Genetics old final questions

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If a tetraploid with 28 chromosomes: 4N=28 chromosomes. A hexaploid has how many chromosomes?

42, 6N=42

When an organism gains or loses one or more chromosomes but not a complete haploid set

Aneuploidy

Hershey and Chase experiment offered evidence in support of DNA being genetic material. This made use of these radioactively labeled components:

Phosphorous (DNA) and sulfur (proteins)

Griffith's transforming element was DNA was the major conclusion of who's experiment?

Hershey and Chase

If the transforming element described by Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty had been RNAse sensitive, this would have indicated that ___ was the genetic material

RNA (RNAse destroys RNA)

Cultivated American cotton is thought to have arisen from a _____ event

Allopolyploidy

The salivary glands of water gliders often contain cells with thousands of chromosomes. This condition is termed ____

endopolyploidy

Metacentric chromosomes are frequently formed from two acrocentric chromosomes by the process of _____

centric fusion

In two point mapping, the presence of both dominant alleles on one homolog is termed ____

coupled configuration (AA, repulsed Aa)

In chromosome location studies with fruit flies, females are normally selected as the heterozygous parent. This is because....

crossing over is inhibited in male fruit flies.

Trisomy 21 is commonly called

Down's Syndrome

Monosomy X is commonly called

Turner's Syndrome

Cri-du-chat is a

terminal deletion

Triploidy is represented by...

3N

Monoploidy is represented by....

N

2n+3 is called a

Pentasomy

Centromere involved

pericentric

No centromere involved

paracentric

XXXX represents a...

tetrasomy

4N represents a....

tetraploidy

Dominant in males, recessive in females.

Sex influenced

Human color blindess is an example of a ..... trait

sex linked

X and Y are....

sex chromosomes

Chromosomes that don't differ between the sexes

autosomes

the time during mitosis when sister chromatids separate

anaphase

haploid cells specialized for reproduction

gametes

one of the identical halves of a replicated chromosome

chromatid

Any variation in chromosome number that does not involve whole sets of chromosomes is termed....

aneuploidy

A theoretical measure of the number of independent genomic units that would be represented in or contribute to the next gene pool is termed...

effective population size

The most extreme form of inbreeding possible in sexually reproducing organisms is:

self fertilization

familial down's syndrome is caused by a chromosome.....

translocation

Improvement of humans through selective breeding was originally termed.... and used by Hitler

Eugenics

Hardy weinberg equilibrium cannot have a genotypic frequency of the heterozygotes greater that.....

.5

endopolyploidy is a condition often observed in

liver cells, water gliders

If 2 gene loci are on nonhomologous chromosomes, alleles at these loci are expected to assort independently. T/F

True

A paracentric inversion includes the centromere. T/F

False (pericentric includes)

DNA has no sulfur, proteins have no phosphorous. T/F

true

An individual with Turner Syndrome has no barr bodies. T/F

True

The transforming principle discovered by griffith was RNA. T/F

False (DNA)

Assume a species has a diploid chromosome number of 24. The term applied to an individual with 25 chromosomes should be triploid. T/F

False (12N+1)

Assume that an organism has a diploid chromosome # of 14. The term applied to an individual with 28 chromosomes would be tetraploid. T/F

TRUE

Familial Down's syndrome can be caused by a translocation between chromosomes #1 and #14. T/F

False (that's trisomy 21)

An individual with Patau's syndrome would be called a monosomy. T/F

False (Trisomy. Monosomy not possible in Auto)

When considering the structure of DNA, we would say that the complementary strands are parallel. T/F

False (antiparallel)

Hershey and Chase used labeled DNA and protein to determine that DNA is the genetic material in bacteria. T/F

False

G and C are present in both DNA and RNA. T/F

True

Thymine is a pyrimidine base. T/F

True

A section of DNA with the sequence TTTTTTTT would be expected to be more thermally stable than a section with GGGGGGGG. T/F

False (G is most stable)

The B form of DNA is a left handed helix. T/F

False. (Z is only left form)

Both acentric and dicentric chromatids can result from crossovers with inversion loops. T/F

true

Double stranded DNA that contains 200 bp would be approximately 480 A long. T/F

False

The alleles that we used in the Molecular Genotyping lab exercise were from repeated regions of DNA called microsatellites. On a CoT curve, these are called HR regions. T/F

True

The base content of a DNA sample is found to be: A=31%, G=31%, T=19%, C=19%. The DNA in this sample is single stranded. T/F

True

The maternal age effect was first associated with Turner's syndrome.

