CRT & WRRT 1.3

Created by suchhaste 

Upgrade to
remove ads

Review for the CRT and WRRT.

How much pressure does a full O₂ cylinder contain?

2200 psig

The "H" cylinder holds _____ cubic feet of O₂; while the "E" cylinder holds _____ cubic feet of O₂.

The "H" cylinder holds 244 cubic feet of O₂; while the "E" cylinder holds 22 cubic feet of O₂.

What are the two types of safety releases on oxygen tanks?

1. Frangible disk (breaks at 3000 psig)
2. Fusible plug (melts at 208° - 220°)

There is a color code system for tanks of oxygen. Tell me what are the colors for the following tanks:

1. Oxygen
2. Helium
3. CO₂
4. Nitrous Oxide
5. Cyclopropane
6. Ethylene
7. Air

1. Oxygen = green (white internationally)
2. Helium = brown
3. CO₂ = gray
4. Nitrous Oxide = light blue
5. Cyclopropane = orange
6. Ethylene = red
7. Air = yellow

A star next to the latest test date on an oxygen tank means the next test must be done ______ years from that date.

A star next to the latest test date on an oxygen tank means the next test must be done 10 years from that date.

With a Thorpe flowmeter (or uncompensated flowmeter), back pressure does what?

Gives a false reading. Flowmeter reading ins lower than what the patient is actually receiving.

As opposed to a compensated flowmeter. This type will accurately display flow when back pressure is applied.

Is a Bourdon gauge compensated or uncompensated?

Uncompensated. This means back pressure gives a false reading. However, the Bourdon gauge will display the same reading whether it is horizontal or vertical.

What is the O₂ delivery and flow rates for NASAL CANNULA?

24% - 40%

1-5 L/min

What is the O₂ delivery and flow rates for SIMPLE MASK?

35% - 50%

5-10 L/min

What is the O₂ delivery and flow rates for PARTIAL REBREATHER?

40% - 70%

8-15 L/min

What is the O₂ delivery and flow rates for NON-REBREATHER MASK?

60% - 100%

10-15 L/min

If the patient's VT is fluctuating and not consistent or the respiratory rate is above 25, what type of O₂ delivery device should you use?

High flow (e.g. air entrainment mask, aerosol mask, or any device attached to a nebulizer)

True / False

Increasing the flow rate on high-flow devices will NOT increase FIO₂.

True

What is the O₂ delivery and flow rates for AEROSOL MASK?

21% - 100%

8-15 L/min

Mist should be visible at all times to ensure adequate flow rates.

What is the O₂ delivery and flow rates for FACE TENT?

21% - 40%

8-15 L/min

What is the O₂ delivery and flow rates for T-TUBE OR BRIGGS ADAPTOR?

21% - 100%

8-15 L/min

Adequate flows are ensured by visible mist flow out of the 50 mL reservoir at all times.

What is the O₂ delivery and flow rates for TRACHEOSTOMY MASK?

35% - 60%

10-15 L/min


Adequate flows are ensured by visible mist flow out of the exhalation port at all times.

What is the O₂ delivery and flow rates for OXYGEN TENT?

21%-50%

10-15 L/min

What is the O₂ delivery and flow rates for HIGH-FLOW CANNULA?

up to 80%

8 L/min (infants)
40 L/min (adults)

List the air/O₂ ratios for the following O₂ percents:

60%
40%
35%
30%
24%

60% = 1:1
40% = 3:1
35% = 5:1
30% = 8:1
24% = 25:1

Give four examples of high-flow O₂ delivery devices.

1. Venturi Mask
2. Aerosol Mask
3. T-piece (Brigg's Adaptor)
4. Face Tent
5. Trach Collar

Calculate total O₂ content, given the following ABG test results:

pH 7.36
PCO₂ 40
PO₂ 82
SaO₂ 96%
Hb 13 g/dL

17 vol %

(1.34 x 13 x 0.96) + (82 x .003) = 16.95

What is the total flow delivered by an aerosol mask on 60% O₂, running 12 L/min ?

