Pulmonary disease is caused by _____ factors NOT genetic!
hyperactive airway disorder with episodes of reversible bronchoconstriction?
What disorders are Chronic bronchitis and emphsema?
What is the most common cause of chonic broncitis?
smoking, pollution, & genetics
Name the 3 reasons ppl develope COPD?
What disease has cough product of sputum for 3 months for at least 2 yrs?
What indicates continuous irrititation in the septum?
An increase beyond normal size of airspaces distal to terminal bronichioles?
Dilation is due to loss of ____walls and appears as holes?
hypoxia & cardiac
Interstitial lung diseases stiffness and effects are due to _____(respitory failure) and _____failure?
____results in Death, resolution and fibrosis.
Linear, reticular, nodular, and reticulonodular
What are the 4 patterns that can be seen in interstitial lung disease?
Sepsis, difuse infection, severe trauma, and oxygen can all lead to _____lung which can be seen in ARDS?
What syndrome is found in premature infants who are deficient in surfactant so they have increase effort in breathing leading to damage cells?
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, sarcoidosis, extrinsic allergic alveolitis, pneumoconiosis, and connective tissue disease
What are 5 chronic intersitial diseases?
A multisystem granulomatous resulting from exagerated immune response to self antigens or other antigens?
granulomas, macrophages, epitheloid cells, giant cells, and Non caseating granulomas
Name the 5 types of inflamatory cells and t helper cells that arrise in sarcoidosis?
In sarcoidosis 90-95 % of the time the first site involved is _____ of the time 10X more in blacks than whites?
anterior uveitis, posterior uveitis, conjuctivitis
Sarcodois can arrise in the eye 25-30% as _____,______, and _____?
What syndrome is also known as uveoparotid fever, ( facial palsy, fever, uveitis, partoditis)?
____ are indurated blue/purple lesions on nose, cheeks, lips, ears, and fingers?
IN what syndrome is there erthema nodosum, joint pains and bilateral hilar adenopathy?
Serum ACE, CD4/CD8, Mantoux test
What 3 ways can you diagnose sacroidosis?
GAllium 67 scanning
This technique is used for staging and to detect extrapulmonary sarcoidosis?
Kveim stilzbach test
intradermal injection of homogonized tissue of organs involved with sarcoidosis causing a delayed cutaneous rxn in 4-6 weeks?
What medicine do you give a pt with sarcoidosis with ocular lesions, where posterior segment or ON are threatened?
steroids or cytotoxic drugs
How do you treat sarcoidois?
Lung disease caused by mineral dust (asbestos, coal workers lung, anthracosis, or silicosis).
_____asbestos are safe, while ____ (amphibole) abstestos are VERY dangerous?
pleural effusion, exudate, transudate, empyema, chylothorax
What are the 5 different pleural diseases?
What is the most common age related lethal nosocomial infection and the 6th leading cause of death in the US?
viral, bacterial, infections
Pneumonia is caused by ___in children ___in young adults and ___in adults?
lobar, segmental, bronchopneumonia, interstitial
Name the 4 different types of pneumonia based on location?
cough, fever, sputum, tachypnea, crackles
Name 5 symptoms of pneumonia?
Severe bacterial pneumonia occuring in large buildings like hotels or hospitals?
Pneumococcal (lobar) pneumonia is caused by bacteria in healthy ___demonstrating fluid on one lobe?
bed rest & antibiotics
TX for pneumococall in culdes _____and _____ resolving in 1 week?
____pneumonia is caued by acid vomitus aspired by lower respiratory tract?
___Pneumonia is caused by influenza A & B symptoms being dry cough and fever?
atelectasis, lung absess, parapneumoic effusion, bacteremia, & metastatic infects
What are the 5 complications of Pneumonia?
chorioretinitis & uveitis
Most common ocular manifestations of TB include ___and ___ although it can occur anywhere?
___TB where immunosuppressed pt inefction is more aggresive overwhelming immune systmem spreads to lungs and causes pneumoia?
_____ocular infection is caused directly by atypical mycobacteria and does not need lung.
_____ test is a local intradermal injection of proteins looking for red wheal to form 48-72 hrs indurfation?
Permanent dilation of 1 or more lg bronchi resulting in lung abscess?