False (Down's syndrome)

Considering the structure of double-stranded DNA, what kind of bonds hold one complementary strand to the other?

Hydrogen bonds

When 2 genes fail to assort independently, the term normally applied is....

linkage

The human genome contains fewer than ____ genes.

40,000

Telomerase adds nucleotides to the __ end of the __ strand of DNA

3', old

Uracil is an example of a ____ and is found in ____.

pyrimidine, RNA

If a dsDNA molecule has 1,000 base pairs, how long is it?

3,400 A

If a dsDNA molecule has 1,000 base pairs, how many turns of the spiral would you expect?

100 (10 bp/turn)

Which genome characteristics would likely be representative of an organism found inhabiting the hot springs that supply water to Roman spas in Bath, England?

% GC would be larger than % AT

If a dsDNA molecule has 12% adenine, how much Cytosine would be found? Who's rule is this?

38%, Chargaff's

Chain termination sequencing of DNA works because ______ are included in small amounts in each reaction tube

dideoxyribonucleotides

If a peptide occurs in one of your cells that is 50 aa long, what is the minimum number of nucleotides that would have been required for efficient translation?

154 (50 aa * 3 codons each= 150+3 stop codons + 1G=154)

An inactivated X chromosome (Barr body) is an example of _____

facultative heterochromatin

AUG is an example of a ____

start codon

required to initiate transcription

TATA

complimentary to antisense

Sense strand

Adds poly a tail

poly a polymerase

catalyzes amino acid addition to tRNA

Amino-acyl synthetase

Synthesizes RNA

RNA polymerase

component of ribosome

rRNA

carrier of amino acids

tRNA

responsible for intron removal

SNURP (Splicesome)

Met in P site is a ....

start codon

degrades RNA (function)

RNAses

"Cap" nucleotide

G

added post-transcriptionally

200+ adenines

found only in the nucleus

hnRNA

catalyzes peptide bond

Peptidyl transferase

reduce supercoiling of DNA

Gyrase

unzips DNA (unwinds H-bonds)

helicase

enzyme that fills the gap

ligase

300 A wide

solenoid

100 A wide

nucleosome

A length of a double stranded DNA that is 2000 bp long would have how many nucleosome structures?

10 (dsDNA=150 bp, linker DNA=50 bp so 200 bp per nucleosome, 2000/200=10 nucleosomes)

DNA replication occurs in the 5' to 3' direction, that is, new nucleotides are added to the 3' end. T/F

true

A nucleosome is a structure associated with the nuclear membrane. It helps maintain a stable relationship between the extracellular matrix and the membrane itself. T/F

False (It helps condense DNA)

DNA replicates semiconservatively, meaning of the two daughter double-helixes, one is old and the other is new. T/F

False (DNA replicates semi-conservatively and conservative is old-old)

In contrast to euchromatin, heterochromatin contains more genes and is earlier replicating. T/F

False (heterochromatin contains no genes and is non-coding)

Telomerase is an enzyme involved in the replication of the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes. T/F

True

When one speaks of a 5' cap, one is describing the addition of a base, usually thymine, to the 5' end of a completed peptide. T/F

FALSE

The genetic code is non-overlapping, meaning that, assuming "standard translation", a given base participates in the specification of one and only one amino acid. T/F

True

The primary structure of a protein is composed of the sequence of amino acids in that protein. T/F

true

During replication, primase adds a DNA primer to RNA. T/F

False

A 3' Poly-A tail and a 5' cap are common components of prokaryotic RNA's. T/F

False (eukaryotic)

Proteins are composed of strings of nucleotides connected together by 5'-3' phosphodiester bonds. T/F

False (RNA)

The triplet AUG is commonly used as a start codon during translation. T/F

True

rDNA is that portion of a genome which is involved in the production of ribosomal RNA. T/F

True

An intron is a section of RNA which gets spliced out. T/F

TRUE

Unambiguous refers to the fact that the third position of many codons can vary without changing the amino acid the code for. T/F

FALSE (degenerate)

Human Barr bodies are termed facultative heterochromatin. T/F

True

Dideoxynulceotide is important in DNA sequencing. T/F

True

The term peptidyl transferase relates to ....

peptide bond formation

What name is given to the 3 bases in a mRNA which bind to the anticodon of tRNA to specify an amino acid placement in a protein?

