Pharmacology Exam Two - Part 2

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Unstable Angina:

An early stage of progressive coronary Artery disease is ____ ____.

Unstable angina:

With ____ ____, pain increases in severity as does the frequency of attacks.

Vasospastic Angina:

With ____ _____ , pain happens at rest and without any precipitating cause, and follows a regular pattern

Vasospastic Angina:

___ ___ is caused by spasms of smooth muscles around artherosclerotic coronary arteries.

Increase blood flow:

One objective of antianginal therapy is to ____ ____ ____ to ischemic heart muscle.

Prevent or delay:

One objective of antianginal therapy is to ___ __ ___ a myocardial infarction.

Functional capacity:

One objective of antianginal therapy is to improve the patient's ___ ___ with as few side effects as possible.

Decrease myocardial oxygen demand:

One objective of antianginal therapy is to ____ ____ ____ ____.

Decrease; duration; intensity:

Antianginal therapy minimizes the frequency of attacks and ___ the ___ and ___ of anginal pain.

Nitroglycerin; oral:

____ is used for symptomatic treatment of ischemic heart conditions (angina); large first pass effect for ____ forms.

Nitroglycerin; heart failure; pulmonary; hypertensive:

____ in IV form is used for BP control in preioperative hypertension, treatment of ___ ___, ischemic pain, ____ edema associated w/acute MI's, and ____ emergencies.

Isosorbide dinitrate; Isordil;

____ ____ (aka _____, sorbitrate & dilatrate) is a nitrate used pharmacologically as a vasodilator, in angina pectoris, a condition which is known to involve decreased blood supply leading to poor healing. It is also used as a direct vasodilator to treat congestive heart failure.

Isosorbide mononitrate:

____ _____ is a drug used principally in the treatment of angina pectoris and acts by dilating the blood vessels so as to reduce the blood pressure. It is sold under the trade name Imdur.

Atenolol; Tenormin:

____ ( ____) is used alone or in combination with other medications to treat high blood pressure. It also is used to prevent angina and improve survival after a heart attack. Atenolol is in a class of medications called beta blockers. It works by relaxing blood vessels and slowing heart rate to improve blood flow and decrease blood pressure.

Metoprolol; lopressor:

____ ( ___ ) is used alone or in combination with other medications to treat high blood pressure. It also is used to prevent angina and to improve survival after a heart attack. Extended-release metoprolol also is used in combination with other medications to treat heart failure. Metoprolol is in a class of medications called beta blockers. It works by relaxing blood vessels and slowing heart rate to improve blood flow and decrease blood pressure.

Propranolol; Inderal:

____ ( ___ ) is a non-selective beta blocker mainly used in the treatment of hypertension.

Nadolol; Corgard:

____ ( ____ ) is used alone or in combination with other medications to treat high blood pressure. It is also used to prevent angina and is in a class of medications called beta blockers. It works by relaxing blood vessels and slowing heart rate to improve blood flow and decrease blood pressure.

Beta Blockers; angina:

____ ____ can be used to treat ____, hypertension, migraine headaches and after Mi's.

Beta Blockers; systolic; dysrhythmias, asthma:

___ ___ are contraindicated with ___ heart failure, serious ____, bronchial ____ and diabetes.

Verapamil; Calan:

____ ( ____ ) is used to treat high blood pressure and to control angina. The immediate-release tablets are also used alone or with other medications to prevent and treat irregular heartbeats. Verapamil is in a class of medications called calcium-channel blockers. It works by relaxing the blood vessels so the heart does not have to pump as hard. It also increases the supply of blood and oxygen to the heart and slows electrical activity in the heart to control the heart rate.

Dilitiazem; cardizem:

____ ( ___ ) is used to treat high blood pressure and to control angina and is in a class of medications called calcium-channel blockers. It works by relaxing the blood vessels so the heart does not have to pump as hard. It also increases the supply of blood and oxygen to the heart.

Nifedipine; Procardia:

____ ( ___ ) is used to treat high blood pressure and to control angina and is in a class of medications called calcium-channel blockers. It works by relaxing the blood vessels so the heart does not have to pump as hard. It also increases the supply of blood and oxygen to the heart.

Calcium Channel blockers:

___ ___ ___ prevent muscle contractions and promote relaxation of smooth muscles that surround coronary arteries.

Calcium:

____ plays an important role in the excitation process of the heart, vascular smooth muscle cells and skeletla muscles.

Calcium Channel blockers; hypertension:

___ ___ ___ are the first line agents for treatment of angina, ____, and supraventricular tachycardia.

Atrial Fibrillation:

Calcium channel blockers are used for the short-term management of ____ ____ and flutter.