Localized area of dead lung tissue surounded by inflamatory debri, resulting from periodontal, neoplasms, pneumoia, or other invading microbes?
What lung is more prone to lung abcess?
What is the most common malignancy in the US tumors arrising near hilar area and spreads, has a 5 year survival rate of 12-14%?
Mesothelioma is caused by ____70% of the time and is NOT caused by cancer?
Much more senstiive at detecting small metastatic lesions?
Pulmonary metastases are detactable on ___ with common arrival from breast, GI, kidney, and female reproductive systems?
vascular wall, coagulation, and platelets
Hemostasis and thrombosis are dependent on ____, _____, and _____?
pocket of blood that takes up space?
Patients lack factor 9 so no fibrin is produced in this coagulation disorder?
T/F Most Thrombosis are symptomatic?
Cancer, tissue damage, pregnancy, elderly, lipids
5 risk factors for thrombosis?
arterial, cardiac, and venous
What are the 3 locations of thrombus?
If the embolism is in the right side of heart it came from the ___, where as if it affects the left side of the heart it came from the ____?
Lodge in major bifurcation
Healthy patient clenches chest falls over and dies?
pulmonary, fat, bone marrow, air, amniotic
What are the 5 types of embolisms?
ischemia/clots ; hemorages
87% of strokes are caused by ______ where as 20% are due to ______?
Lack of bld flow to the brain caused by a clot or rupture of bld vessels leading to sudden brain damage?
10, 15, 75
Out of 100 strokes pts ___will have complete recovery, ___will die, and ____will be permantly disabled?
Brief episode of neurologic dysfunction caused by focal brain or retinal ischemia, with symptomsm lasting less than 1 hour without acute infarction?
____is a warning sign of future strokes (40%)?
perfusion with low BP, fluid resuscitation, and antiplatelet
What are 3 ways to tia?
clipping & coiling
____&____ treat hemorrhagic strokes or brain bleeding?
T-PA, merci retriver, penumbra
____clot bursting medication and ___+____ clot removing devices treat ischemic strokes?
oncotic and hydrostatic
To avoid edema in capillaries there should be a balance btwn ___pressure and ___pressure?
cardiac, hypoproteinemia, and renal
Name 3 types of generalized edema?
inflamation, allergic, venous obstruction, lympatic obstruction
Name 4 localized edemas?
plerual, pericardium, peritoneum
Name the 3 places edema can occur in body cavities?
32, 15, 25
The capilary hydrostatic pressure for arteriolar end is ___mmHG, at the venous end its ___mmHG and the mean is ____mmHG?
In the brain interstitial hydro pressure can reach to ___mmHG?
Reduction of colloids(plasma proteins) from Cirrhoiss, liver failure, malnutrition, nephrotic, or catabolic states results in lower ______pressure?
heart failure, deep venous thrombosis, s. vena cava obstruction
___, ___, & ___ will result if hydrostatic pressure is increased at VENOUS end?
Pre-capilary dilatation & Ca channel blockers
____and ____ result form increased hydrostatic pressure at ARTERIAL end?
Increased intersitial oncotic pressures can result in hypoplasia, or obstruction
Anemia, hypothroidism, or heart failure
What are the 3 diverse reasons ppl get edema?
___milliion ppl suffer from CHF and 29,000 die annually?
Hypoperfusion without hypotension resulting in lower oxygen delivery?
Hypovolemic, cariogenic, and distributive
What are the 3 types of shock?
septic, anaphylatic, & neurogenic
Distributive shock resulting in a decrease in SVR can include _____, ____, and ____ shocks
blood volume, CO, and blood
Shock changes vascular flow by lowering _____and ____and redistributing _____?
HR and vasoconstriction
The non progressive stage of shock the body tries to increase ____and cause _____?
Decrease CO, and Acidosis
The progressive stage of shock inlcudes a decrease in _____and ______?
vasodilation & permiability
The irreversible stage of shock includes widespread ____and ____of bld vessels resulting in death of patient?
airway, breathing circulation
In treating shock you want to perform the trendelenburg postiion on patient and think about the ABC's whcih are?
What cell in the CNS can proliferate and form a scar?