24 L/min

60% (1:1 air/O₂ ratio)
1+1 = 2, 2 x 12 L/min = 24 L/min

List the three ventilatory criteria that should be met by patients receiving O₂ from a low-flow device.

1. Consistent ventilatory pattern
2. VT 300 - 700 mL
3. Respiratory Rate < 25

An 80:20 mixture of helium/O₂ running through an O₂ flowmeter at 6 L/min is delivering how much flow to the patient?

10.8 L/min

1.8 x 6 = 10.8 L/min

Calculate how long an "E" cylinder with 1900 psig will run at 5 L/min.

1 h, 46 min

(1900 x .28) / 5 = 106 min

Give examples of three low-flow O₂ devices.

1. nasal cannula
2. simple mask
3. partial rebreather

List five conditions that affect the accuracy of pulse oximeters.

1. poor perfusion
2. severe anemia
3. hypotension
4. elevated HbCO level
5. direct light
6. nail polish
7. dark skin

How does water in the aerosol tubing of a mask affect the delivered FIO₂?

Increases FiO₂

The physician orders O₂ therapy for a patient with a VT of 400 mL and an inspiratory time of 0.5 seconds. What flow must the mask deliver to meet this patient's inspiratory flow demands?

48 L/min

0.4L / 0.5s = 0.8 L/sec * 60 = 46 L/min

Name the four critical life functions.

1. Ventilation (moving air in/out of lungs)
2. Oxygenation (getting oxygen into blood)
3. Circulation (moving blood through body)
4. Perfusion (getting blood/oxygen into the tissue)

The activities of daily living (ADL) scale is based on six criteria. Fill in the missing.

1. bathing
2. eating
3. dressing
4.
5.
6.

1. bathing
2. eating
3. dressing
4. toilet use
5. transferring
6. urine and bowel continence

If a patient is able to do each, a score of '1' is assigned. A total score of 2 or less means patient is impaired.

Orthopnea means what?

difficulty breathing except in the upright position. This may be due to CHF or other heart problem.

There are five grades of dyspnea. Which is worse?

I. dyspnea occurs after unusual exertion.
II. breathless after going up hills/stairs
III. dyspnea while walking at normal speed
IV. dyspnea slowly walking short distances
V. dyspnea at rest, shaving, dressing

True / False

Lung tissue is not pain sensitive.

True

True / False

Ribs and pleura are not sensitive to pain.

FALSE

Why would you do a capillary refill test?

This is commonly done for the modified Allen's test before drawing an ABG.

What is erythema?

redness of the skin. May be due to capillary congesting, inflammation, or infection.

What is kyphosis?

convex curvature of the spine (lean forward)

What is barrel chest indicative of?

Air trapping in the lungs for a long period of time. This increases the A-P diameter.

What would unequal (asymmetrical) movement of the chest indicate?

1. chronic lung disease
2. atelectasis
3. pneumothorax
4. flail chest
5. intubation of one lung

Name the following breathing pattern:

Normal respiratory rate (12-20 breaths/min).

Eupnea

Name the following breathing pattern:

Rate > 20 caused by hypoxia, fever, pain, CNS problem.

Tachypnea

Name the following breathing pattern:

Rate < 12 caused by sleep, metabolic disorders

Bradypnea

Name the following breathing pattern:

cessation of breathing

Apnea

Name the following breathing pattern:

increased rate, depth, regular rhythm

Hyperpnea

Name the following breathing pattern:

gradually increasing then decreasing rate and depth in a cycle lasting from 30-180 seconds with periods of apnea lasting up to 60 seconds.

Cheyne Stokes

causes: ↑ ICP, meningitis, drug overdose

Name the following breathing pattern:

increased respiratory rate and depth with irregular periods of apnea. Each breath has the same depth.

