Marines landed in South Vietnam in what year?
In what battle did Marines earn the name "Teufehunden" or "Devil Dogs"?
What battle took place during the 1968 vetnamese holiday of Tet?
What was the largest all-Marine battle in History?
On 7 August 1942 the Marines landed on the beaches of Guadalcanal. What island chain was this?
Who held the Marine Corps Commandant position for 39 years?
Who is remembered for his performance at Cuzco Well (Guantanamo Bay, Cuba)?
Who earned the Medal of Honor for semaphoring for an emergency lift of the naval bombardment while under Spanish and American Shellfire?
Who is recognized for earning two Medals of Honor: (1) Chinese Boxer Rebellion and (2) First Caco War in Haiti?
Who served in Nicaragua through several periods of political unrest and rebellious activity?
Louis B. "chesty" Puller
Who became known as the "Tiger of the Mountains" in 1930?
Louis B. Puller
Who is recognized for Marine Prowess in aerial dogfights?
What Marine is immortalized in the now famous photograph taken of the second flag raising on Iwo Jima?
Ira H. Hayes
Who was the first enlisted woman in the Marine Corps?
Who was the first female general officer in the Marine Corps?
What date was the U.S. Marine Corps was established?
10 November 1775
The first Marine Corps Amphibious landing took place in what year?
The first Marine Corps Amphibious landing took place in what location?
New Providence Island in the Bahamas
Marines stormed the Barbary pirates' stronghold on Burma in what year?
The Shores of Tripoli were part of what campaign?
Who became the commander of the first Marine Corps Battalions?
Who commanded the attack on Harper's Ferry?
Robert E. Lee
The Marine Corps adopted the eagle, globe and anchor as its emblem in what year?
Who was responsible for adopting the eagle, globe and anchor as the Marine Corps' emblem?
In what year did Marines defend the American Legation in Peking China during the Boxer Rebellion?
Who was the Marine Corps first pilot?
What year did the Marine Corps establish its Aviation unit?
How many elements are there in the Marine Corps mission?
True or False, To provide detachments and organizations for service of the armed vessel of the Navy and security detachments for the protection of Naval stations and bases is the responsibility th U.S. Marine Corps?
One mission of the Marine Corps is to?
Perform such other duties as the President directs
How many chains of command exist within the Marine Corps?
Who is not found in operational chain of command?
Secretary of the Navy
The Cammandant of the Marine Corps is in what chain of command?
Who is the Commandant of the Marine Corps directly responsible to?
Secretary of the Navy
What is the Marine Corps principle organization for the conduct of all missions across the range of military operations?
A MEF consists of what subordinate comands?
CE, ACE, CSSE, GCE
What is the GCE of a MEB?
Re-enforced infantry regiment
The Marine Corps operating forces consist of?
Marine Corps Forces, Marine Corps Security Forces, and Marine Security guard detachments
Marine Security detachments provide forces to the who?
Department of State
What do Marine Corps security forces protect?
True or False, the BSSG is a component of the MEB MAGTF?
How many MEU (SOC) Command elements are in I MEF?
How many MEY (SOC) Command elements are in III MEF?
How many MEY (SOC) Command elements are in II MEF?
The structure of a SPMAGTF is task organized.
Which section is responsible for personnel and administration?
Which section is responsible for intelligence?
Which section is responsible for operations and training?
Which section is responsible for logistics?
Which section is responsible for communications?
Which section is responsible for plans?
Begin hand salutes how many paces away from the officers being saluted?
at least six. but not more than 30 paces away
What Marine Corps officer rank is equal to a lieutenant Commander in the Navy?
Which enlisted Marine Corps rank has an exploding bomb between its rockers and chevrons?
Master Gunnery Sergeant
What is the rank of Marine 0-9?
True of False, When meeting a foreign naval officer?
When passing an officer who is going in the same direction as you, you should salute and say what?
By your leave
The II Marine Expeditionary Force is based where?
North and South Carolina
What ranks are classified as a NCO?
The III Marine Expeditionary Force is based where?
Japan and Hawaii
The proper procedures for rendering honors while in driving a car is to:
Stop the car and sit at attention
If you are passing or being passed by uncased colors which are being paraded, presented or on formal display, when should you start saluting?
Six paces before
When boarding a ship between 0800 and sunset you should salute the national ensign located on the ship's?
Sailors should board small boats Senior first.
The I Marine Expeditionary Force is based where?
Southern California and Arizona
Headquarters, U.S. Marine Corps, consists of the Commandant of the Marine Corps and those staff agencies that advise and assist the Commandant in discharging those responsibilities prescibed by law and higher authority.
The mission of a ______ is to provide the combatant commanders with a forward deployed see based rapid crisis response capability to execute a full range of military operations.
What is the Air Combat component of a MEU?
Re-enforced Helo Squadron
What is the GCE element of a MEU?
Infantry Battalion (re-enforced)
Chief Petty Officer (E7-E9) may act as reporting seniors for member in which pay grades?
