Pharmacology Exam Two D

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Angiotensin 2 Blockers:

____ __ ___ prevent the binding of AII to the receptors, blocking vasoconstriction and the secretion of aldosterone.

2nd; 3rd:

Angiotensin 2 Blockers are contraindicated in the ____ and ___ trimesters of pregnancy.

Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers:

____ ___ ____ ____ allow angiotensin I to be converted to Angiotnesin II, but block receptors that receive angiotensin II.

Vasoconstriction; aldosterone:

Angiotensin II receptor blockers block ____ and the release of _____.

Ace Inhibitors:

Angiotensin II receptor blockers are used primarily in patients who cannot tolerate ___ ___.

Diltiazem; Cardizem / Dilacor:

____ ( ____ / ____ ) is a calcium channel blockers and is used to treat high blood pressure and to control angina.

Verapamil; Calan/Isoptin:

____ ( ____ / ____ ) is a calcium channel blocker and is used to treat high blood pressure and to control angina,

Benzothiazepines; Phenylalkamines; Dihydropyridines:

Three classes of Calcium channel blockers are ____, ____, & ____.

Amlodipine; Norvasc:

____ ( ____ ) in a calcium channel blocker that is used alone or in combination with other medications to treat high blood pressure and chest pain

Nicardipine; Cardene:

____ ( ____ ) is a calcium channel blocker and is used to treat high blood pressure

Nifedipine; Procardia:

____ ( ____ ) is a calcium channel blocker and is used to treat high blood pressure and to control angina

Nimodipine; Nimotop:

____ ( ____ ) is a calcium channel blocker.

Calcium Channel Blockers:

___ ___ ___ are used to treat angina, hypertension, dysrhythmias, migraine headaches and raynaud's disease.

Vasodilators:

_____ directly relax arteriolar smooth muscle, which results in decreased systemic vascular response.

Diazoxide; Hyperstat:

____ ( ____ ) is a potassium channel activator (vasodilator) which causes local relaxation in smooth muscle.

Hydralazine HCL; Apresoline:

____ ____ ( ____ ) is a vasodilator and is used to treat high blood pressure.

Minoxidil; Loniten; Rogaine:

____ ( ____ / ____ ) is an antihypertensive vasodilator medication.

Sodium Nitroprusside; Nipride; Nitropress:

____ ( ____ / ____ ) is a vasodilator that is used for the immediate control of very high blood pressure, as well as congestive heart failure or to control bleeding during surgery.

Vasodilators:

____ are used in the treatment of hypertension.

Hydralzaine:

Some side effects of _____ are dizziness, tachycardia, dyspnea, edema, and nasal congestion.

Sodium Nitroprusside:

Some side effects of ____ ____ are bradycardia, hypotension and possilbe cyanide toxicity.

Vasodilators:

____ should not be stopped abruptly as this may lead to a rebound hypertensive crisis and stroke.

Vasodilators:

____ may cause impotence in male patients.

Vasodilators:

Caution needs to be used w/hot tubs, shower or bath for patients on _____.

Diuretic agents:

____ ____ are drugs that accelerate the rate of urine formation, removing sodium and water.

Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors:

___ ___ ____ work in the proximal tubule and block the action of carbonic anhydrase; resorption of water is decreased and urine volume in increased.

Acetazolamide; Diamox:

____ ( ____ ) is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that is used to treat glaucoma, epileptic seizures, benign intracranial hypertension, altitude sickness.

Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors:

___ ___ ___ are useful in the treatment of glaucoma, edema, epilepsy and altitude sickness.

Furosemide; Lasix:

____ ( ____ ) is a loop dauretic and inhibits sodium and chloride resorption.

Potassium Depletion:

Loop diuretices result in ____ ____.

Loop diuretics:

____ ____ are indicated w/ edema associated with HF, hepatic disease or renal disease, and hypertension.

Osmotic diuretics:

____ _____ are indicated for use in pts in oliguric pase of acute renal failure; also promotes excretion of toxic substance; reducation of intracranial pressure and cerebral edema.

