Radiographic Procedures

Created by jaholland1983 

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252 terms

1) The term valgus refers to

A. turned outward
B. turned inward
C. rotated medially
D. rotated laterally

A. turned outward

2) Which of the following fat pads/stripes should be demonstrated radiographically in a lateral projection of the normal adult elbow?
1. Posterior fat pad
2. Anterior fat pad
3. Supinator fat stripe

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

4) In which of the following positions/projections will the talocalcaneal joint be visualized?

A. Dorsoplantar projection of the foot.
B. Plantodorsal projection of the foot.
C. Medial oblique position of the foot.
D. Lateral foot.

B. Plantodorsal projection of the foot.

5) The male bony pelvis differs from the female bony pelvis in which of the following ways?
1. The male pelvis has a larger pelvic inlet.
2. The female pubic arch is greater than 90 degrees.
3. The male ilium is more vertical.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

6) Central ray angulation may be required for
1. magnification of anatomic structures.
2. foreshortening or self-superimposition.
3. superimposition of overlying structures.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

8) All the following statements regarding respiratory structures are true except

A. the right lung has three lobes
B. the inferior portion of the lung is the base
C. each lung is enclosed in serious membranes.
D. the main stem bronchi enter the lung apex

D. the main stem bronchi enter the lung apex. FALSE!

9) All the following statements regarding an exact posteroanterior (PA) projection of the skull are true except

A. the orbitomeatal line is perpendicular to the image receptor (IR).
B. the petrous pyramids fill the inferior third of the orbits.
C. the midsagittal plane (MSP) is perpendicular to the IR
D. the central ray is perpendicular to the IR and exits the nasion.

B. the petrous pyramids fill the inferior third of the orbits. FALSE! On a straight PA projection the petrous pyramids fill the orbits completely. On the angled Caldwell they are in the lower third of the orbits.

11) Ingestion of barium sulfate is contraindicated in which of the following situations?
1. Suspected perforation of a hollow viscus
2. Suspected large bowel obstruction
3. Preoperative patients

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

12) "Flattening" of the hemidiaphragms is characteristic of which of the following conditions?

A. Pneumothorax
B. Emphysema
C. Pleural effusion
D. Pneumonia

B. Emphysema

13) Which of the following structures is (are) located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ)?
1. Hepatic flexure
2. Gallbladder
3. Ileocecal valve

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

15) During an upper gastrointestinal (GI) examination, a stomach of average shape demonstrates a barium-filled fundus and double contrast of the pylorus and duodenal bulb. The position used is most likely

A. AP erect
B. PA
C. RAO
D. LPO

D. LPO

16) Arteries and veins enter and exit the medial aspect of each lung at the

A. root
B. hilus
C. carina
D. epiglottis

B. hilus

17) Which projection of the foot will best demonstrate the longitudinal arch?

A. Mediolateral
B. Lateromedial
C. Lateral weight-bearing
D. 30 degree medial oblique

C. Lateral weight-bearing

18) Graves disease is associated with

A. thyroid underactivity
B. thyroid overactivity
C. adrenal underactivity
D. adrenal overactivity

B. thyroid overactivity

19) The axiolateral, or horizontal beam, projection of the hip requires the IR to be placed
1. parallel to the central ray (CR)
2. parallel to the long axis of the femoral neck.
3. in contact with the lateral surface of the body.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

20) In the AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull, with the CR directed 30 degrees caudad to the orbitomeatal line (OML) and passing midway between the external auditory meati, which of the following is best demonstrated?

A. Occipital bone
B. Frontal bone
C. Facial bones
D. Basal foramina

A. Occipital bone

21) The right posterior oblique (RPO) position of the right acetabulum will demonstrate the

A. posterior rim of the right acetabulum.
B. anterior rim of the right acetabulum.
C. right obturator foramen.
D. right anterior ilioischial column.

B. anterior rim of the right acetabulum.

23) A frontal view of the sternum is best accomplished in which of the following positions?