Biots

causes: CNS problem

Name the following breathing pattern:

increased respiratory rate (usually over 20 breaths/min), increased depth, irregular rhythm, breathing sounds labored.

Kussmaul's

causes: metabolic acidosis, renal failure, diabetic ketoacidosis

Name the following breathing pattern:

prolonged gasping inspiration followed by extremely short, insufficient expiration.

Apneustic

causes: problem with respiratory center, trauma, tumor

What is the term for muscle wasting?

Atrophy

May also be refereed to as Cachetic

Name the accessory muscles of ventilation.

1. Internal intercostals
2. Scalenes
3. Sternocleidomastoid
4. Pectoralis Major
5. Abdominals (oblique, rectus abdominus)

Name the normal muscles of ventilation.

1. Diaphragm
2. External intercostals

The existence of clinical factors that complicate either ventilation or intubation may be seen externally on face or neck. Name some of these features.

1. short receding mandible
2. enlarged tongue (macroglossia)
3. Bull neck
4. limited range of motion of neck

What type of IPPB machine is preferred for the home care setting?

The Bennett AP-5 is commonly used because it operates on electricity rather than compressed gas.

Name three common breathing exercises that a therapist might teach a patient in the home care setting.

1. Pursed-lip breathing
2. Diaphragmatic breathing
3. Segmental breathing

A VC of ________ of ideal body weight (IBW) indicates inadequate volume for an effective cough.

A VC of 10 to 15 mL/kg of ideal body weight (IBW) indicates inadequate volume for an effective cough.

A liquid oxygen tank can hold up to _____ times more oxygen than a cylinder.

860

True / False

Liquid oxygen is safer than gas stored high-pressure cylinders.

True

In the home care setting, a good supply system of O₂ for the patient who uses high volumes would be what?

liquid oxygen

Name the two types of O₂ concentrators.

1. Membrane (produces only 40%)
2. Molecular Sieve (produces 90-95%) most common

What type of O₂ should be used as backup and how much of it should be stored?

Cylinder O₂

1-3 days supply.

True / False

The higher the flow rate used on a concentrator, the less the delivered O₂ percentage.

True

Nebulizing 10mL of _______ through nebulizers and room humidifiers is an appropriate cleaning technique. Conversely, allowing it to soak in this is also an acceptable method of disinfection.

Nebulizing 10mL of VINEGAR through nebulizers and room humidifiers is an appropriate cleaning technique. Conversely, allowing it to soak in this is also an acceptable method of disinfection.

Cannulas in the home setting should be replaced every:

a. 1-2 weeks
b. 2-4 weeks
c. 4-6 weeks
d. 6-8 weeks

b. 2-4 weeks

List four goals of rehabilitiation.

1. Help patient become independent
2. Cope with disease
3. Understand disease and its limitations
4. Set realistic goals and ways to attain them

List five periodic evaluations of the home care patient that should be conducted by the RCP.

1. PFTs
2. Sputum collection/analysis
3. ABGs
4. Exercise Tolerance Testing
5. CXR films

How does pursed-lip breathing benefit patients with emphysema?

This creates a subtle back pressure in the larger airways which reduces the volume of trapped air and helps to reduce the feeling of dyspnea.

What type of evaluations should be made by the RCP regarding the O₂ concentrators during routine visits?

1. FIO₂ analysis
2. Alarm checks
3. Flow measurements
4. Filter/Battery checks

Calculate how long 3 lb of liquid oxygen running through a 2 L/min nasal cannula will last.

8.6 hours

(3 x 860) / 2 = 1032 L

1032 L / 2 L/min = 516 min or 8.6 hours

Name the four initial ventilator parameters in the order of their importance. AND their settings for adults.

1. VT (8-12 mL/kg of IBW. 10 mL/kg is best)
2. RR (8-12. 10 is best)
3. Mode (SIMV over A/C)
*4. FIO₂ and PEEP

*If there is no information about prior O₂ or room air use 40-60%.

