Advertisement Upgrade to remove ads

What is the basis for a variety of immunologic or immunodiagnostic tests?

Antigen-Antibody interaction

The antigen-antibody interaction is affected by?

Forces of attraction, concentration of the antigen and antibody

Serum dilutions are used to measure what?

the amount of antibody in the serum

How is the amount of antibody in a serum determined?

by testing increasing dilutions of the serum sample for antibody reactivity to the known antigen of interest

What is the reciprocal of the highest dilution of a serum sample that gives a reaction to the known antigen of interest in an immunological test?

Titer

What does a color change in an ELISA plate mean?

antibody was detected at that dilution

What directly measures binding of antigen to antibody in vitro? Either the antibody or the antigen needs to be labeled with something we can detect.

primary binding tests

What measures the results of antigen-antibody interactions in vitro. Results include precipitation or agglutination of Ag-Ab complexes; cell lyses.

secondary binding tests

What is the top fraction after blood sample clots (contains proteins, but does not contain any cells; nor any clotting factors)?

serum

What are cells or tissues to probe with antibody when looking for antigen?

whole blood in anti-coagulant, tissue secretions on dead or euthanized animals or from biopsy

What is a normal constituent of all fresh serum (fresh, unheated guinea pig serum is the most efficient in hemolytic tests)?

complement

What is it called when multiple B cell clones make antibodies to different epitopes of an antigen and many antibodies of different specificity to different epitopes are generated?

polyclonal antibody

What is an antibody produced from a single B cell clone?

monoclonal antibody

What is blood serum containing antibodies against specific antigens?

anti-serum

What are immunoenzyme assays?

ELISA, western blot, immunochemistry

What are primary binding tests?

immunofluorescence assays, immunoenzyme assays

What are secondary binding tests?

precipitations tests, agglutination tests, neutralization tests, complement fixation tests

What does a direct fluorescent antibody test detect?

antigen

What does an indirect fluorescent antibody test detect?

antibody

What test is used to identify specific protein antigens in a complex protein mixture; or to identify specific antibody to a known antigen?

western blot

What is the most widely used enzyme in IHC?

horseradish peroxidase

During what test are antibodies against a particular antigen conjugated to an enzyme and can be used to detect and locate that specific antigen in tissue sections?

immunohistochemistry

What controls are used during a immunohistochemistry test?

use an irrelevant antibody, use a normal section of tissue to compare with the test section of tissue

What happens when antibodies combine with soluble antigens in solution or gel?

precipitation

If antigens are particulate, then antibodies may make them clump or________

Agglutinate

What tests estimate the ability of antibody to neutralize the biological activity of an antigen when mixed in vitro?

neutralization tests

What is it called when an antibody can activate the classical complement pathway and the antigen is on a cell surface, then cell lysis may result.

complement fixation lysis

In a precipitation test, the amount of precipitate that develops is determined by what?

by the relative proportions of antibody to that antigen

Where is there an approximately equal ratio of Ag and Ab, promotes maximal Ag-Ab binding, best for cross-linking of multivalent antigens by their specific antibodies?

Zone of Equivalence

Where there is antibody excess relative to antigen and poor lattice formation occurs. Can't visualize.

Prozone

Where there is antigen excess relative to antibody and poor lattice formation occurs. Can't visualize.

postzone

In double immunodiffusion, where the reactants meet in optimal proportions what forms?

zone of equivalence, an opaque white line of precipitate forms

In the double immunodiffusion test, if the patients serum contained antibody specific for EIAV antigen then what happens?

a line of precipitate will form where optimal proportions of antigen and antibody meet

What antibody class is more efficient at agglutination?

IgM

What does agglutination depend on?

the concentration of antibody relative to the antigen

When do agglutination reactions occur?

when particulate Ags with multiple epitopes on their surface bind with specific antibody molecules to these epitopes to form aggregates or clumps

When may antigens occur?

naturally on RBCs, bacterial cell surfaces, they may consist of commercially prepared antigen-coated inert carrier particles

What can be used as indicators to visualize agglutination?