A. AP
B. PA
C. RAO
D. LAO

C. RAO

24) Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in a lateral projection of the cervical spine?
1. Intervertebral foramina
2. Apophyseal joints
3. Intervertebral joints

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

25) Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely to lodge in the

A. right main stem bronchus.
B. left main stem bronchus.
C. esophagus.
D. proximal stomach.

A. right main stem bronchus.

26) How should a chest examination to rule out air-fluid levels be obtained on a patient having traumatic injuries?

A. Perform the examination in the Trendelenburg position.
B. Erect inspiration and expiration images should be obtained.
C. Include a lateral chest done is dorsal decubitus position.
D. Perform the examination AP supine at 44 inches SID.

C. Include a lateral chest done is dorsal decubitus position.

27) All of the following statements regarding the use of iodinated contrast agents with patients taking metformin hydrochloride are true except

A. metformin is used to help lower blood sugar levels on type 2 diabetic patients.
B. patients on metformin who have intravenous (IV) iodinated contrast agent administration are at risk for renal failure.
C. metformin should be withheld for 48 hours before and after IV iodinated contrast studies.
D. metformin should be withheld for 48 hours after IV iodinated contrast studies.

D. metformin should be withheld for 48 hours after IV iodinated contrast studies.

30) Which of the following positions is obtained with the patient lying supine on the radiographic table with the CR directed horizontally to the iliac crest?

A. Left lateral decubitus position
B. Right lateral decubitus position
C. Ventral decubitus position
D. Dorsal decubitus position

D. Dorsal decubitus position

31) All the following positions are used frequently to demonstrate the sternoclavicular articulations except

A. weight-bearing
B. RAO
C. LAO
D. PA

A. weight-bearing

32) Glossitis refers to inflammation of the

A. epiglottis
B. salivary glands
C. tongue
D. ossicles

C. tongue

33) When examining a patient whose elbow is in partial flexion, how should an AP projection be obtained?
1. With humerus parallel to IR, CR perpendicular
2. With forearm parallel to IR, CR perpendicular
3. Through the partially flexed elbow, resting on the olecranon process, CR perpendicular

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

34) Which of the following positions is required to demonstrate small amounts of air in the peritoneal cavity?

A. Lateral decubitus, affected side up
B. Lateral decubitus, affected side down
C. AP Trendelenburg
D. AP supine

A. Lateral decubitus, affected side up.

35) Which of the anatomic structures listed below is seen most anteriorly in a lateral projection of the chest?

A. Esophagus
B. Trachea
C. Cardiac apex
D. Superimposed scapular borders

C. Cardiac apex

36) Ulnar flexion/deviation will best demonstrate which carpal(s)?
1. Medial carpals
2. Lateral carpals
3. Scaphoid

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

40) To demonstrate the mandibular body in the PA position, the

A. CR is directed perpendicular to the IR.
B. CR is directed cephalad to the IR.
C. skull is obliqued away from the affected side.
D. skull is obliqued toward the affected side

A. CR is directed perpendicular to the IR.

41) Which of the following projections can be used to supplement the traditional "open-mouth" projection when the upper portion of the odontoid process cannot be well demonstrated?

A. AP or PA through the foramen magnum
B. AP oblique with right and left head rotation.
C. Horizontal beam lateral
D. AP axial

A. AP or PA through the foramen magnum

42) To "visualize open" the right sacroiliac joint, the patient is positioned

A. 30-40 degrees LPO.
B. 30-40 degrees RPO.
C. 25-30 degrees LPO.
D. 25-30 degrees RPO.

C. 25-30 degrees LPO.

43) A lateral projection of the hand in extension is often recommended to evaluate
1. a fracture
2. a foreign body
3. soft tissue

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

46) The condition that allows blood to shunt between the aorta and the pulmonary artery is called

A. an atrial septal defect
B. a ventricular septal defect
C. a patent ductus arteriosus
D. coarctation of the aorta

C. a patent ductus arteriosus

47) Which of the following projections or positions will best demonstrate subacromial or subcoracoid dislocation?