If pt. was on O₂ and/or CPAP before then use the same FIO₂ and/or PEEP.

An emergency involving lung damage (CO poisoning, edema, flail chest) use 100%.

Name the initial ventilator parameters AND their settings for infants.

Mode: IMV / SIMV
1. RR (20-30) breaths/minute
2. Pressure: 20-30 cmH₂O
3. FIO₂: same as adults
4. PEEP: 2-4 cmH₂O (increase by 1 or 2 with max at 8 cm/H₂O)
5. 5-6 L/min
6. TI: 0.5 - 0.6 sec

Remember: If the patient is already receiving O₂ and CPAP, start at the SAME LEVEL.

Name the four physiologic variables that blood-gas-analysis monitors.

1. PaO₂ (arterial oxygenation)
2. PaCO₂ (alveolar ventilation)
3. pH (acid-base status)
4. PṽO₂ (O₂ delivery to tissues)

Air in the blood sample causes ________ PaO₂ and _____________ PaCO₂ levels.

Air in the blood sample causes INCREASED PaO₂ and DECREASED PaCO₂ levels.

If the patient is febrile, this will shift the oxyhemoglobin (HbO₂) curve to the __________, indicating that Hb more readily __________ O₂ but does not pick up the ________ as easily.

If the patient is febrile, this will shift the oxyhemoglobin (HbO₂) curve to the RIGHT, indicating that Hb more readily RELEASES O₂ but does not pick up the O₂ as easily.

True / False

The PaO₂ is the portion of O₂ that is dissolved in the plasma of the blood.

True

It is what is left over after the Hb molecules have been saturated.

For every 1 mmHg of PaO₂, there is _____ mL of dissolved O₂.

For every 1 mmHg of PaO₂, there is 0.003 mL of dissolved O₂.

What relationship does the HbO₂ dissociation curve plot?

The oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve plots the relationship between:

1. PaO₂ (x-axis)
2. SaO₂ (y-axis)

The HbO₂ dissociation curve indicates that at PaO₂ levels of less than ___________, small increases in _______ result in fairly large increases in _______.

The HbO₂ dissociation curve indicates taht at PaO₂ levels of less than 60 mmHg small increases in PaO₂ result in fairly large increases in SaO₂.

The flat portion of the HbO₂ dissociation curve indicates that at PaO₂ levels above _______, saturation rises _______.

The flat portion of the HbO₂ dissociation curve indicates that at PaO₂ levels above 60 mmHg saturation rises SLOWLY.

The oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve shifts to the ______ during the Haldane effect. Give the four effects/causes involved with this shift.

The oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve shifts to the LEFT during the Haldane effect.

↑ pH (alkalosis)

↓ PCO₂ (hypocapnia)
↓ Temp (hypothermia)
↓ 2,3 DPG

This effect occurs at the LUNG level.

The oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve shifts to the ______ during the Bohr effect. Give the four effects/causes involved with this shift.

The oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve shifts to the RIGHT during the Bohr effect.

↓ pH (acidosis)

↑ PCO₂ (hypercapnia)
↑ Temp (hyperthermia)
↑ 2,3 DPG

This effect occurs at the TISSUE level.

Define the following levels:

1. Mild Hypoxia
2. Moderate Hypoxia
3. Severe Hypoxia

1. 60-79 mmHg: Mild Hypoxia
2. 40-59 mmHg: Moderate Hypoxia
3. 00-39 mmHg: Severe Hypoxia

How much CO₂ gets dissolved in the plasma?

5%

The remaining 95% enters the RBCs.

Name the three ways that CO₂ is carried in the blood?

1. plasma
2. Hb
3. As HCO₃¯

The adequacy of ventilation is determined by the ____________ level.

The adequacy of ventilation is determined by the PCO₂ level.