RBCs, bacteria, or beads

When are agglutination tests used?

to detect unknown antigens found in a clinical sample, to identify bacteria by using known anti-sera to the bacteria, to detect or quantitate circulating agglutinating antibodies found in the patients serum by using known particulate antigens

When the carrier paticle is an RBC, the reaction is known as?

hemagglutination

What is the test of choice for diagnosis of IMHA?

coombs test

Hemagglutination inhibition tests: in the presence of specific Abs, the virus receptors are blocked, and the hemagglutination ability of the virus is inhibited, when there is no hemagglutination the result is?

positive

Hemagglutination inhibition tests: in the absence of specific antibodies, the viruses cause hemagglutination, when there is hemagglutination the result is?

negative

What tests estimates the ability of antibody to neutralize the biological activity of an antigen when mixed with it in vitro?

neutralization tests

What test is used to search the presence of antibodies in patient serum that neutralize viruses and/ or bacterial toxins?

serum neutralization test

In what tests are sensitized RBCs used as an indicator and can activate complement which generates the MAC resulting in RBC membrane disruption and heoloysis?

Complement fixation test

When is acute serum collected vs. convalescent?

acute collected early after onset of illness, convalescent collected 14-21 days later

What rise in titer from acute to convalescent serum is diagnostic for an active infection?

four-fold rise

What is the acute titer vs. convalescent titer?

acute is 1:2, convalescent is 1:64

What is a positive test result that correctly identifies a positive animal. it is a property of the test. It does not mean all the truely positive animals in a population as determined by a gold standard?

True positive

A negative test result that correctly identifies a negative animal. It is a property of the rest. it does not mean all the truly neg animals in a population as determined by a gold standard.

True negative

What is a POSITIVE test result that is incorrect, identified negative animal as possible?

False Positive

What is a NEGATIVE test result that is incorrect, identifed a positive animal as negative?

False Negative

What is a portion (%) of diseased animals that test positive with the test, want a test with high sensitivity when screening animals for a condition that is very important not to miss positive animals.

Sensitivity

A test with _____ sensitivity, but low specificity is one that will identifiy almost all of the positive animals.

high

What is a portion of non-diseases animals that test negative, to rule out the disease. Want a test with high specificity to re-test any positives in a screening test.

specificity

With a highly sensitive test you can trust the?

negatives

With a highly specific test you can trust the?

positives

What is a toxin that is modified (by formaldehyde for example)

toxoid

What is an ideal vaccine?

safe, effective, inexpensive to produce, stable, easy to administer, provides long lasting, strong immunity, no side-effects

What are advantages of active immunization compared with passive?

prolonged period of protection, memory response after boosting

What needs to happen with a vaccine?

antigen must be delivered efficiently, T and B cells must be stimulated to generate large numbers of memory cells, Helper and effector T cells must be generated to several epitopes of the pathogen.

What type of vaccine is grown in conditions in the lab that decrease virulence, has lots of epitopes, no adjuvant needed, infected cells process endogenous antigen and present MHC-I molecules?

modified live vaccines

What vaccine acts as exogenous antigen and are engulfed and processed by APCs and presented via MHC-II, cannot cause disease, is strain specific?

killed vaccines

What is a bacterin?

if the vaccine is a killed bacterium

What are substances that can enhance the body's response to the vaccine. Are essential if long-term memory is to be established to soluble antigens?

adjuvants

What protect antigens from rapid degradation and therefore prolonged immune responses.

Depot adjuvants

What can promost delivery of souble antigens to APCs. These types of particles are about the size of bacteria and are readily endocytosed by the APCs?

particulate adjuvants

What adjuvants are substances that can stimulate cells to make cytokines which in term promote an immune response, usually these adjuvants are complex microbial products that represent PAMPS, stimulate macrophages through TLR?

immunostimulatory adjuvants

What is Freund's complete adjuvant: an oil based adjuvant mixed with killed mycobacterium, a depot plus immunostimulatory activity, can't be used in food animals.

mixed adjuvants

What are examples of problems with killed vaccines?

severe inflammation due to the adjuvants, increased need for multiple doses may produce hypersensitivity, ten to produce a Th2 dominated immune response.

What are examples of problems with modified live vaccines?

MLV preparations may be contaminated with other organisms that are also alive and pathogenic, attenuated organisms used in live vaccines may possess residual virulence.

What causes abortion in cattle, need CIM for prevention and control of infection, vaccine is a MLV.

Brucella abortus

What licenses veterinary biologics (vaccines)?

USDA

What is category I of USDA classification of genetically engineered vet vaccines?

contain inactivated recominant organisms or proteins derived from recombinant organisms, proteins are purified and used as a protein vaccine

What is a potential problem of category I of USDA classification of genetically engineered vet vaccines?

the purified protein may not be a good immunogen because it may not be correctly folded like the native protein as it exists as part of the pathogen

What is the first available category I vet vaccine, used the DNA coding for the gp70 antigen of the virus. Was inserted into the E. coli plasmid.