Nitroglycerin:

____ is to be taken at the first hint of anginal pain; one tablet every 5 minutes until chest pain subsides; no more that 3 tabs in 15 minutes.

Angina; before meals:

Calcium channel blockers are used for maintence of ____ and should be taken ___ ___.

Beta Blockers:

____ ____ should never be abruptly discontinued due to risk of hypertensive crisis.

Systemic Vascular resistance:

Blood pressure is determined by cardiac output and ___ ___ ____.

Cardiac Output:

____ ____ is the amount of blood ejected from the left ventrical.

Systemic Vascular Resistance:

___ ___ ____ is the force the left ventricle has to overcome to eject its volume of blood.

Thiazide:

____ type diuretics should be the initial drug therapy for most patients with hypertension.

Adrenergic; antihypertensive:

____ drugs are a type of ______ drug.

Angiotensin; antihypertensive :

Ace inhibitors stand for _____ converting enzyme, which is a type of _____ drugs.

Angiotensin II receptor blockers:

___ ___ ___ ____ are a type of anithypertensive drug.

Calcium Channel blockers:

___ ___ ___ are a type of anithypertensive drug.

Diuretics:

_____ are a type of antihypertensive drug.

Antihypertensive drug:

Vasodilators are a type of ____ ____.

Doxazosin; Cardura:

____ ( ____ ) is an Alpha 1 blocker (adrenergic agent) used in men to treat the symptoms of BPH. It is also used alone or in combination with other medications to treat high blood pressure.

Prazosin; Minipress:

____ ( ____ ) is an Alpha 1 blocker (adrenergic agent) used alone or in combination with other medications to treat high blood pressure.

Tamsulosin; (Flomax):

____ ( ____ ) is an Alpha 1 blocker (adrenergic agent) used in men to treat the symptoms of BPH.

Clonidine; Catapress:

____ ( ____ ) is an Alpha 2 Adrenergic Agonist that is used alone or in combination with other medications to treat high blood pressure (centrally acting alpha-agonist hypotensive agents)

Beta Blockers:

____ _____ or beta-adrenergic blocking agents, beta-adrenergic antagonists, or beta antagonists, are a class of drugs used for various indications, but particularly for the management of cardiac arrhythmias, cardioprotection after myocardial infarction, and hypertension.

Cardioselective:

The second generation of beta blockers are described as _____, in that drugs in this group mostly block the binding of norepinephrine and epinephrine to beta-1 adrenoceptors, which help to control the heart's rate and contractile force.

Selective; nonselective:

____ beta-blockers work on beta-1 adrenoreceptors, which control heart rate and force of heartbeat. _____ beta-blockers work on beta-1 adrenoreceptors and beta-2 adrenoreceptors, which control the relaxation of smooth muscle.

Orthostatic Hypotension:

A side effect of Clonidine is a high incidence of ____ _____.

Clonidine:

_____ is an Alpha 2 stimulator-Agonist, that stimulates alpha 2 receptors in the spinal cord.

Angiotensin 2; vasoconstriction:

____ __ triggers the release of "Al-dosterone", increasing inflammation in the arteries, causing ______, which increases tissue resistance to insulin.

Ace inhibitors, angiotensin II:

____ ____ block the antiotnesin converting enzyme, thus preventing the formation of _____ ___.

Systemic vascular resistance:

The use of ACE inhibitors results in decreased ____ ____ _____ (afterload) and vasodilation, therefore decreasing BP.

Hypertensive; heart failure:

Ace inhibitors are the drugs of choice in ____ patients with ___ ___.

Captopril; Capoten; frequent:

____ ( ____ ) is used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure; has a very short half-life and requires ____ dosing.

Enalapril; Vasotec:

____ ( ____ ) is an Ace Inhibitor used alone or in combination with other medications to treat high blood pressure. It is also used in combination with other medications to treat heart failure.

Lisinopril; Prinivil and Zestril):

____ ( ____ & ____) in an ACE inihibitor is used alone or in combination with other medications
to treat high blood pressure. It is used in combination with other medications to treat heart failure, as well as to improve survival after a heart attack.

