Pharmacology Exam Two D

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Kim1775  on March 14, 2011

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Pharmacology Exam Two D

Angiotensin 2 Blockers:
____ __ ___ prevent the binding of AII to the receptors, blocking vasoconstriction and the secretion of aldosterone.
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Angiotensin 2 Blockers: ____ __ ___ prevent the binding of AII to the receptors, blocking vasoconstriction and the secretion of aldosterone.
2nd; 3rd: Angiotensin 2 Blockers are contraindicated in the ____ and ___ trimesters of pregnancy.
Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers: ____ ___ ____ ____ allow angiotensin I to be converted to Angiotnesin II, but block receptors that receive angiotensin II.
Vasoconstriction; aldosterone: Angiotensin II receptor blockers block ____ and the release of _____.
Ace Inhibitors: Angiotensin II receptor blockers are used primarily in patients who cannot tolerate ___ ___.
Diltiazem; Cardizem / Dilacor: ____ ( ____ / ____ ) is a calcium channel blockers and is used to treat high blood pressure and to control angina.
Verapamil; Calan/Isoptin: ____ ( ____ / ____ ) is a calcium channel blocker and is used to treat high blood pressure and to control angina,
Benzothiazepines; Phenylalkamines; Dihydropyridines: Three classes of Calcium channel blockers are ____, ____, & ____.
Amlodipine; Norvasc: ____ ( ____ ) in a calcium channel blocker that is used alone or in combination with other medications to treat high blood pressure and chest pain
Nicardipine; Cardene: ____ ( ____ ) is a calcium channel blocker and is used to treat high blood pressure
Nifedipine; Procardia: ____ ( ____ ) is a calcium channel blocker and is used to treat high blood pressure and to control angina
Nimodipine; Nimotop: ____ ( ____ ) is a calcium channel blocker.
Calcium Channel Blockers: ___ ___ ___ are used to treat angina, hypertension, dysrhythmias, migraine headaches and raynaud's disease.
Vasodilators: _____ directly relax arteriolar smooth muscle, which results in decreased systemic vascular response.
Diazoxide; Hyperstat: ____ ( ____ ) is a potassium channel activator (vasodilator) which causes local relaxation in smooth muscle.
Hydralazine HCL; Apresoline: ____ ____ ( ____ ) is a vasodilator and is used to treat high blood pressure.
Minoxidil; Loniten; Rogaine: ____ ( ____ / ____ ) is an antihypertensive vasodilator medication.
Sodium Nitroprusside; Nipride; Nitropress: ____ ( ____ / ____ ) is a vasodilator that is used for the immediate control of very high blood pressure, as well as congestive heart failure or to control bleeding during surgery.
Vasodilators: ____ are used in the treatment of hypertension.
Hydralzaine: Some side effects of _____ are dizziness, tachycardia, dyspnea, edema, and nasal congestion.
Sodium Nitroprusside: Some side effects of ____ ____ are bradycardia, hypotension and possilbe cyanide toxicity.
Vasodilators: ____ should not be stopped abruptly as this may lead to a rebound hypertensive crisis and stroke.
Vasodilators: ____ may cause impotence in male patients.
Vasodilators: Caution needs to be used w/hot tubs, shower or bath for patients on _____.
Diuretic agents: ____ ____ are drugs that accelerate the rate of urine formation, removing sodium and water.
Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors: ___ ___ ____ work in the proximal tubule and block the action of carbonic anhydrase; resorption of water is decreased and urine volume in increased.
Acetazolamide; Diamox: ____ ( ____ ) is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that is used to treat glaucoma, epileptic seizures, benign intracranial hypertension, altitude sickness.
Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors: ___ ___ ___ are useful in the treatment of glaucoma, edema, epilepsy and altitude sickness.
Furosemide; Lasix: ____ ( ____ ) is a loop dauretic and inhibits sodium and chloride resorption.
Potassium Depletion: Loop diuretices result in ____ ____.
Loop diuretics: ____ ____ are indicated w/ edema associated with HF, hepatic disease or renal disease, and hypertension.
Osmotic diuretics: ____ _____ are indicated for use in pts in oliguric pase of acute renal failure; also promotes excretion of toxic substance; reducation of intracranial pressure and cerebral edema.
