the lymphoid tissue, it resides there permanently.

b. Lymphoid macrophages secrete antibodies into blood.

c. Lymphoid tissues is predominantly reticular connective tissue.

d. Helper-T lymphocytes act by ingesting foreign substances.

e. two of the above are correct statements are correct about lymphoid tissue.

Answer:
c. Lymphoid tissues is predominantly reticular connective tissue.

Functions of the spleen include_______.

a. storage of platelets

b. removal of old RBCs (red blood cells)

c. WBC (white blood cell) proliferation

d. a & b

e. a, b, & c

Answer:
e. a, b, & c

Platelets_______.

a. are derived from megakaryocytes

b. are cell fragments

c. have surface molecules that attach to collagen

d. a & b

e. a, b, & c

Answer:
e. a, b, & c

B-cells are most effectively activated by the activities of ________.

Answer:
Tʜ2 cells

Endogenous antigens are usually associated with__________.

Answer:
MHC-Class I proteins

Perforins are proteins associated with activity of _________.

a. Cytotoxic T-cells

b. Natural killer cells

c. B-cells

d. Grunge rock bands.

e. Two of the above are correct.

Answer:
e. Two of the above are correct.

Which of the following is not true of antibodies?

a. there are produced by cells found in lymphoid organs

b. they are produced in response to specific antigens

c. they may function by enhancing phagocytosis of the specific invading substance

d. they may function by directly combining with the specific substance

e. all of the above are true of antibodies

Answer:
e. all of the above are true of antibodies

Cytotoxic T-cells

Answer:
both innate and adaptive immunity

Requires duel binding of a lymphocyte with both foreign antigen and self antigens present on the surface of a host cell

Answer:
both humoral and cell-mediated immunity

Involved in rejection if the transplanted tissue

Answer:
primarily cell-mediated immunity

Directly destroys targeted cells

Answer:
both innate and adaptive immunity

Involves formation of memory cells in response to initial exposure to antigen

Answer:
both humoral and cell-mediated immunity

Triggered by the binding of specific antigens to complementary lymphocyte receptors

Answer:
both humoral and cell-mediated immunity

Involves a family of proteins that defend against viral infection

Answer:
primarily involved in innate immunity

A response to tissue injury in which neutrophils and macrophages play a major role

Answer:
primarily involved in innate immunity

A group of plasma proteins that, when activated, bring about the destruction foreign cells by attacking their plasma membranes

Answer:
both innate and adaptive immunity

CD8s

Answer:
both innate and adaptive immunity

Cytokines

Answer:
both innate and adaptive immunity

Class I MHC proteins

Answer:
both innate and adaptive immunity

Clonal selectoin

Answer:
both humoral and cell-mediated immunity

causes platelets to aggregate in positive-feedback fashion

Answer:
ADP

fibrinolytic enzyme

Answer:
plasmin

inhibits platelet aggregation

Answer:
prostacyclin

In reference to genetic makeup of the blood, how many genotypes are normally possible?

Answer:
six

Frank Fibroblast has type A blood, meaning that he________.

Answer:
will have transfusion reaction if given type B blood

A helper-T cell can only bind to another cell that has __________.

Answer:
MHC-II proteins

Select the correct statement about antigens.

a. "self-antigens" is another name for incomplete antigens.

b. The largest type of antigen is called a Hapten.

c. Only small antigens exhibit reactively.

d. One antigen may have many different antigenic determinants and may therefore cause the formation of more than one antibody.

e. Two of the above are correct statements about antigens.

Answer:
d. One antigen may have many different antigenic determinants and may therefore cause the formation of more than one antibody.

The only immunoglobin to exist as a pentamer is___________.

Answer:
IgM

______________ determine(s) what specific foreign substances our adaptive immune system will be able to recognize and resist.

Answer:
Our genes

Select the correct statement about the prevention of immune attack on
'self".

a. The development of tolerance is specific to B-cells only.

b. Neutrophils capable of binding to self-antigen are chemically inactivated.

c. Tolerance to self is due the action of foreign antigens that inactivate the immune response to one's own tissues.

d. Tolerance is developed during fetal life.

Answer:
d. Tolerance is developed during fetal life.

Blood can absorb metabolic heat while undergoing only small changes in temperature.

Answer:
True

Hemoglobin can carry only oxygen.

Answer:
False

Erythrocytes, leukocytes and platelets all originate form the same undifferentiated stem cells.

Answer:
True

The compliment system can be activated only by antibodies.

Answer:
False

Specific adaptive immune responses are accomplished by neutrophils.

Answer:
False

Lymphocytes are the most abundant WBCs (white blood cells) in the blood.

Answer:
False

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