Quniapril; Accupril:

____ ( ____ ) is an Ace Inhibitor and is used alone or in combination with other medications to treat high blood pressure. It is used in combination with other medications to treat heart failure.

Dry nonproductive cough:

A major side effect of Ace Inhibitors is a ___ ___ ___ which reverses when therapy is stopped.

Losartan; Cozaar; Hyzaar:

____ ( ____ / ____ ) is an Angiotensin 2 Blocker that is used alone or in combination with other medications to treat high blood pressure. It is also used to decrease the risk of stroke in people who have high blood pressure and a heart condition called left ventricular hypertrophy (enlargement of the walls of the left side of the heart).

Valsartan; Diovan:

____ ( ____ ) is an Angiotensin 2 Blocker and is used alone or in combination with other medications to treat high blood pressure. It is also used to treat heart failure in people who cannot take angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors.

Angiotensin 2 Blockers:

____ __ ___ prevent the binding of AII to the receptors, blocking vasoconstriction and the secretion of aldosterone.

2nd and 3rd:

Angiotensin 2 Blockers are contraindicated in the ____ ___ ___ trimesters of pregnancy.

Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers:

____ ___ ____ ____ allow angiotensin I to be converted to Angiotnesin II, but block receptors that receive angiotensin II.

Vasoconstriction; aldosterone:

Angiotensin II receptor blockers block ____ and the release of _____.

Ace Inhibitors:

Angiotensin II receptor blockers are used primarily in patients who cannot tolerate ___ ___.

Diltiazem; Cardizem/dilacor:

____ ( ____ / ____ ) is a calcium channel blockers and is used to treat high blood pressure and to control angina.

Verapamil; Calan/Isoptin:

____ ( ____ / ____ ) is a calcium channel blocker and is used to treat high blood pressure and to control angina,

Benzothiazepines; Phenylalkamines; Dihydropyridines:

Three classes of Calcium channel blockers are ____, ____, & ____.

Amlodipine; Norvasc:

____ ( ____ ) in a calcium channel blocker that is used alone or in combination with other medications to treat high blood pressure and chest pain

Nicardipine; Cardene:

____ ( ____ ) is a calcium channel blocker and is used to treat high blood pressure

Nifedipine; Procardia:

____ ( ____ ) is a calcium channel blocker and is used to treat high blood pressure and to control angina

Nimodipine; Nimotop:

____ ( ____ ) is a calcium channel blocker.

Calcium Channel Blockers:

___ ___ ___ are used to treat angina, hypertension, dysrhythmias, migraine headaches and raynaud's disease.

Vasodilators:

_____ directly relax arteriolar smooth muscle, which results in decreased systemic vascular response.

Diazoxide; Hyperstat:

____ ( ____ ) is a potassium channel activator (vasodilator) which causes local relaxation in smooth muscle.

Hydralazine HCL; Apresoline:

____ ____ ( ____ ) is a vasodilator and is used to treat high blood pressure.

Minoxidil; Loniten; Rogaine:

____ ( ____ / ____ ) is an antihypertensive vasodilator medication.

Sodium Nitroprusside; Nipride; Nitropress:

____ ( ____ / ____ ) is a vasodilator that is used for the immediate control of very high blood pressure, as well as certain heart problems (congestive heart failure) or to control bleeding during surgery.

Vasodilators:

____ are used in the treatment of hypertension.

Hydralzaine:

Some side effects of _____ are dizziness, tachycardia, dyspnea, edema, and nasal congestion.

Sodium Nitroprusside:

Some side effects of ____ ____ are bradycardia, hypotension and possilbe cyanide toxicity.

Vasodilators:

____ should not be stopped abruptly as this may lead to a rebound hypertensive crisis and stroke.

Vasodilators:

____ may cause impotence in male patients.

Vasodilators:

Caution needs to be used w/hot tubs, shower or bath for patients on _____.

Diuretic Agents:

____ ____ are drugs that accelerate the rate of urine formation, removing sodium and water.

Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors:

___ ___ ____ work in the proximal tubule and block the action of carbonic anhydrase; resorption of water is decreased and urine volume in increased.

Acetazolamide; Diamox:

____ ( ____ ) is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that is used to treat glaucoma, epileptic seizures, benign intracranial hypertension, altitude sickness.

Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors:

___ ___ ___ are useful in the treatment of glaucoma, edema, epilepsy and altitude sickness.

Furosemide; Lasix:

____ ( ____ ) is a loop dauretic and inhibits sodium and chloride resorption.

Potassium Depletion:

Loop diuretices result in ____ ____.