A. Tangential
B. AP axial
C. Transthoracic lateral
D. PA oblique scapular Y

D. PA oblique scapular Y

48) Which of the following will best demonstrate the size and shape of the liver and kidneys?

A. Lateral abdomen
B. AP abdomen
C. Dorsal decubitus abdomen
D. Ventral decubitus abdomen

B. AP abdomen

49) Which of the following positions can be used to demonstrate the axillary ribs of the left thorax?
1. RAO
2. LAO
3. RPO

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 only

50) In which projection of the foot are the interspaces between the first and second cuneiforms best demonstrated?

A. Lateral oblique foot
B. Medial oblique foot
C. Lateral foot
D. Weight-bearing foot

A. Lateral oblique foot

51) The sternal angle is at approximately the same level as the

A. T2-3 interspace fifth thoracic vertebra.
B. T9-10 interspace
C. T5
D. costal margin

C. T5

52) What is the position of the stomach in a hypersthenic patient?

A. High and vertical
B. High and horizontal
C. Low and vertical
D. Low and horizontal

B. High and horizontal

53) To demonstrate esophageal varices, the patient must be examined in

A. the recumbent position
B. the erect position
C. the anatomic position
D. the Fowler position

A. the recumbent position

55) Valid evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm include
1. the epicondyles should be parallel to the IR
2. the radius and ulna should be superimposed distally
3. the radial tuberosity should face anteriorly

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

56) All the following structures are associated with the femur except

A. the medial condyle
B. the medial epicondyle
C. the lesser tuberosity
D. the fovea capitis.

C. the lesser tuberosity

57) Which of the following projections of the ankle would best demonstrate the mortise?

A. Medial oblique 15-20 degrees
B. Lateral oblique 15-20 degrees
C. Medial oblique 45 degrees
D. Lateral oblique 45 degrees

A. Medial oblique 15-20 degrees

59) The advantage of digital subtraction angiography over film angiography include
1. greater sensitivity to contrast medium
2. immediately available images
3. increased resolution

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

60) A radiolucent sponge can be placed under the patient's waist for a lateral projection of the lumbosacral spine to
1. make the vertebral column parallel with the IR.
2. place the intervertebral disk spaces perpendicular to the IR.
3. decrease the amount of SR reaching the IR.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

61) To reduce the amount of scattered radiation reaching the IR in CR/DR imaging of the lumbosacral region, which of the following is (are) recommended?
1. Close collimation
2. Lead mat on table posterior to the patient
3. Decreased SID

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

62) Which of the following structures should be visualized through the foramen magnum in an AP axial projection (Grashey method) of the skull for occipital bone?
1. Posterior clinoid processes
2. Dorsum sella
3. Posterior arch of C1

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 2 only

63) Evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the humerus include
1. epicondyles parallel to the IR.
2. lesser tubercle in profile.
3. superimposed epicondyles.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

64) Which of the following guidelines should be followed when performing radiographic examinations of pediatric patients?

A. use restraint only when necessary
B. always use physical or mechanical restraint
C. use physical restraint only
D. use mechanical restraint only

A. use restraint only when necessary

65) Which of the following tube angle and direction combinations is correct for an axial projection of the clavicle with the patient in PA position?

A. 5-15 degrees caudad
B. 5-15 degrees cephalad
C. 15-30 degrees cephalad
D. 15-30 degrees caudad

D. 15-30 degrees caudad

66) Which of the following should be performed to rule out subluxation or fracture of the cervical spine?

A. Oblique cervical spine, seated
B. AP cervical spine, recumbent
C. Horizontal beam lateral
D. Laterals in flexion and extension

C. Horizontal beam lateral

67) What portion of the humerus articulates with the ulna to help form the elbow joint?

A. Semilunar/trochlear notch
B. Radial head
C. Capitulum
D. Trochlea

D. Trochlea

68) The true lateral position of the skull uses which of the following principles?
1. Interpupillary line perpendicular to the IR
2. MSP perpendicular to the IR
3. Infraorbitomeatal line (IOML) parallel to the transverse axis of the IR

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 1 and 3 only

69) During myelography, contrast medium is introduced into the

A. subdural space
B. subarachnoid space
C. epidural space
D. epidermal space

B. subarachnoid space

70) All elbow fat pads are best demonstrated in which position?