E4 and below
A SPMAGTF is normally used in what situations?
Disaster relief, Humanitarian assistance, and Security operations
Who is responsible for performance couseling program?
Delegation of reporting senior authority is an actual transfer of that authority, and not merely an authorization to sign "by direction authority"?
What type of performance evaluation/fitness report is submitted annually?
What type of performance evaluation/fitness report may be used to document significant performance during temporary additional duty?
For the majority of Sailors and officers, most of the performance trait grades should be in the ___ to ___ range.
2.0 to 4.0
The comment block of the performance evaluation/fitness reports should be based on?
For enlisted personnel, a recommendation of "Promotable" or above is the Commanding Officer's official recommendation for advancement, even if made by a delegater reporting senior.
What promotion recommendations is equal to 3.8 performance mark?
A rater should be at a minimum of what pay grade.
Using the BUPERS supplied report preparation will prevent all incorrect entries.
What promotion recommendation is equal to 3.4 performance mark?
Misconduct reporting may be used as punishment.
Members have a right to submit statements concerning their performance evaluation/fitness reports for up to how long.
The left, right, bottom margins of a standard letter should be ____?
The subject line of a naval letter should be in what format?
Normal word order, with all letters capitalized
The signature line of a standard letter should start on the ___ line after the last sentence.
Same page endorsements may omit.
Both SSIC, and Subject line
Every new page endorsement must ____.
Repeats the basics letter SSIC, Identify the basic letter in the "endorsement number" line, and Use the basic letter's subject as its own
A memorandum provides a ____ way to correspond within an activity or between DON activities.
On a plain paper memorandum the word "MEMORANDUM" is typed on the ___ line down from the top of the page.
What service record page contains "Dependency Application/Record of Emergency Date"?
What service record page contains "Enlisted Qualification History"?
What service record page contains "History of Assignments"?
What service record page contains "Administrative Remarks"?
A special court-martial can be composed of a military judge alone, or a military judge and not less than ___ active duty armed service members.
In a special or genral court-martial, if the accused is an enlisted member he may request that at least ___ of the members of the court be enlisted.
Who is responsible for upholding the UCMJ?
Officers, Military Police, and all members of the Armed Forces
The main purpose of UCMJ is to ___.
Promote good order and discipline
In time of war, a reporter accompanying an Armed Force in the field is subject to the UCMJ:
What listed groups are not always subject to the UCMJ.
Members of the Air National Guard
How many different types of courts-martial are there?
True or False, A summary court-martial may try Officers for capital offenses?
A member has a right to refuse a summary court-martial except while aboard ship.
If a member considers the punishment during NJP to unjust or disproportionate, he or she has ___ days to appeal.
A general court-martial can be composed of a military judge alone, or a military judge and not less than ___ active duty armed service members.
True or false NJP can be given for all offenses of the UCMJ.
In a special or general court-martial, if the accused is an officer who is eligible to be members of the court?
A service member may consent to acts of hazing (initiation) in order to be accepted into the unit.
Give an example of fraternization?
Calling seniors by their first name, An E7 dating an E5 not in his chain of command, and An officer dating his civilian secretary.
Sexual harassment is unacceptable and unprofessional behavior an only occurs against women.
Which section of the EDVR contains individual security data?
Which section of the EDVR contains alphabetic listing of all enlisted members assigned to the activity?
Which section of the EDVR contains NEC billet and personnel inventory?
Which section of the EDVR contains officer and enlister personnel in a TAD status?
What does ORM stand for?
Operational Risk Management
A condition with the potential to cause personal injury or death, property damage or mission degradation is the definition of a ___.
An expression of possible loss in terms of severity and probability is the definition of ___ ?
The process of detecting hazards and assessing associated risk is known as ____.
There are how many steps in the ORM process?
What are the ORM principles.
Accept risk when benefits out weigh the cost, Anticipate and manage risk by planning, and make risk decisions at the f
Personnel exposed to gunfire in a combat situation shall wear hearing protective devices.
Personnel exposed to gunfire in a training situation shall wear hearing protective devices.
Personnel exposed to artilery, mortar, or missile firing, shall wear hearing protection devices under any circumstance.
What does the acronym "PPE" stand for?
Personal Protective Equipment
What are examples of PPE?
Hard Hats, Safety Shoes, and Goggles
Any material that, because of its quantity, concentration, or physical or chemical characteristic, may pose a substantial hazard to human health or the environment when incorrectly used is classified as ___.
Who is required to provide instruction in MSDS understanding and use?
What information is found on a MSDS?
Health and safety hazards, Safe handing procedures, and composition
How many common elements are found in a combat environment?
What are the nine common elements found in a combat environment?
Violence, casualties, confusion, isolation, communication (breakdown), fatigue and discomfort, fear (stress and mental fatigue), continuous (operations), and homesickness
What characterisics enable Marine and Sailors to overcome fear?