Loop Diuretics:

____ ____ are indicated w/ edema associated with HF, hepatic disease or renal disease, and hypertension.

Osmotic Diuretics:

____ _____ are indicated for use in pts in oliguric pase of acute renal failure; also promotes excretion of toxic substance; reducation of intracranial pressure and cerebral edema.

Osmotic Diuretics:

____ ____ work in the proximal tubule and pull water into blood vessels and nephrons from surrounding tissues.

Mannitol; Osmitrol:

____ ( ____ ) is an osmotic duretic and should always be administered IV through a filter.

Potassium-Sparing Diuretics:

____- ____ ____ interfere w/sodium-potassium exchange; works in distal tubule and collecting duct, by preventing potassium from being pumped into the tubule, preventing its secretion.

Spironolactone; Aldactone:

____ ( ____ ) is a potassium sparing diuretic in which the excretion of sodium and water is promoted.

Potassium sparing diuretics:

___ ___ ___ are indicated w/hyperaldosteronism, hypertension, and reverses potassium loss caused by loop and thiazide diuretics.

Thiazide diuretics:

____ ____ inhibit tubular resorption of sodium and chloride ions; wks in loop of henle and early distal tubule, resulting in excretion of water, sodium and chloride.

Esidrix; HydroDIURIL)

Esidrix, a type of diuretic, is prescribed to treat high blood pressure and water retention.

Hydrodiuril; Hydrochlorothiazide:

____ ( ____) a 'water pill,' is used to treat high blood pressure and fluid retention caused by various conditions, including heart disease

Thiazide diuetics:

____ ____ are to be used cautiously in patients taking digoxin.

Hypokalemia:

_____ increases digitoxin toxicity.

Potassium:

Foods high in ____ include bananas, oranges, dates, raisin, plums, vegetables, potatoes, meat and fish.

Thiazide; loop:

Patients taking ____ or ____ diuretics should monitor bld glucose.

Hypokalemia:

S/S of ____ include muscle weakness, constipation, irregular pulse rate, and overall feeling of lethargy.

Very low density lipoproteins; lipids:

___ ___ ___ ___ are produced by the liver and transport endogenous ____ to the cells.

Low density lipoprotein:

___ ___ ____ is known as bad cholesteral and binds to vessels.

High density lipoproteins:

___ ___ ___ are responsible for the recycling of cholesterol and is known as good cholesterol.

Less than 200:

Normal cholesterol is___ ___ ___ mg/dl.

Less than 150:

Normal triglycerides are ___ ___ ___ mg/dl.

Less than 130:

Normal Low density lipids are ___ ___ ____ mg/dl.

Greater than 60:

Normal levels of High density lipids are ____ ___ ___ mg/dl.

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors:

____ - ___ ____ ____ are a type of antilipemics; the statin sisters.

Atorvastatin; Lipitor:

____ ( ____ ) is an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor used to decrease the amount of cholesterol.

Rosuvastatin; Crestor:

____ ( ____ ) is a HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor used to reduce the amount of cholesterol.

Simvastatin; Zocor:

____ ( ____ ) is a HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor and is used to decrease low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol and triglycerides in the blood and to increase the amount of high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol in the blood

Pravastatin; Pravachol:

____ ( ____ ) is a HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors and it works by slowing the production of cholesterol in the body.

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors:

Side effects of ___ - ___ ___ ____ result in elevated liver enzymes or liver disease.

Myopathy:

____ is muscle pain.

Rhabdomyolysis:

____ is the breakdown of muscle protein leading to urinary elimination of muscle protein; caused by HMG-CoA reductace inhibitors.

Cholestyramine; Questran:

____ ( ____ ) is a bile acid sequestrant that prevents resorption of bile acids from small intestine.

Bile acids:

____ ____ are necessary for absorption of cholesterol.

Niacin:

____, aka Nicotinic Acid or Vitamin B3 has lipid lowering properties and is often used in combination w/other lipid lowering agents.

Niacin:

Some side effects of ____ are flushing, pruritus and Gi distress.

Gemfibrozil; Lopid:

____ ( ___ ) is a fibric acid derivative breaks down cholesterol.

Fibric Acid Derivatives:

___ ___ ___ decrease triglyceride levels and increase HDL by as much as 25%.

Ezetimibe (Zetia):

____ ( ___ ) is a cholesterol absorption inhibitor.

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