For every _______ mmHg decrease in PaCO₂, the pH increases by ________.

For every 10 mmHg decrease in PaCO₂, the pH increases by 0.10.

For every _______ mmHg increase in PaCO₂, the pH decreases by ________.

For every 20 mmHg increase in PaCO₂, the pH decreases by 0.10.

Which electrode measures pH.

a. Sans
b. Clark
c. Severinghaus

a. Sans

Which electrode measures PCO₂.

a. Sans
b. Clark
c. Severinghaus

c. Severinghaus

Which electrode measures PO₂.

a. Sans
b. Clark
c. Severinghaus

b. Clark

What type of calibration should be performed before a blood gas sample is run unless the analyzer automatically performs this calibration at programmed intervals.

a. two-point calibration
b. three-point calibration
c. one-point calibration
d. no point calibration

c. one-point calibration

This type of calibration is usually performed every 8 hours.

a. two-point calibration
b. three-point calibration
c. one-point calibration
d. no point calibration

a. two-point calibration

True / False

A buffer is used to perform a two-point calibration.

FALSE

Two buffers are used to perform a two-point calibration. One buffer on the one-point.

Interpret the following blood gas values:

pH 7.21
PCO₂ 43
PO₂ 81
HCO₃¯ 14

Uncomp. metabolic acidosis with normal oxygenation

Interpret the following blood gas values:

pH 7.36
PCO₂ 62
PO₂ 58
HCO₃¯ 36

Fully Comp. (chronic) respiratory acidosis with moderate hypoxia

Interpret the following blood gas values:

pH 7.57
PCO₂ 27
PO₂ 89
HCO₃¯ 24

Uncomp. respiratory alkalosis, with normal oxygenation

Interpret the following blood gas values:

pH 7.22
PCO₂ 51
PO₂ 71
HCO₃¯ 17

Combined respiratory and metabolic acidosis with mild hypoxemia

Interpret the following blood gas values:

pH 7.44
PCO₂ 28
PO₂ 80
HCO₃¯ 18

Fully compensated respiratory alkalosis with normal oxygenation

Interpret the following blood gas values:

pH 7.32
PCO₂ 52
PO₂ 84
HCO₃¯ 31

Partially compensated respiratory acidosis with normal oxygenation

What do the results of an Allen test mean?

An Allen test is done before radial artery puncture to determine collateral blood flow to the hand. It is essential to determine if ulnar blood flow is present, in case the radial artery spasms or clots.

What conditions shift the HbO₂ dissociation curve to the right?

↓ pH (acidosis)

↑ PCO₂ (hypercapnia)
↑ Temp (hyperthermia)
↑ 2,3 DPG

This effect occurs at the TISSUE level.

When the HbO₂ curve is shifted to the right, how is the affinity of Hb for O₂ affected?

When the curve shifts to the right, the Hb affinity for O₂ decreases, which makes O₂ binding more difficult; however, the O₂ that does bind with Hb wil be released more easily to the tissues.

Calculate the P(A-a)O₂ given the following data:

PB: 747 mmHg
ABGs on 40% O₂: pH 7.42, PCO₂ 45, PO₂ 80, HCO₃¯ 25

144 mmHg

PAO₂ = ([747-47] 0.40) - (45 1.25)
280-56 = 224

PAO₂ - PaO₂ = 224-80 = 144

Which ABG value best reflects the patient's ability to ventilate?

PaCO₂

List a set of ABG levels that are typical of a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis?

pH 7.25, PCO₂ 23, PO₂ 80, HCO₃, 12

This is partially compensated metabolic acidemia. The initial problem is metabolic acidemia. The patient responds to this by hyperventilating to remove CO₂ which begins bringing the pH back up toward normal levels.

The answer should show that the levels of pH, PCO₂, and HCO₃ all decreased.

What is egophony?

What does it indicate?

Egophony is when the patient says "E" but it sounds like "A".