Both Discipline and Motivation
The technical, tactical, and physical ability to perform the job or mission is known as ___?
What is the acronym used in the troop leading steps?
What is the last of the troop leading steps?
How many troop leading steps are there?
I am an American. fighting in the armed forces which guard my country and our way of life. I am prepared to give my life in their defense is what article of the code of conduct?
I will never surrender of my own free will. If in command, I will never surrender the members of my command while they still have the means to resist is what article of the code of conduct?
If I am captured, I will continue to resist by all means available. I will make every effort to escape and aid others to escape. I will accept neither parole nor special favors from the enemy is what article of the code of conduct?
If I become a prisoner of war, I will keep faith with my fellow prisoners. I will give no information nor take part in any action which might be harmful to my comrades is what article of the code of conduct?
When questioned, should I become a prisoner of war, I am required to give name, rank, service number, and date of birth. I will evade answering further questions to the utmost of my ability is what article of the code of conduct?
I will never forget that I am an Amirican. fighting for freedom, responsible for my actions, and dedicated to the priciples which made my country free. I will trust in my God and in the United Stated of America is what article of the code of conduct?
A POW has the right to all off the bellow except what?
The right to send e-mail
A POW has the right to have a copy of all camp regulations in a language which they understand.
True or False, A POW os obligated to give his captors his Unit?
There are ___ general first aid rules.
In a tactical situation, patients whose injuries require minor professional treatment that can by done on an outpatient or ambulatory basis. These personnel can be returned to duty in a short period of time is what class of patients?
Triage is a French word meaning to ____.
In a tactical situation, patients whose injuries require immediate life-sustaining measures or are of a moderate nature. Initially, they require a minimum amount of time, personnel, and supplies is what class of patients?
In a tactical situation, patients for whom definitive treatment can be delayed without jeorpardy to life or loss of limb are what class of patients?
In a tactical situation, Patients whose wounds or injuries would require extensive treatment beyond the immediate medical capabulities. Treatment of these casualties would be to the detriment of others is what class of patients?
In a non-tactical situation, patients with correctable life-threatening illnesses or injuries such as respiratory arrest or obstruction, open chest or abdomen wounds, femur fractures, or critcal or complicated burns is what class or patients?
In a non-tactical situation, Patients with serious but non0life-threatening illnesses or injuries such as moderate blood loss, open or multiple fractures (open increases priority), or eye injuries is what class of patients?
In a non-tactical situation, patients with minor injuries such as soft tissue injuries, simple fractures, or minor to moderate burns is what class of patients?
In a non-tactical situation, patients who are dead or fatally injured. Fata; injuries include exposed brain matter, decapitation, and incineration is what class of patients?
When performing a primary survey is a you should be concerned with what is referred to as the ___ process.
Ideally the ABCDE steps, process, and transport decision should be completed within ___ minutes of your arrival on the scene.
During shock, eyes may be glassy and dull and the pupils may be ___.
True or False, The best way to control external bleeding is Pressure dressing?
A tourniquet should not be made out of what of?
How should a victim with a sucking chest would be transported if on a stretcher?
On the affected side
With an abdominal wound you should?
Wrap the intestine in a dry sterile dressing
You should not remove clothing adhering to a burn.
On a ___ degree burn, the epidermal layer is irritated, reddened, and tingling.
A figure-eight bandage may be used to support what kind of fracture?
If available, you should treat what kind of fracture with a Hare of Thomas half-ring splint?
Both Thigh fracture and Lower leg fracture
A ___ degree burn is a full-thickness injury penetrating into muscle and fatty connective tissues.
A ___ degree burn is characterized by epiderman blisters, mottled appearance, and a red base.
What is the most common condition cased by working or exercising is hot environments?
What is the most serious type of heat causality?
A patient suffering from heat ___, you should give him plenty of cool (not cold) water to drink, adding about one teaspoon of salt to a liter pr quart of water.
Frosbite occurs when ice crystals form in the skin or deeper tissues after exposure to a temperature of ___ degrees or lower.
The first system of hypothermia is ___.
Immersion foot, results from prolonged exposure to wet cold at temperatures ranging from just above freezing to 50 degree and may also occur in the hands.
When purifying water under field conditions, you should draw water upstream and put how many iodine tablets in a 2 quart canteen of clean water?
When purifying water under field conditions, you should draw water upstream and put ow many iodine tablets in a 2 quart canteen of cloudy water?
You should wait a total of how many minutes before drinking water, purified with iodine tablets?
A cat hole is approximately what size?
1 foot wide and 1 foot deep
A straddle trench may be used for maximum of how many days in a bivouac site.
A straddle approximately what size?
4 foot long, 2 1/2 feet deep, and 1 foot wide
To walk my post in a military manner, keeping always on alert and observing everything that takes place within sight or hearing is general order number ___.
To quit my post only when properly relieved is general order number ___.
To call the corporal of the guard in any case not covered by instructions is general order number ___.