Osmotic Diuretics:

____ ____ work in the proximal tubule and pull water into blood vessels and nephrons from surrounding tissues.

Mannitol; Osmitrol:

____ ( ____ ) is an osmotic duretic and should always be administered IV through a filter.

Potassium-Sparing Diuretics:

____- ____ ____ interfere w/sodium-potassium exchange; works in distal tubule and collecting duct, by preventing potassium from being pumped into the tubule, preventing its secretion.

Spironolactone; Aldactone:

____ ( ____ ) is a potassium sparing diuretic in which the excretion of sodium and water is promoted.

Potassium sparing diuretics:

___ ___ ___ are indicated w/hyperaldosteronism, hypertension, and reverses potassium loss caused by loop and thiazide diuretics.

Thiazide diuretics:

____ ____ inhibit tubular resorption of sodium and chloride ions; wks in loop of henle and early distal tubule, resulting in excretion of water, sodium and chloride.

Esidrix; HydroDIURIL)

Esidrix, a type of diuretic, is prescribed to treat high blood pressure and water retention.

Hydrodiuril; Hydrochlorothiazide:

____ ( ____) a 'water pill,' is used to treat high blood pressure and fluid retention caused by various conditions, including heart disease

Thiazide diuetics:

____ ____ are to be used cautiously in patients taking digoxin.

Hypokalemia:

_____ increases digitoxin toxicity.

Potassium:

Foods high in ____ include bananas, oranges, dates, raisin, plums, vegetables, potatoes, meat and fish.

Thiazide; loop:

Patients taking ____ or ____ diuretics should monitor bld glucose.

Hypokalemia:

S/S of ____ include muscle weakness, constipation, irregular pulse rate, and overall feeling of lethargy.

Very low density lipoproteins:

___ ___ ___ ___ are produced by the liver and transport endogenous lipids to the cells.

Low density lipoprotein:

___ ___ ____ is known as bad cholesteral and binds to vessels.

High density lipoproteins:

___ ___ ___ are responsible for the recycling of cholesterol and is known as good cholesterol.

Less than 200:

Normal cholesterol is ___ ___ ___ mg/dl.

Less than 150:

Normal triglycerides are ___ ___ ___ mg/dl.

Less than 130:

Normal Low density lipids are ___ ___ ____ mg/dl.

Greater than 60:

Normal levels of High density lipids are ____ ___ ___ mg/dl.

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors:

____ - ___ ____ ____ are a type of antilipemics; the statin sisters.

Atorvastatin; Lipitor:

____ ( ____ ) is an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor used to decrease the amount of cholesterol.

Rosuvastatin; Crestor:

____ ( ____ ) is a HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor used to reduce the amount of cholesterol.

Simvastatin; Zocor:

____ ( ____ ) is a HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor and is used to decrease low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol and triglycerides in the blood and to increase the amount of high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol in the blood

Pravastatin; Pravachol:

____ ( ____ ) is a HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors and it works by slowing the production of cholesterol in the body.

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors:

Side effects of ___ - ___ ___ ____ result in elevated liver enzymes or liver disease.

Myopathy:

____ is muscle pain.

Rhabdomyolysis:

____ is the breakdown of muscle protein leading to urinary elimination of muscle protein; caused by HMG-CoA reductace inhibitors.

Cholestyramine; Questran:

____ ( ____ ) is a bile acid sequestrant that prevents resorption of bile acids from small intestine.

Bile acids:

____ ____ are necessary for absorption of cholesterol.

Niacin:

____, aka Nicotinic Acid or Vitamin B3 has lipid lowering properties and is often used in combination w/other lipid lowering agents.

Niacin:

Some side effects of ____ are flushing, pruritus and Gi distress.

Gemfibrozil; Lopid:

____ ( ___ ) is a fibric acid derivative breaks down cholesterol.

Fibric Acid Derivatives:

___ ___ ___ decrease triglyceride levels and increase HDL by as much as 25%.

Ezetimibe (Zetia):

____ ( ___ ) is a cholesterol absorption inhibitor.

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