This indicates consolidation of the lung tissue as with a pneumonia-like condition.

What term(s) would one use to indicate "normal" breath sounds on auscultation?

1. vesicular: normal sounds in both lungs.

2. bronchial: normal sounds heard over trachea and bronchi. These sounds over periphery indicate lung consolidation.

What is paradoxical pulse or pulsus paradoxus?

Pulse/blood pressure varies with respiration. May indicate severe air trapping (status asthmaticus or cardiac tamponade).

Tracheal deviation may be pulled toward the abnormal side of lungs (toward pathology). Name 4 pathologies where this might occur.

1. atelectasis
2. fibrosis
3. pneumonectomy
4. diaphragmatic paralysis

Tracheal deviation may be pushed to the normal side of lungs (away from pathology). Name 4 pathologies where this might occur.

1. massive pleural effusion
2. tension pneumothorax
3. neck or thyroid tumors
4. large mediastinal mass

What is tactile fremitus?

Tactile fremitus are vibrations that are felt by hand on the chest wall.

What is crepitus?

Crepitus is bubbles of air under the skin.

Where is this percussion sound heard or indicative of:

"resonant"

normal air filled lungs.

This give a hollow sound.

Where is this percussion sound heard or indicative of:

"flat"

heard over sternum, muscles, or areas of atelectasis

Where is this percussion sound heard or indicative of:

"dull"

heard over fluid-filled organs such as the heart or liver. Pleural effusion or pneumonia will give this thudding sound.

Where is this percussion sound heard or indicative of:

"tympanic"

heard over air filled stomach. This is a drum-like sound and when heard over the lungs indicates increased volume.

Where is this percussion sound heard or indicative of:

"hyperresonant"

found in areas of the lung where pneumothorax or emphysema is present. This is a booming sound.

What is bronchophony?

What does it indicate?

Bronchophony and whispered pectoriloquy are terms that indicated increased intensity or transmission of the spoken voice.

This indicates consolidation and pneumonia.

What do rales, coarse rales, medium rales, and fine rales indicate?

1. Rales (crackles) = secretion/fluid
2. Coarse Rales = large airway secretions: suction
3. Medium Rales = middle airway secretions: CPT
4. Fine Rales = alveoli fluid: IPPB, heart drugs, diuretics

What are normal heart sounds and what letters are used to represent them?

S₁, S₂

Sounds created by the closure of the heart valves

What are abnormal heart sounds and what letters are used to represent them?

S₃, S₄

S₃ indicates cardiac abnormality (MI, megaly)
S₄ may indicate heart valve defects

What are bruits?

Bruits are the sounds made in an artery or vein when blood flow becomes turbulent or flows at an abnormal speed.

On an normal chest x-ray, what part of the diaphragm is slightly higher?

The right hemidiaphragm is slighly higher than the left. It is located at the level of the sixth anterior rib.

These organisms pose the greatest hazard for infection via respiratory therapy equipment.

a. vegetative organisms
b. spores

a. vegetative organisms

The most common equipment contaminants are NOT spore forming.

The suffix -static means what?

To prevent growth

These organisms are more resistant to both chemical and physical agents.

a. vegetative organisms
b. spores

b. spores

What must be done to equipment before the decontamination process?

washed in soapy water and rinsed off

What type of vegetative organism is most frequently encountered on respiratory equipment.

a. baccilli
b. spirillum
c. cocci

a. baccilli

These are not spore-forming.

What are three examples of bacilli?

1. Klebsiella pneumoniae (gram neg.)
2. Pseudomonas aeruginosa (gram neg.)
3. Mycobacterium (gram pos.)
4. Serratia marcescens (gram neg.)
5. Haemophilus influenzae (gram neg.)

What is the normal operating levels of autoclave?

15 minutes at 121° C and 15 psig.

Remember autoclave STERILIZES equipment.

True / False

Pasteurization disinfects equipment but spores are not killed.