To salute all officers and all colors and standards not cased is general order number ___.
What are the duties of the interior guard?
Preserve order, Protect property, and Enforce regulation with the jurisdiction of command
When standing interior guard, who is the first person in your chain of cammand?
Corporal of the guard
There are how many condition that justify the use of deadly force?
Under what circumstances is deadly force authorized?
Defending yourself and Prevent crimes agains people
Deadly force may be used to apprehend or to prevent the escape of a person reasonably believed to have committed an offense involving national security, or to prevent the escape of a designated prisoner.
The unlawful use or threatened use of violence to force or to intimidate governments or societies to achieve political, religious, or ideological objectives is know as what?
A general threat of possible terriorist activity agaist installations and personnel is TREATCON condition ___.
An increased and more predictable threat of terrorist action is TREATCON condition ___.
An incident has occured or that intelligence has been received indicating that some form of terrorist action is imminent is TREATCON condition ___.
A terrorist attack has occured or that intelligence indicates that a terrorist action against a specific location is likely is TREATCON condition ___.
What are preventive measure an individual can take to protect themselves from a terrorist attack?
Avoid traveling alone, Park in well-lighted areas with multiple exists, Vary transportation methods, routes, and times
What should you avoid in protecting your self form a terries attract?
Maintain a low profile, Remain vigilant, Protect your automobile
The determination by an authorized official that official information requires, in the interests of national security, a specific degree of protection against unauthorized disclosure is known as what?
An unauthorized disclosure of classified information to one or more persons who do not possess a current valid security clearance is known as what?
What is the highest level of security classifications?
What is the lowest level of security classification?
What should be done upon finding unsecured classified material?
Protect it from further compromise and notify the security manager
What method might a foreign agents use in collecting information?
Both Eaves dropping on electronic communications and Reading news releases
What is the maximum transmission ranges for a man Pack SINGAR radio on low power?
200 M - 400 M
There are how many different modes of operation for the Single channel Ground and Airborne Radio System.
What is the maximum transmission ranges for a man pack SINGAR radio on medium power?
400 M - 5 KM
What is the maximum transmission ranges for a man pack SINGAR radio on high power?
5KM - 10KM
What is the non-rechargeable hold up battery?
What is the non-rechardgeable (lithium) primary man pack radio battery?
What is the rechargeable man pack radio secondary power battery?
What word is used in the phonetic alphabet to say the letter H?
What word is used in the phonetic alphabet to say the letter W?
What word is used in the phonetic alphabet to say the letter S?
What word is used in the phonetic alphabet to say the letter T?
What word is used in the phonetic alphabet to say the letter M?
What is used to clean the audio connector pins on the radio and handset?
In the acronym FITAL what does the F stand for?
In the acronym FITAL what does the T stand for?
In the acronym FITAL what does the A stand for?
What is the maximum effective range of an M9 service pistol?
What is the magazine round capacity of a M9 service pistol?
What condition code does not apply the M9 service pistol?
What is the maximum effective range of an M16A2 service rifle for a point target?
What is the maximum range of an M16A2 service rifle?
What is the caliber of the M16A2 service rifle?
What is the maximum range of an M9 service pistol?
If there is a bullet stuck in the bore of the M16A2 service rifle, what should you should?
Turn the weapon into the armorer
What is the magazine round capacity of a M16A2 service rifle?
What is the maximum effective range for a point target for the MK19 machine gun?
A M203 grenade launcher is a lightwieght, single shot, breech-loaded, pump action shoulder-fired weapon attached to what type of weapon?
What is the maximum effective range for a fire team sized area target for the M203 grenade launcher?
What is the maximum effective range for a vehicle or weapon point target for the M203 grenade launcher?
What is the minimum safe firing range for a high explosive round during combat, for the M203 grenade launcher?
When firing the M249 (SAW) at a sustained rate of fire of 85 rounds per minute, fired in 3 to 5 round burst, 4 to 5 seconds between burst, requires barrel changes every how many minutes?
No barrel changes required
When firing the M249 (SAW) at a rapid rate of fire of 200 rounds per minute, fired in 6 to 8 round burst, 2 to 3 seconds between burst, requires barrel changes every hoe many minutes?
The M240G fires what caliber of rounds?
What occurs when the heat of the barrel is high enough to cause the propellant powder inside the round to ignite even though the primer has not been struck?
What occurs when the cartridge primer has detonated after being struck by the firing pin but some problem with the propellant powder causes it to burn too slowly and this delays the firing of the projectile?
What is it called when a gun continues t fire after you release the trigger?
Run away gun
The M2 50 CAl machicne gun is made by who?
The M2 50 CAL machine gun total system weighs approximately how much?
The grazing range of a M2 50 CAL machine gun is what?
The MK19 is designed to deliver accurate, intense, and decisive firepower against evemy personnel and ___.