FeLV vaccine

What vaccine contains live organisms that contain gene deletions or modified genes which result in reduce virulence?

category II

In category I, what is injected?

the protein

In category II what is injected?

the live expression vector is injected and the protein antigen of interest is made inside the cells infected by the expression vector

What category are vaccines that contain live expression vectors into which genes from a pathogen have been inserted?

category III

What are live expression vectors?

viruses with large genomes where it is easier to insert extra genes, include pox viruses, adenoviruses, and herpesviruses.

True or false: the vaccinia virus vaccine consist of a live rinderpest virus which will replicate when the cow is vaccinated?

false

True or false: the vaccinia virus vaccine consists os a live vaccinia virus, which will replicate when the cow is vaccinated?

true

True or false: The vaccinia virus vaccine might, in some vaccinated cattle, cause a mild form of rinderpest?

false

True or false: Vaccinated cattle will produce an immune response to rinderpest protein antigens?

true

True or false: vaccinated cattle will produce an immune response to vaccinia protein antigens?

true

Through which pathway will the vaccine antigens of the vaccinia virus vaccine be processed?

endogenous pathway

What are vaccines that are essential in that thy protect against dangerous diseases, and failure to use places animal at significant risk?

Core vaccines

What are vaccines uses against rare or mild diseases, or untested vaccines?

non-core vaccines

What is an example of duration of immunity?

rabies vaccine: some provide 3 year duration of immunity, others only 1 year

Why is MLV not recommended for pregnant animals?

can lead to abortion or weak neonatal syndromes in some cases

What is a condition characterized by a specific humoral and/or cell mediated immune response against consitituents of the body's own tissues.

autoimmunity

What is a normal immune response to unusual or abnormal antigens?

previously hidden self-antigens that are released through tissue damage from "immune priviledged sites"

What are immune priviledged sites?

lens material in eye, spermatozoa in seminal vesicles

Antigens inside cells are not exposed to lymphocytes unless what?

released from the cells due to tissue damage

What contains antigens that cross-react with mammalian neurons and cardiac muscle?

Tryanosoma cruzi

What is molecular mimicry?

similar or shared epitopes between infectious agents, parasites. self-antigens may stimulate cross-reacting antibodies

What happens when IgM against-IgG, immune complexes stimulate macrophages to release proinflammatory cytokines. Neutrophils enter and release enzymes which cause cartilage damage.

Rheumatoid Arthritis

What are abnormal immune responses to self-antigen?

loss of regulation (loss of tolerance)

What are the most important genes that influence naturally occuring autoimmune diseases?

MHC genes

What molecules regulate antigen processing and presentation, thus they influence resistance or susceptibility to many diseases?

MHC molecules

Almost all autoimmune diseases in humans are linked to what?

specific MHC alleles

What are genetic defects that may contribute to autoimmune disease?

deleted or overexpressed genes, often that code for immune regulatory proteins, such as cytokines and cytokine receptors

What is an example of Type-I hypersensitivity?

milk allergy in cattle, the immune response is mediated through Th2 cells and IgE autoantibodies are produced, affected cows may develop acute anaphylaxis due to IgE arming their mast cells

What type of hypersensitivity has autoantibodies against cell surface antigens causing cell lysis with assistance from complement or CTLs. In some cases the autoantibody bind a cell surface receptor and alter its function instead of causing cell destruction?

type-II hypersensitivity

What type of immune mediated cytopenia is autoantibodies against RBC?

immune mediated hemolytic anemia

What type of immune mediated cytopenia is autoantibodies against platelets?

immune mediated thrombocytopenia

What type of immune mediated cytopenia is autoantibodies against leukocytes?

immune mediated leukopenia

How do you diagnose IMT or IMHA?

identification of Ab on the surface of erythrocytes or platelets by coombs test or platelet specific test, diagnose by treating with immunosuppressive drugs and if anemia resolves then immune-mediated disease was present.

What breeds are predisposed to myasthenia gravis?

german shepherds, gold retrievers, labradors, dachshunds

How do you treat myasthenia gravis?

with anti-cholinesterase

What involves both type-II and type-IV hypersensitivity reactions: cytotoxic T-cells attack thyroid epithelium and antibody is made against T3, T4, and thyroglobulin?

lymphocytic thyroiditis in dogs

What needs to be done to confirm that hypothyroidism is due to an autoimmune mechanism?

need a biopsy to show the characteristic lymphocytic infiltration and anti-thyroid antibodies must be detected in serum using an ELISA assay or indirect FA

How do you treat hypothyroism?

replacement therapy with synthetic T4

What is one of four skin diseases in the pemphigus complex of diseases. Ag-Ab interaction allows for activation of complement as part of the type-II response, this causes tissue-destruction.