A. AP
B. Lateral
C. Acute flexion
D. AP partial flexion

B. Lateral

72) Examples of synovial pivot articulations include the
1. atlantoaxial joint
2. radioulnar joint
3. temporomandibular joint

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

73) The lumbar transverse process is represented by what part of the "Scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine?

A. Eye
B. Nose
C. Body
D. Ear

B. Nose

74) Which of the following positions will separate the radial head, neck, and tuberosity from superimposition on the ulna?

A. AP
B. Lateral
C. Medial oblique
D. Lateral oblique

D. Lateral oblique

75) In which of the following positions can the sesamoid bones of the foot be demonstrated to be free of superimposition with the metatarsals or phalanges?

A. Dorsoplantar metatarsals/toes
B. Tangential metatarsals/toes
C. 30-degree medial oblique foot
D. 30-degree lateral oblique foot

B. Tangential metatarsals/toes

76) Which of the following conditions is limited specifically to the tibial tuberosity?

A. Ewing sarcoma
B. Osgood-Schlatter disease
C. Gout
D. Exostosis

B. Osgood-Schlatter disease

77) With the patient in the PA position and the OML and CR perpendicular to the IR, the resulting radiograph will demonstrate the petrous pyramids

A. below the orbits
B. in the lower third of the orbits
C. completely within the orbits
D. above the orbits

C. completely within the orbits

78) Which of the following is (are) part of the bony thorax?
1. Manubrium
2. Clavicles
3. 24 ribs

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 1 and 3 only

79) During atrial systole, blood flows into the
1. right ventricle via the mitral valve
2. left ventricle via the bicuspid valve
3. right ventricle via the tricuspid valve

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

82) With the patient seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 80 degrees, and the CR directed 45 degrees laterally from the shoulder to the elbow joint, which of the following structures will be demonstrated best?

A. Radial head
B. Ulnar head
C. Coronoid process
D. Olecranon process

C. Coronoid process

83) The threat of hypothermia is greatest when radiographing a(an)

A. elderly patient
B. hypertensive patient
C. premature infant
D. diabetic patient

C. premature infant

84) The CR will parallel the intervertebral foramina in which of the following projections?
1. Lateral cervical spine
2. Lateral thoracic spine
3. Lateral lumbar spine

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

85) What structure can be located midway between the anterosuperior iliac spine (ASIS) and the pubic symphysis?

A. Dome of the acetabulum
B. Femoral neck
C. Greater trochanter
D. Iliac crest

A. Dome of the acetabulum

88) During chest radiography, the act of inspiration
1. elevates the diaphragm
2. raises the ribs
3. depresses the abdominal viscera

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

91) A lateral projection of the lumbar spine will demonstrate the
1. intervertebral spaces
2. intervertebral foramina
3. articular facets

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

92) The patient's chin should be elevated during chest radiography to

A. permit the diaphragm to move to its lowest position.
B. avoid superimposition on the apices.
C. assist in maintaining an upright position.
D. keep the MSP parallel.

B. avoid superimposition on the apices.

93) The secondary center of ossification in long bones is the

A. diaphysis
B. epiphysis
C. metaphysis
D. apophysis

B. epiphysis

94) To make a patient as comfortable as possible during a single-contrast barium enema (BE), the radiographer should
1. instruct the patient to relax the abdominal muscles to prevent intra-abdominal pressure.
2. instruct the patient to concentrate on breathing deeply to reduce colonic spasm.
3. prepare a warm barium suspension (98-105 F) to aid in retention.

A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

95) The lumbar lamina is represented by what part of the "Scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine view?

A. Eye
B. Nose
C. Body
D. Neck

C. Body

97) Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the tarsal navicular free of superimposition?