Osmotic Diuretics: ____ ____ work in the proximal tubule and pull water into blood vessels and nephrons from surrounding tissues.
Mannitol; Osmitrol: ____ ( ____ ) is an osmotic duretic and should always be administered IV through a filter.
Potassium-Sparing Diuretics: ____- ____ ____ interfere w/sodium-potassium exchange; works in distal tubule and collecting duct, by preventing potassium from being pumped into the tubule, preventing its secretion.
Spironolactone; Aldactone: ____ ( ____ ) is a potassium sparing diuretic in which the excretion of sodium and water is promoted.
Potassium sparing diuretics: ___ ___ ___ are indicated w/hyperaldosteronism, hypertension, and reverses potassium loss caused by loop and thiazide diuretics.
Thiazide diuretics: ____ ____ inhibit tubular resorption of sodium and chloride ions; wks in loop of henle and early distal tubule, resulting in excretion of water, sodium and chloride.
Esidrix; HydroDIURIL) Esidrix, a type of diuretic, is prescribed to treat high blood pressure and water retention.
Hydrodiuril; Hydrochlorothiazide: ____ ( ____) a 'water pill,' is used to treat high blood pressure and fluid retention caused by various conditions, including heart disease
Thiazide diuetics: ____ ____ are to be used cautiously in patients taking digoxin.
Hypokalemia: _____ increases digitoxin toxicity.
Potassium: Foods high in ____ include bananas, oranges, dates, raisin, plums, vegetables, potatoes, meat and fish.
Thiazide; loop: Patients taking ____ or ____ diuretics should monitor bld glucose.
Hypokalemia: S/S of ____ include muscle weakness, constipation, irregular pulse rate, and overall feeling of lethargy.
Very low density lipoproteins: ___ ___ ___ ___ are produced by the liver and transport endogenous lipids to the cells.
Low density lipoprotein: ___ ___ ____ is known as bad cholesteral and binds to vessels.
High density lipoproteins: ___ ___ ___ are responsible for the recycling of cholesterol and is known as good cholesterol.
Less than 200: Normal cholesterol is ___ ___ ___ mg/dl.
Less than 150: Normal triglycerides are ___ ___ ___ mg/dl.
Less than 130: Normal Low density lipids are ___ ___ ____ mg/dl.
Greater than 60: Normal levels of High density lipids are ____ ___ ___ mg/dl.
HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors: ____ - ___ ____ ____ are a type of antilipemics; the statin sisters.
Atorvastatin; Lipitor: ____ ( ____ ) is an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor used to decrease the amount of cholesterol.
Rosuvastatin; Crestor: ____ ( ____ ) is a HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor used to reduce the amount of cholesterol.
Simvastatin; Zocor: ____ ( ____ ) is a HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor and is used to decrease low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol and triglycerides in the blood and to increase the amount of high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol in the blood
Pravastatin; Pravachol: ____ ( ____ ) is a HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors and it works by slowing the production of cholesterol in the body.
HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors: Side effects of ___ - ___ ___ ____ result in elevated liver enzymes or liver disease.
Myopathy: ____ is muscle pain.
Rhabdomyolysis: ____ is the breakdown of muscle protein leading to urinary elimination of muscle protein; caused by HMG-CoA reductace inhibitors.
Cholestyramine; Questran: ____ ( ____ ) is a bile acid sequestrant that prevents resorption of bile acids from small intestine.
Bile acids: ____ ____ are necessary for absorption of cholesterol.
Niacin: ____, aka Nicotinic Acid or Vitamin B3 has lipid lowering properties and is often used in combination w/other lipid lowering agents.
Niacin: Some side effects of ____ are flushing, pruritus and Gi distress.
Gemfibrozil; Lopid: ____ ( ___ ) is a fibric acid derivative breaks down cholesterol.
Fibric Acid Derivatives: ___ ___ ___ decrease triglyceride levels and increase HDL by as much as 25%.
Ezetimibe (Zetia): ____ ( ___ ) is a cholesterol absorption inhibitor.

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