True

What techniques sterilize.

1. autoclave
2. pasteurization
3. ethylene oxide gas
4. alcohol
5. glutaraldehydes
6. acetic acid

1. autoclave
3. ethylene oxide gas
5. glutaraldehydes (3-10 hours)

Which of the following is transmitted by droplet.

1. Klebsiella pneumoniae (gram neg.)
2. Pseudomonas aeruginosa (gram neg.)
3. Mycobacterium (gram pos.)
4. Serratia marcescens (gram neg.)
5. Haemophilus influenzae (gram neg.)

5. Haemophilus influenzae (gram neg.)

List four diseases that are spread by airborne pathogens.

1. TB
2. histoplasmosis
3. legionellosis
4. measles

What device should be used in the ventilation system through which air is discharge safely from the room of a patient with a disease caused by an airborne pathogen.

HEPA filter

List three diseases transmitted by the spread of droplets.

1. streptococcal pneumonia
2. epiglottitis
3. adenovirus
4. meningitis
5. pertussis
6. H. influenzae

List four gram-negative organisms that may result in necrotizing pneumonia.

1. pseudomonas
2. klebsiella
3. serratia
5. legionella

What methods are used to determine the effectiveness of the decontamination process?

1. chemical/biological indicators
2. culture and swab sampling

The following list represents the 6 main causes of upper airway obstruction. Fill in the blanks.

1. Tongue
2. Edema
3. Bleeding
4. Secretions
5.
6.

The 6 main causes of upper airway obstruction are:

1. Tongue
2. Edema
3. Bleeding
4. Secretions
5. FOREIGN SUBSTANCES
6. LARYNGOSPASM

If the patient is unconscious and has a partial or complete airway obstruction that is most likely caused by the tongue, the ____________ maneuver will help relieve the obstruction by moving the tongue forward.

If the patient is unconscious and has a partial or complete airway obstruction that is most likely caused by the tongue, the HEAD TILT AND CHIN LIFT maneuver will help relieve the obstruction by moving the tongue forward.

True / False

The oropharyngeal should NEVER be taped in place.

True

How do you measure the proper fit of an oropharyngeal airway?

Measure the airway from the corner of the lip to the angle of the jaw to ensure proper length.

What type of oropharyngeal airway is made of hard plastic and has a groove down either side to guide a suction catheter to the glottic area.

a. Guedel
b. Berman
c. Truman
d. Littman
e. none of the above

b. Berman

What type of oropharyngeal airway is made of soft, pliable material, which has an opening through the middle to allow the passing of a suction catheter into the glottic area.

a. Guedel
b. Berman
c. Truman
d. Littman
e. none of the above

a. Guedel

This type of airway maintains a patent airway by lying between the base of the tongue and the posterior wall of the pharynx.

a. oropharyngeal
b. nasopharyngeal
c. LMA
d. naso-gastric
e. endtotracheal

b. nasopharyngeal

True / False

LMAs are available in all sizes but can only be used on adults.

FALSE

LMAs are available in all sizes and can be used in patients of all ages, from neonates to adults.

What are two contraindications of LMAs.

1. health care provider not trained in LMA use
2. risk of aspiration

Is there a risk of esophageal or bronchial intubation with the LMA?

No.

See More

Please allow access to your computer’s microphone to use Voice Recording.

Having trouble? Click here for help.

We can’t access your microphone!

Click the icon above to update your browser permissions above and try again

Example:

Reload the page to try again!

Reload

Press Cmd-0 to reset your zoom

Press Ctrl-0 to reset your zoom

It looks like your browser might be zoomed in or out. Your browser needs to be zoomed to a normal size to record audio.

Please upgrade Flash or install Chrome
to use Voice Recording.

For more help, see our troubleshooting page.

Your microphone is muted

For help fixing this issue, see this FAQ.

Star this term

You can study starred terms together

NEW! Voice Recording

Create Set