Codon

The genetic code is fairly consistent among all organisms. The term is called....

universal

When considering the initiation of transcription, one often finds consensus sequences located in the region of the DNA where RNA pol binds. Which are the common consensus sequences?

CAAT, TATA

Side groups of aa are typically grouped under which of the following?

Polar, nonpolar

One form of posttranslational modification of a protein includes:

removal or modification of terminal aa.

The secondary structure of a protein includes the following elements:

alpha helix and beta pleated sheet

Sequence of aa in peptide

Primary structure

3-D structure

tertiary structure

Oligometric proteins, more than 1 peptide chain

quarternary structure

What is the initiator triplet in prokaryotes and eukaryotes? What is aa coded for?

AUG, methionine

The lagging strand produced during DNA replication is caused by the....

5' to 3' polarity restriction of DNA polymerase

What enzyme functions to help unwind dsDNA during replication?

Helicase

THe name of the protein structure that appears at the G2/M boundary and assists in the final condensation of chromosomes is called

Lamin

Chromatin refers to a complex consisting of proteins and....

DNA

3 nucleotides taken together are termed a.....

codon

In a cell with no uracil would replication, ribosome formation, and transcription occur?

No

Old parental strand of DNA and one new strand in each of the sister chromatids composes....

sister chromatids

During replication, ...... adds a short length of RNA to the new DNA strands.

primase

Linkage and crossing over are......., linkage keeps genes......, crossing over ........ genes up.

opposite, together, mixes

Crossing over take place in ..... and is the exchange of genetic material between......

Prophase 1 of meiosis, non-sister chromatids

Arrangement in which the wild type alleles are found on one chromosome and mutant alleles are found on the other chromosomes is called.....or....configuration.

coupling, cis

The arrangement in which each chromosome contains one wild type and one mutant allele is called.....or .....configuration

repulsion, trans

Between genes of different chromosomes, arises from independent assortment in anaphase 1 of meiosis.

interchromosomal recombination

You can tell genes are linked if there are more......progeny than...... progeny

nonrecombinant, recombinant

The degree to which one crossover interferes with additional crossovers in the same region is called......

interference

number of observed double crossovers/number expected double crossovers .........the equation for the____

coefficient of coincidence

1- coefficient of coincidence calculates....

interference

When interference is complete and no double crossover is observed, the coefficient of coincidence is __ and the interference is ___

0,1

Chromosome where the centromere is in the middle and so the chromosome has two arms of equal length

metacentric

centromere is displaced toward one end, creating a long arm and a short arm (in humans, short arm is p and long arm is q)

submetacentric

centromere is near one end, producing a long arm and a knob or satellite on the other end

acrocentric

the centromere is at or very near the end of the chromosome

telocentric

The complete set of chromosomes possessed by an organism

karyotype

Chromosome rearrangements, aneuploids, and polyploids are the three types of ......

chromosome mutations

Chromosome rearrangements alter the ____ of chromosomes.

structure

In aneuploidy, the ____ of chromosomes is altered, one or more is added or deleted.

number

In polyploidy, one or more __ of chromosomes is added or deleted.

sets

Mutations in which point of the chromosome has been doubled.

chromosome duplication

Type of duplication mutation where duplicated region is immediately adjacent to the original segment called a .....

tandem duplication

Type of duplication mutation where duplicated segment is located some distance from the original segment, either on the same chromosome or a different one, the chromosome rearrangement is called a ____

displaced duplication

Type of duplication mutation when the duplication is inverted

reverse duplication

Do duplications effect the phenotype?

yes

The expression of a recessive mutation. An indication that one of the homologous chromosomes has a deletion

Pseudominance

When a single copy of a gene is not sufficient to produce a wild type phenotype, it is said to be a ..........

haploinsufficient gene

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