A. AP oblique, medial rotation
B. AP oblique, lateral rotation
C. Mediolateral
D. Lateral weight-bearing

A. AP oblique, medial rotation

98) At what level do the carotid arteries bifurcate?

A. Foramen magnum
B. Trachea
C. Pharynx
D. C4

D. C4

99) During a double-contrast BE, which of the following positions would afford the best double-contrast visualization of the lateral wall of the descending colon and the medial wall of the ascending colon?

A. AP or PA erect
B. Right lateral decubitus
C. Left lateral decubitus
D. Ventral decubitus

B. Right lateral decubitus

102) To evaluate the interphalangeal joints in the oblique and lateral positions, the fingers

A. rest on the cassette for immobilization.
B. must be supported parallel to the IR.
C. are radiographed in natural flexion.
D. are radiographed in palmar flexion.

B. must be supported parallel to the IR.

103) Which of the following examinations involves the introduction of a radiographic contrast medium through a uterine cannula?

A. Retrograde pyelogram
B. Voiding cystourethrogram
C. Hysterosalpingogram
D. Myelogram

C. Hysterosalpingogram

104) All the following statements regarding large bowel radiography are true except

A. the large bowel must be completely empty prior to examination.
B. retained fecal material can obscure pathology.
C. single-contrast studies help to demonstrate intraluminal lesions.
D. double-contrast studies help to demonstrate mucosal lesions.

C. single-contrast studies help to demonstrate intraluminal lesions.

105) In a lateral projection of the normal knee, the
1. fibular head should be somewhat superimposed on the proximal tibia.
2. patellofemoral joint should be visualized.
3. femoral condyles should be superimposed.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

106) The junction of the sagittal and coronal sutures is the

A. diploe
B. lambda
C. bregma
D. pterion

C. bregma

107) The term used to describe expectoration of blood from the bronchi is

A. hemoptysis
B. hematemesis
C. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
D. bronchitis

A. hemoptysis

108) Double-contrast examinations of the stomach or large bowel are performed to better visualize the

A. position of the organ
B. size and shape of the organ
C. diverticula
D. gastric or bowel mucosa

D. gastric or bowel mucosa

109) The sternoclavicular joints are best demonstrated with the patient PA and

A. in a slight oblique position, affected side adjacent to the IR.
B. in a slight oblique position, affected side away from the IR.
C. erect and weight-bearing.
D. erect with and without weights.

A. in a slight oblique position, affected side adjacent to the IR.

111) For which of the following conditions is operative cholangiography a useful tool?
1. Patency of the biliary ducts
2. Biliary tract calculi
3. Gallbladder calculi

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

114) Which of the following articulations may be described as diarthrotic?
1. Knee
2. Intervertebral joints
3. Temporomandibular joint (TMJ)

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 1 and 3 only

115) For an AP projection of the knee on a patient whose measurement from ASIS to tabletop is 21 cm, which CR direction will best demonstrate the knee joint?

A. 5 degrees caudad
B. 10 degrees caudad
C. 5 degrees cephalad
D. 0 degrees (perpendicular)

D. 0 degrees (perpendicular)

117) Structures comprising the neural, or vertebral, arch include
1. pedicles
2. laminae
3. body

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

118) A lateral projection of the larynx is occasionally required to rule out foreign body, polyps, or tumor. The CR should be directed

A. just below the EAM.
B. to the level of the mandibular angles.
C. to the level of the laryngeal prominence.
D. to the level of C7.

C. to the level of the laryngeal prominence.

119) The intervertebral foramina of the thoracic spine are demonstrated with the

A. coronal plane 90 degrees to the IR.
B. midsagittal plane 90 degrees to the IR.
C. coronal plane 70 degrees to the IR.
D. midsagittal plane 70 degrees to the IR.

A. coronal plane 90 degrees to the IR.

120) Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint?
1. Scapular Y projection
2. Inferosuperior axial
3. Transthoracic lateral

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

121) The innominate bone is located in the

A. middle cranial fossa.
B. posterior cranial fossa.
C. foot
D. pelvis

D. pelvis

122) Which of the following women is likely to have the most homogenous glandular breast tissue?