Lightly armored vehicles
The MK19 machine is a self-powered, air-cooled, belt-fed, blowback operated weapon.
What is the bore diameter of a MK19 machine gun?
What are methods used for unaided observation techniques?
Off-center vision method, Scanning method, and Strip method
What should you not do to preserve night vision when subjected to lighted areas or illumination?
Use sun glasses
What acronym is used for and intelligence information report?
What does the "S" stand for in an intelligence information report?
What does the "A" stand for in an intelligence information report?
What acronym is used to identify the 5 paragraph operations order?
What does the "E" stand for in a 5 paragraph operations order?
What does the "C" stand for in a 5 paragraph operations order?
Command and Signal
What does the "S" stand for in the acronym SAFE when constructing a fighting position?
What does the "A" stand for in the acronym SAFE when constructing a fighting position?
What does the "F" stand for in the acronym SAFE when construtcting a fighing position?
Field of fire
What does the "E" stand for in the acronym SAFE when constructing a fighting position?
An individual fighting positing position should be at least how deep?
One disadvantaged of a two-man fighting hole is that it provides less protection against strafing?
What is the purpose of covering all metal areas and taping up all loose straps of 782 gear during combat patrolling?
To silence the gear
The helmet may not be used for what purposes?
To hammer with it, To heat water in it, and to dig with
Anything that you can use to keep yourself, your equipment, and your position from looking like what they really are is called what?
Anything that gives protection from bullets, fragments of exploding rounds, flame, nuclear effects, and biological and chemical agents is called what?
Anything that hides you from enemy observation is called what?
What type of individual movement is used when cover/concealment are available and greater speed of movement is required?
What is the most common mistake made when observing around the corner?
Allowing the weapon to extend beyond to corner
Open areas such as streets, alleys, fields, and parks are known as ___.
What MEDEVAC category is assigned to emergency cases that should be evacuated as soon as possible in order to save life, limb, or eyesight?
What MEDEVAC category is assigned to sick and wounded personnel requiring prompt medical care.
What MEDEVAC category is assigned to sick and wounded personnel requiring evacuation but whose condition is not expected to deteriorate significantly?
What MEDEVAC category is assigned to patients for whom evacuation by medical vehicle is a matter of medical convenience rather than necessity.
The size of a landing zone required for landing is determined by?
Type of helo and Obstruction height
True or False, When selecting a helo landing site, you should be concerned the wind?
What are good locations for when selecting a landing zone?
Hill tops and Flat open spaces
The peace time MEDEVAC request differs from the wartime request in what 2 line item areas?
6 and 9
How many lines are found in a war and peace time MEDEVAC request?
Which line of the MEDEVAC request the patients nationality and status?
Which line of a wartime MEDEVAC request the method of marking the pick up site?
What is the Marine Corps attract hellicopter?
This type of helicopter can be used for MEDEVACs and equipped with up to 15 litters.
The Ch 46 Sea Knight's primary function is ___?
A medium lift assault support helicopter
A CH-53E Sea Stallion can carry how many passengers with centerline seats installed?
What type of helicopters were used to rescue Air Force Captain Scoot O'Grady in Bosnia in June 1995?
The primary mission of this helicopter is for airborne command and control.
The MV-22B Osprey is scheduled to replace what Marine Corps helicopter?
CH46 E and CH53 D
What type of aircraft is use to provide active radar jamming support to attack aircraft and ground units?
Which aircrafts primary function is to attack and destroy surface targets under day and night visual conditions?
What type of aircraft is used for inflict refueling/tactical transport?
KC 130 Hercules
What type of aircraft is use to intercept and destroy enemy aircraft and surface targets?
Which class of ship serves as the centerpiece of a multi-ship Amphibious Readiness Group (ARG)?
The ___ are the largest amphibious ships in the world?
LHD Wasp class
What type of ship is configured as a flagship and provide extensive comman, control, and communications facilities to support an Amphibious Task Force Commander.
Which ships primary mission is to dock transport and launch the Navy's Landing Craft and other amphibious craft and vehicles with crew and Marines into potential trouble spots in the world?
The landing craft air cushion (LCAC) is a high-speed, over-the-beach fully amphibious landing craft capable of carrying a ___ ton payload.
The landing craft air cushion (LCAC) is not capable of carrying a M-1 tank.
What type of ships are used as Marltime Prepositioning Ships for the Marine Corps.
Hospital ships are operated by who?
Military Sealift Command
Hospital are to provide acute medical and surgical for which branch/braches of service?
Army, Air Force, and Marine Corps
What are examples of a MOOTW?
Arms control, Peace Operations, and Strikes and raids
Operation Full Accounting is an example of what type of MOOTW?
The evacuation of U.S. and foreign national personnel is known as what type of MOOTW?
Following the Inchon landing, U.S. and Republic of Korea (ROK) forces recaptured the South Korean capital from the North Koreans. This is an example of ___.
Noncombatants have little or no impact on urban warfare.
What are principles of OMFTS?