0-15 ; 40
Normal ICP is btwn ____and can't surpass ____without causing harm?
swelling, hemorrage, and CSF
3 reasons why someone would have increase ICP?
brain, blood, CSF
ICP increases as __, ___, and ____ increases?
When the brain is squeezed thru foramen magnum ____results causing brainstem to be compressed and patient stops breathing and dies?
HA, vomiting, papilledema, and herniation
What are some symptoms of increased ICP?
If CSF is yellow then pt has a _____?
IF CSF is cloudy pt has a ____?
What is the most common cause of intracerebral hemorage?
sudden brain damage?
Hypertensive can result i n ____infarcts?
Hypoptension or hypoxia/anoxia can results in ___infarcts?
Venous thrombosis and emobilc can cause ____infarcts?
maintain perfusion to the brain and prevent lower blood pressure
What is the treatment for a stroke?
high blood pressure
_____is the silent killer and pts may have HA, blurred vision, chest pain, or frequent urination?
renal, vascular, endocrine, and latrogenic
What are the 4 causes for secondary HTN?
T/F Primary HTN has no known cause?
____HTN blood pressure changes often due to various factors like stress?
total peripherial resistance and kidney
What are the 2 main players in HTN?
defect in natriuresis
Renal sodium excretion?
HR, duration of stystolic contractions, and direct stimulation of bld vessels
In sympathetic nervous system HTN you have increase ____decrease ________________and direct ______________?
smooth mm contraction, thickening of media, hyaline arteriosclerosis
What are the 3 pathologies of ESSENTIAL HTN?
, bld pressure, fibrinoid necrosis, serum renin levels
What are the 3 pathologies of MALIGNANT HTN?
vasoconstriction, exudates, sclerosis, flame shaped hemorrages
What are 4 retinal changes in HTN?
foam, fatty streaks, intermediate lesions, atheroma, fibrous plaque, complicated lesion/rupture
List the progression of atherosclerosis?
Shows a graphic outline of the hearts movement
Determines how well your heart pump with each beat?
electrocardiograms, stress test, and cornonary angiography
what are the 3 screening test for CVD?
____ enables blood to reach your heart and reduces angina and the risk of a heart attack?
CAD is a chronic disease and most common serious effects of ____?
Asymptomatic, stable angina, progressive angina, acute coronary syndrome (unstable angina)
What are the 4 phases of CAD?
syndrome X Agnina
____angina is a reduced capacity of vasodilation in microvasculature.
Anginal Equivalent syndrome
_______ is caused by exercise induced left ventricular dysfunction?
____angina is a spasm of the large coronary artery and its accompanied by transmural ischemia?
___angina is a transient impairment of coronary bld supply by vasospasm or platelet aggregation?
___ischemia is very common and often difficult to dx so we use holter monitor and exercise testing?
medical tx, percutaneous intervention, or coronary artery bypass graft surgery
What are the 3 stable angina tx options?
MI, unstable angina, stroke, and PAD can lead to ______disease?
PTCA has a ____% or greater success rate?
T/F The presence of Q waves does not differentiate transmural MI and non-transmural MI?
Q or ST
The presence of _____or ____ is associated wtih higher mortality and morbidity?
T/F An asymptomatic mI is not necessarily less severe than a symptomatic?
If occlusion persists long enough 20-40 mins than ____myocardial cell damge and cell death will occur?
The presence of any risk factor for atherosclerotic coronary disease will ____ risk?
Blood testing for creatine phosphokinase, troponin, myoglobin, and C reactive protein changes found in samples over time represent how much heart mm has _____?
Expedient restoration of normal coronary bld flow and max salvage of functional myocardium is the goal of ____?
Percutaneous coronary intervention is better for ppl w ith _____than fibrolysis?
stress test, implantable cardiac defibrillators, and cardiac rehabilitation
What are three post MI mangement options?
Abnormal filling and diastolic function?
Ventricular enlargement and systolic dysfunciton?
_____is a manifestation of RCM that has abnormal mitral inflow patterns with a prominent E wave and increased LA pressure?
90 % of pts with HCM will have ____ while 75% will have ____ plus fatigue, pre syncope, and synscope.
Small LV cavity, asymetrical septal hypertrophy, systolic anterior motion of mitral valve leaflet, with 50% autosomal dominant?