A. a postpubertal adolescent
B. a 20-year-old with one previous pregnancy
C. A menopausal woman
D. a postmenopausal 65-year-old

A. a postpubertal adolescent

123) Radiography of which of the following structure(s) in the AP or PA position will inherently result in an image demonstrating shape distortion of the anatomic part?
1. Kidney
2. Scaphoid
3. Sigmoid

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

124) Which of the following examinations require(s) special identification markers in addition to the usual patient name and number, date, and side marker?
1. Intravenous urography (IVU)
2. Tomography
3. Abdominal survey

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

126) The body habitus characterized by a long and narrow thoracic cavity and low midline stomach and gallbladder is the

A. asthenic
B. hyposthenic
C. sthenic
D. hypersthenic

A. asthenic

127) Which of the following fracture classifications describes a small bony fragment pulled from a bony process?

A. Avulsion fracture
B. Torus fracture
C. Comminuted fracture
D. Compound fracture

A. Avulsion fracture

128) Which of the following is proximal to the carpal bones?

A. Distal interphalangeal joints
B. Proximal interphalangeal joints
C. Metacarpals
D. Radial styloid process

D. Radial styloid process

129) Which of the following statements regarding the scapular Y projection of the shoulder is (are) true?
1. The midsagittal plane should be about 60 degrees to the IR.
2. The scapular borders should be superimposed on the humeral shaft.
3. An oblique projection of the shoulder is obtained.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

130) Which of the following projections require(s) that the humeral epicondyles be perpendicular to the IR?
1. AP humerus
2. Lateral forearm
3. Internal rotation shoulder

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

131) Which of the following positions is most likely to place the right kidney parallel to the IR?

A. AP
B. PA
C. RPO
D. LPO

D. LPO

132) With the patient's head in a PA position and the CR directed 20 degrees cephalad, which part of the mandible will be best visualized?

A. Symphysis
B. Rami
C. Body
D. Angle

B. Rami

133) During IV urography, the prone position generally is recommended to demonstrate
1. the filling of the ureters
2. the renal pelvis
3. the superior calyces

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

134) The plane that passes vertically through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior halves, is termed the

A. medial sagittal plane (MSP)
B. midcoronal plane
C. sagittal plane
D. transverse plane

B. midcoronal plane

135) To demonstrate a profile view of the glenoid fossa, the patient is AP recumbent and obliqued 45 degrees

A. toward the affected side
B. away from the affected side
C. with the arm at the side in the anatomic position
D. with the arm in external rotation

A. toward the affected side

137) Myelography is a diagnostic examination used to demonstrate
1. internal disk lesions
2. posttraumatic swelling of the spinal cord
3. posterior disk herniation

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

138) Which of the following techniques would provide a PA projection of the gastroduodenal surfaces of the barium-filled high and transverse stomach?

A. Place the patient in a 35- to 40-degree RAO position.
B. Place the patient in a lateral position.
C. Angle the CR 35-45 degrees cephalad.
D. Angle the CR 35-45 degrees caudad.

C. Angle the CR 35-45 degrees cephalad.

139) Which of the following is recommended to better demonstrate the tarsometatarsal joints in a dorsoplantar projection of the foot?

A. Invert the foot.
B. Evert the foot.
C. Angle the CR 10 degrees posteriorly.
D. Angle the CR 10 degrees anteriorly.

C. Angle the CR 10 degrees posteriorly.

140) The tissue that occupies the central cavity within the shaft of a long bone in an adult is

A. red marrow
B. yellow marrow
C. cortical tissue
D. cancellous tissue

B. yellow marrow

141) Which of the following positions will provide an AP projection of the L5-S1 interspace?

A. Patient AP with 30- to 35-degree angle cephalad
B. Patient AP with 30- to 35-degree angle caudad
C. Patient AP with 0-degree angle
D. Patient lateral, coned to L5

A. Patient AP with 30- to 35-degree angle cephalad

142) Which of the following bony landmarks is in the same transverse plane as the symphysis pubis?