Pits strenght agains weakness, Focuses on and operation objective, and Use the sea as maneuver space
When splinting a broken bone at or near the elbow __.
Splint it in the position found
During combat lay a victiom with a sucking chest wound ___.
On their injured side
Clothing stuck to a burn should be __.
Left in place
A Class II (Tactical) triage patient would have what type of injuries?
Requires immediate life-sustaining measures
Once a triage classification is assigned, it will not change until the patient is medevaced to CONUS.
The efforts of an individual used against another to cause death, substantial risk of death, or serious bodily harm is called ___?
There are ___ conditiond that justify the use of deadly force.
One of the conditions that justifies the use of deadly force is to prevent crimes against people.
How many basic THREATCON conditions are there?
A general threat of possible known terriost activity against installations and personnel is ___.
An incident has occured or intelligence has been received indication that some form of terrorist activity is imminent describes ___.
An increased and more predictable threat of terrorist action.
A terrorist attack has occured or intelligence indicates that a terrorist action against a specific location is likely.
Access is the ability and opportunity to obtain knowledge or possession of classified information.
An unauthorized disclosure of classified information to one or more persons who do not posses a valid clearance.
Unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause exceptionally grave damage to the national security.
There are how many levels of security classifications?
Classification level applied to information whose unauthorized diclosure could cause serious damage.
Disclosure of performance characteristics such as design, test, and production data of U.S. munitions and weapons systems.
Terrorists who sought to topple governments, influence top level decisions, and gain recognition for their cause is defined as?
Long range goals of terrorism
What is the second mode of operation for the SINGCARS radio?
Maximum range on the SINGCARS depends on?
Weather, Surrounding noise, and Location
In order for you o assemble the manpack radio you must first check and install what?
You must use the RT in position ___ so that the radio system (SINGCARS) retains long range capability.
When disassembling the manpack radio you must FIRST remove the ___.
Both handset and antenna
If you made a mistake loading frequencies on the SINGCARS radio, you would press ___ to delete the last digit entered.
How many weapon safety rules are there?
The chamber is empty, a magazine is inserted, the slide is forward and safety is on.
What is the mazimum range of the M9 service pistol?
What is the maximum effective range of the M9 service pistol?
What is the lenght of the M9 service pistol?
Magazine removed, chamber is empty, the slide is forward, and the safety is on is condition 3.
M16A2 service rifle has a maximum range of ___.
What is the weight of the M16A2 service rifle without the magazine?
Condition 2 applis to the M9 pistol, but not to the M16A2 rifle.
What is the rate of fire (sustained) on the M2 50 caliber machine gun?
40 rounds or less per minute
How many rounds can an M9 service pistol magazine hold?
How many rounds can an M16A2 rifle magazine hold?
True or False. The technique of viewing an object using daytime central vision is effective at night.
The acronym ___ is used to remember the format for intelligence reporting.
What does the scronym SMEAC stand for?
Situation, mission, execution, administration and logistic, command and signals
What hand and arm signal is executed by extending both arms downward and to the side at an angle of 45 degrees below the horizontal and palms to the front?
What hand and arm signal is executer by extending both arms toward the squad leader, palms of the hand down; distinctly moving the hand up and down several times from the wrist holding the arm steady?
If the leader is facing in the direction of the forward movement and the right arm is lowered, what signal is this?
Raising both arms lateral until horizontal, arms and hands extended and palms down is what signal?
Skirmishes left or right
True or False. Raising fist to shoulder level and thrusting it several times in the desired direction is hasty ambush left/right.
When building an individual fighting position it should be at least --- deep to the fire step.
The soil in a two-man fighting position is piled around the hole as a paraper approximately ___ feet thick and ___ foot high.
3 feet thick and 1/2 foot high
___ is anything that you can use to keep yourself, your equipment, and your positions from looking like what they really are.
___ is anything that hides you from enemy observation.
___ is anything that gives protection from bullets, fragments of exploding rounds, flame, nuclear effects, biological, and chemical agents.
Use ___ when cover and or concealment are available.
When cover and concealment are scarce, ___ is preferred.
Sick and wounded personnel requiring prompt medical care are ___ MEDEVAC.
___ MEDEVAC is assigned to sick and wounded personnel requiring evacuation, but whose condition is not expected to deterirate significantly.
Assigned to emergency cases that should be evacuated as soon as possible and within a maximum of 2 hours in order to save life, limb, or eye sight.
What is the primary function of the AH-1W Cobra?
What is the primary function of the UH-1N Huey?
What is the primary function of the MV-22B Osprey?
Amphibious assault/transport of troops
What is the primary function of the CH-53E Super Sea Stallion?
Transportation of heavy equipment and supplies
What is the primary function of the CH-46E Sea Knight?
Medium lift assault support
The ___ is a multi-engine, vertical takeoff and landing tilt rotor aircraft developed for special operation missions worldwide.