A. Ischial tuberosity
B. Prominence of the greater trochanter
C. Anterosuperior iliac spine
D. Anteroinferior iliac spine

B. Prominence of the greater trochanter

143) Patients are instructed to remove all jewelry, hair clips, metal prostheses, coins, and credit cards before entering the room for an examination in

A. sonography
B. computed tomography (CT)
C. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
D. nuclear medicine

C. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

144) Movement of a part toward the midline of the body is termed

A. eversion
B. inversion
C. abduction
D. adduction

D. adduction

146) A kyphotic curve is formed by which of the following?
1. Sacral vertebrae
2. Thoracic vertebrae
3. Lumbar vertebrae

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only

147) Which of the following is (are) required for a lateral projection of the skull?
1. The IOML is parallel to the IR.
2. The MSP is parallel to the IR.
3. The CR enters 3/4 inch superior and anterior to the EAM.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

148) With which of the following does the trapezium articulate?

A. Fifth metacarpal
B. First metacarpal
C. Distal radius
D. Distal ulna

B. First metacarpal

149) Which of the following positions will most effectively move the gallbladder away from the vertebrae in an asthenic patient?

A. LAO
B. RAO
C. LPO
D. Erect

A. LAO

150) The ileocecal valve normally is located in which of the following body regions?

A. Right iliac
B. Left iliac
C. Right lumbar
D. Hypogastric

A. Right iliac

151) Which of the following is (are) true regarding radiographic examination of the acromioclavicular joints?
1. The procedure is performed in the erect position.
2. Use of weights can improve demonstration of the joints.
3. The procedure should be avoided if dislocation or separation is suspected.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only

152) A type of cancerous bone tumor occurring in children and young adults and arising from bone marrow is

A. Ewing sarcoma
B. multiple myeloma
C. enchondroma
D. osteochondroma

A. Ewing sarcoma

153) Which of the following articulations participate(s) in formation of the ankle mortise?
1. Talotibial
2. Talocalcaneal
3. Talofibular

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 only

B. 1 and 3 only

154) Which of the following skull positions will demonstrate the cranial base, sphenoidal sinuses, atlas, and odontoid process?

A. AP axial
B. Lateral
C. Parietoacanthial
D. Submentovertical (SMV)

D. Submentovertical (SMV)

156) Which of the following is (are) located on the posterior aspect of the femur?
1. Intertrochanteric line
2. Intercondyloid fossa
3. Linea aspera

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

157) An intrathecal injection is associated with which of the following examinations?

A. IVU
B. Retrograde pyelogram
C. Myelogram
D. Arthrogram

C. Myelogram

159) Which of the following statements is (are) correct with respect to evaluation criteria for a PA projection of the chest for lungs?
1. Sternal extremities of clavicles are equidistant from vertebral borders.
2. Ten posterior ribs are demonsrated above the diaphragm.
3. The esophagus is visible in the midline.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

160) The coronoid process should be visualized in profile in which of the following positions?

A. Scapular Y
B. AP scapula
C. Medial oblique elbow
D. Lateral oblique elbow

C. Medial oblique elbow

161) In the lateral projection of the ankle, the
1. talotibial joint is visualized
2. talofibular joint is visualized
3. tibia and fibula are superimposed

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 1 and 3 only

163) All the following positions are likely to be employed for both single- and double-contrast examinations of the large bowel except

A. lateral rectum
B. AP axial rectosigmoid
C. right and left lateral decubitus abdomen
D. RAO and LAO abdomen

C. right and left lateral decubitus abdomen

164) Which of the following positions is essential in radiography of the paranasal sinuses?