What helicopter can accommodate 15 litters and attendants for medical evacuation?
CH-53D Sea stallion
This attack helicopter is capable of operation in day, night, and limited visibility.
What helicopter is capable of lifting 16 tons at sea level, transporting the load 50 nautical miles and returning?
CH-46E Super Sea Stallion
What helicopter has a range of 690 miles and speed of 130 knots?
CH-53D Sea Stallion
Primary function is to attack and destroy surface targets under day and night visual conditions.
AV-8B Harrier II
Its primary function is for in-flight refueling.
Intercept and destroy enemy aircraft under all-weather conditions is the primary function of the ___.
The F-18D Hornet has a cruise speed of subsonic to transonic.
The AV-8B Harrier II has a cruise speed of ___.
Subsonic to transonic
The Wasp-class LHD are the largest amphibious ships in the world.
The primary war-fighting mission of the ___ is to land and sustain Marines on any shore during hostilities.
This class of ship compines the functions of three different classes of ships.
Its primary mission is o dock, transport, and launch the Navy's LCAC and other amphibious crafts and vehicles.
The ___ transports weapon systems, cargo, and personnel of the assault element of the MAGTF both from ship to shore and across the beach.
These two hospital ships are operated by the Military Sealift Commans, what are they?
USNS Mercy and USNS Comfort
There are ___ Maritime Prepositioning Ships which are specially assigned to transport supplies for the U.S.Marine Corps.
These ships are configures as a flagship and provide extensive command and control and communication facilities.
Each of the ships os the TAK-3000 class carries enough cargo to support a MAGTF for ___ days.
During military operations other than war (MOOTW), who is the lead agency in support of humanitarian assistance?
Military operations other than war (MOOTW) are always conducted outside CONUS.
The United Nations is the only agency that can verify or seize weapons of mass destruction.
The U.S. government may provide antiterrorism assistance to foreign countries under the provisions of ___ of the Foreign Assistance Act of 1961.
When combating terrorism, who is the lead agency for incidents that occur within the United States?
Department of Justice
When combating terrorism, who is the lead agent for incidents aboard aircraft "in flight" within the special jurisdiction of the United States?
Department of Transportation
Who is responsible for declaring a foreign disaster or situation that requires humanitarian assistance?
U.S. Ambassador in Country
___ are military operations to support diplomatic efforts to reach a long-term political settlement.
Protection of shipping includes ___.
Both Coastal sea control and Harbor defense
Strikes are offensive operations conducted to inflict damage or destroy an objective for political purpose.
An example of a strike operation is ___.
Operation Urgent Fury
MOUT is an acronym for ___.
Military Operations on Urbanized Terrain
Recent forecasts based on population statistics and worldwide migration predict that ___ of the world's population will reside in our urbanized areas by the year 2025.
What is the main reason for Marines to be the force of choice for MOUT?
Both Adaptability and Survivability
What are an example of MOUT?
Quang Tri I, Quang Tri II, and Beirut II
True or False. Large concentrations of civilians can greatly impede tactical operations.
Non combatant can have the following effects on military operations.
Mobility, firepower, and obstacle employment
Standard NATO markers with yellow background and red lettering is ___.
Standard NATO markers with blue background with red lettering is ___.
What mask consists of a face blank, dual voicemitter assemblies, a filter canister, inlet and outlet valves and a water drinking system?
M40 field protective mask
When sounding the alarm for Chemical/Biological attack the word gas is repeated ___.
How long do you have to don and clear your gas mask?
MOPP level ___ is the condition that exists when a Sailor has all of his or her MOPP gear available but is not wearing it.
MOPP level ___ is when the over garment is worn, mask is carried, gloves are carried, and boots are worn.
MOPP level ___ is when the over garmets are worn, boots are worn, mask is worn, and gloves are carried.
MOPP level ___ is when gloves are worn, mask is worn, boots worn, and over garments are worn.
Odorless, almost colorless liquids varying greatly in viscosity and volatility are characteristics of ___.
What is the recommended treatment for a Lewistite casualty?
BAL and Morphine
___ is the therapy for nerve agent casualties.
Give nerve agent antidote for preventive purpose before contemplated exposure nerve agent.
When injecting atropine, hole the injector firmly in place for at least ___ seconds.
Mustard (HD), Nitrogen mustrad (HN) and Lewisite (L) are examples of ___.
There is no specific antidote treatment for Mustard poisoning.
Violent convulsions after 20 to 30 seconds and respiratory failure with cessation of hear action within a few minutes are symptoms of ___.
Hydrocyanic acid (AC) and Canogen Chloride (CK) are commonly referred as ___.
How many sets of Nerve agent antidotes do you administer in rapid succession?
These agents are dispersed as aerosols and produce their effects by inhalation or by direct action on the eyes.
Their primary use is to obscure visionand to hide targets or areas.
Chloracetophenone (CN) is more potent than Orthochlorobenzilidine Malanonitrile (CS).