A. Erect
B. Recumbent
C. Oblique
D. Trendelenburg

A. Erect

165) Which of the following can be used to demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa?
1. Patient PA, knee flexed 40 degrees, CR directed caudad 40 degrees to the popliteal fossa.
2. Patient AP, cassette under flexed knee, CR directed cephalad to knee, perpendicular to tibia.
3. Patient PA, patella parallel to IR, heel rotated 5-10 degrees lateral, CR perpendicular to knee joint.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

169) AP stress studies of the ankle may be performed
1. to demonstrate fractures of the distal tibia and fibula.
2. following inversion or eversion injuries
3. to demonstrate a ligament tear.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

170) When evaluating a PA axial projection of the skull with a 15-degree caudal angle, the radiographer should see
1. petrous pyramids in the lower third of the orbits.
2. equal distance from the lateral border of the skull to the lateral rim of the orbit bilaterally.
3. symmetrical petrous pyramids.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

171) Which of the following factors can contribute to hypertension?
1. Obesity
2. Smoking
3. Stress

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

172) The uppermost portion of the iliac crest is at approximately the same level as the

A. costal margin
B. umbilicus.
C. xiphoid tip.
D. fourth lumbar vertebra.

D. fourth lumbar vertebra.

173) Which of the following structures is (are) located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ)?
1. Spleen
2. Gallbladder
3. Hepatic flexure

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

174) In the posterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the intervertebral foramina that are best seen are those

A. nearest the IR
B. furthest from the IR
C. seen medially
D. seen inferiorly

B. furthest from the IR

175) Which of the following positions demonstrates the sphenoid sinuses?
1. Modified Waters (mouth open)
2. Lateral
3. PA axial

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

176) In the lateral projection of the scapula, the
1. vertebral and axillary borders are superimposed.
2. acromion and coracoid processes are superimposed.
3. patient may be examined in the erect position.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 1 and 3 only

179) Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in an AP projection of the cervical spine?
1. Intervertebral disk spaces
2. C3-7 cervical bodies
3. Apophyseal joints

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

180) The ossified portion of a long bone where cartilage has been replaced by bone is known as the

A. diaphysis
B. epiphysis
C. metaphysis
D. apophysis

C. metaphysis

181) Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding a PA axial projection of the paranasal sinuses?
1. The OML is elevated 15 degrees from the horizontal.
2. The petrous pyramids completely fill the orbits.
3. The frontal and ethmoidal sinuses are visualized.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 1 and 3 only

182) Tracheotomy is an effective technique used to restore breathing when there is

A. respiratory pathway obstruction above the larynx
B. crushed tracheal rings owing to trauma
C. respiratory pathway closure owing to inflammation and swelling
D. all of the above

A. respiratory pathway obstruction above the larynx.

183) To demonstrate the first two cervical vertebrae in the AP projection, the patient is positioned so that

A. the glabellomeatal line is vertical
B. the acanthiomeatal line is vertical
C. the line between the mentum and the mastoid tip is vertical
D. a line between the maxillary occlusal plane and the mastoid tip is vertical

D. a line between the maxillary occlusal plane and the mastoid tip is vertical.

184) In which position of the shoulder is the greater tubercle seen superimposed on the humeral head?

A. AP
B. External rotation
C. Internal rotation
D. Neutral position

C. Internal rotation

185) For the average patient, the CR for a lateral projection of a barium-filled stomach should enter

A. midway between the midcoronal line and the anterior abdominal surface.
B. midway between the vertebral column and the lateral border of the abdomen.
C. at the midcoronal line at the level of the iliac crest
D. perpendicular to the level of L2.

A. midway between the midcoronal line and the anterior abdominal surface.

186) Which of the following is an important consideration to avoid excessive metacarpophalangeal joint overlap in the oblique projection of the hand?

A. Oblique the hand no more than 45 degrees.
B. Use a support sponge for the phalanges
C. Clench the fist to bring the carpals closer to the IR.
D. Use ulnar flexion.

A. Oblique the hand no more than 45 degrees.

187) The relationship between the end of fractured long bones is referred to as

A. angulation
B. apposition
C. luxation
D. sprain

B. apposition

188) Which of the following positions is used to demonstrate vertical patellar fractures and the patellofemoral articulation?

A. AP
B. Lateral knee
C. Tangential patella
D. Tunnel view

C. Tangential patella

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