___ is a colorless gas and smells like new-mown hay or freshly cut grass.
CS is more potent than CN.
The ___ are the most vulnerable part of the body to Bustard gas.
How long do you have to wait before administering the next set of atrphine injections?
10 to 15 minutes
What are the three levels of decontamination?
Immediate, operational, and thorough
If the facepiece on the field protective mask collapses, consider it airtight.
Pain and a gritting feeling in the eyes accompanied by spastic blinking of the eyelids are symptoms of ___ exposure.
When exposed to Cyanide what is the maximum number of amyl nitrates you can administer to a victim?
CG does not represent a hazard of long duration.
Making irrational decisions, statements, of hallucinations are symptoms of ___.
What is another term for tear gas?
First aid for lacrimators is generally not necessary.
True or False, CS is widely used by the military as a riot-control agent?
What are the principal agents in the vomiting agent group?
DA, DM, DC
You should always put the date and time of detection on the front of as standard NATO markers.
Standard NATO markers with white background with black lettering is ___.
Standard NATO markers with red background with yellow lettering and stripe is ___.
The letters GAS are on which standard NATO marker?
What is an example of a NBC alarm?
Metal on Metal, Sirend, and Intermitent horns
Using M8 or M9 paper will take how long to use?
What does the acronym MOPP stand for?
Mission Oriented Protective Posture
M9 paper will turn what color when it comes in contact with contamination?
Light pink/reddish brown
M8 paper will turn what color when it comes in contact Nerve agaents?
yellow/gold and dark green
M8 paper will turn what color when it comes in contact with blister agents?
When should thorough decon be started?
When mission allows
Skin decon, personnel wiped down and operator's spray down is techniques used in this type of decontamination.
You should react to a gas attack in ___ seconds or less.
You should take a deep breath before donning your gas mask.
You should place your weapon be side you or under your body with the sling wrapped tightly around your arm and the muzzle angled away from your face when reacting to a gas attack.
The land navigation guide helps you rapidly identify major lands forms and it is normally found where on maps?
Lower right margin
On land navigation maps, what is represented by closed contour lines that have thick marks pointing toward low ground?
Land navigation maps are usually named after what?
Land navigation map sheet numbers are located where?
Upper right margin and lower left margin
On land navigation maps a scale note 1:50,000 indicates that one inch on the map equals how many inches on the ground?
A land navigation map with a scale note 1:25,000 gives more detail than a map scale note 1:50,000.
In land navigation what indicated the angular relationship of true north?
In land navigation what is used to convert map distance to ground distance?
In land navigation what illustrates and identifies the topographic symbols?
In land navigation, what are a series of straight lines intersected at right angles and forming a series of squares?
Most common military land navigation maps contains grid squares that measure meters?
1000 by 1000
Basic land navigation map reading rule indicates that a map should be read?
Right and up
In land navigation, a four digit grid coordinate locates a point on a map within how many meters?
In land navigation, a six digit coordinate locates a point on a map within how many meters?
In land navigation, a eight digit grid coordinate locates a point on a map within how many meters?
In land navigation, a line from any point on the earth's surface to the North Pole is known as?
In land navigation, True North may be located by locating?
In land navigation, what is used almost exclusively when navigating witout a compass?
In land navigation, what is shown on a map by contour lines forming concentric circles?
In land navigation, what is normally represented on a map as an hourglass or by figure-eight shaped contour lines?
In land navigation, what is normally represented as a series of hills that are connected to each other near the top?
In land navigation, what is a short, continuous sloping line of higher ground?
In land navigation, what is a short, continuous sloping line of low ground, normally cut into the side os a ridge or hill?
In land navigation, what is represented by a low point in the ground or a sinkhole?
What part of the lensatic compass protects the floating dial and the glass encasement. It also contains the sighting wire and two luminous sighting dots for night navigation.
What is mounted on a pivot so that it rotates freely when the compass is held level?
On a lensatic compass, what houses the floating dial and contains a fixed black index line?
The rear sight of a lensatic compass must be open a minimum of how many degrees to allow the floating dial to float freely?
You are able to follow a grid azimuth with a compass.
The angular difference between grid North and magnetic North is called what?
What diagram displays the difference beween grid and magnetic North?
When orienting a map, with a compass, it's important to remember that compasses measure what azimuths?
In close order drill, an arrangement of elements on line, in column, or in any other prescibed manner is know as a what?
A line of Marines or vehicles placed side by side is known as a what?
An individual, squared, section, platoon, company, or other unit which is part of a larger unit is known as what?
The lateral space between elements on the same line is known as what?
What term means to regulate the interval, direction, alignment and cadence on a base file?
A rhythmic rate of march at a uniform step is known as what?
When conducting close order drill, what is known as the rise and fall in pitch and tone in the voice?
In close order drill, what command indicates the movement to be executed?
In close order drill, what command indicates when a movement is to be executed?
Command of execution
In a color guard the junior color guard carries what?