Pemphigus folieaceous

What happens when autoantibodies form immune complexes with autoantigens which then can cause inflammation. Most significant in systemic lupus erythematosis, a disease in which many different autoantibodies are produced?

Type-III hypersensitivity

What is it called when self-reactive Th1 cells react against myelin basic protein. The myelin-reactive Th1-cells cause inflammation and demyelination?

multiple sclerosis

What is a generalized autoimmune myositis occuring in large dogs such as german shepherds. involves autoreactive T-cells and autoantibodies. ~50% of affected dogs also have antibuclear antibodies or antibodies to sarcolemma or both?

polymyositis

How are autoimmune diseases treated?

immunosuppressive drugs such as glucocorticoids

What is some evidence that the immune system helps to protect against cancer?

patients with HIV-AIDS more likely to develop cancer, transplant patients are on immunosuppressive drugs and these people more likely to develop cancer.

Not all cancers are more likely to emerge in immunosuppressed individuals, what are examples of this?

in humans lung or breast cancer do not develop more frequently in immunodeficient people

How can immunity be acquired?

through immunization with killed tumor cells

What is immunity specific for?

the antigens of the original tumor used for immunization

Both the innate immunity and the adaptive immunity help to do what?

prevent the overgrowth of tumor cells

What is the main defense against tumor outgrowth is what system?

innate system through the action of NK cells and macrophages

What are NK cells regulated by?

cytokines

Triggering of NK cell cytotoxicity results from what?

change in the balance between activating and inhibitory signals to the NK cells

Do NK cells express antigen-specific receptors?

No

How can NK cells bind to antibodies that is bound to a tumor antigen on surface of tumor cell, and can thus help with ADCC?

have Fc receptors for the Fc region of antibody

What molecules are not expressed by normal healthy cells, but by some tumor cells, virus-infected cells and cells undergoing other kinds of stress.

"stress" molecules, NK cells have receptors that can interact with molecules expressed by cells during stress

What is mediated through perforins and granzymes as well as through the death receptor pathway. Death by apoptosis.

NK cell killing

Macrophages activated by what are especially active against tumors?

IFN-gamma

Macrophages can be nonspecifically activated by what?

BCG. thus, BCG is given in some cases to stimulate macrophages to fight cancer

What is used to vaccinate humans against M. tuberculosis in some countries outside the US and to vaccinate some high-risk people in the US?

BCG, modified live 'avirulent' strain of Mycobacterium bovis

What is associated with infection by bovine papillomavirus, and is tumor of the skin epithelium and dermal fibroblasts?

equine sarcoid

How can tumors express proteins?

expression of altered or new proteins, over-express a normal protein, express a protein that is normally only expressed in the fetus

What are examples of tumors expressing altered or new proteins?

carcinogens induce mutations so that cells produce different proteins that are no longer recognized as self-proteins, viral infections can cause the infected cell to express non-self proteins

What is found in the neoplastic T lymphoid cells of cats infected with Feline Leukemia Virus?

FOCMA (feline oncovirogenic-associated cell membrane antigen)

What are examples of over-expressed self-proteins?

Prostate-specific antigen

What are antigens normally found on the fetus, that are formed in the adult?

oncofetal antigens

What are mechanisms of aquired immunity against tumors?

antigen-specific cytotoxic T-cells, Antibody + complement activation (leading to MAC and lysis of free tumor cells), and ADCC

What are mechanisms of tumor evasion of the immune system?

low immunogenicity, antigenic modulation or masking, tumor-induced immunosuppression

What are examples of strategies to induce immunity to tumors?

non-specific modulation of the immune response, monoclonal antibodies to target tumors, expand antigen-specific T-cells, vaccination with tumor antigens

What is it called when you remove some T-cells from patient, add IL-s invitro to expand their numbers, and infuse it back into patient. Some of these T-cells should be the tumor antigen-specific cells (only works if there are already antigen-specific T-cells)

Anti-tumor strategy by expanding antigen-specific T-cells

When you vaccinate with naked DNA which codes for tumor antigens or vaccinate with DNA-transected dendritic cells. The dentritic cells must come from the patient, why?

has to be self-MHC (T-cells can only see antigen produced by self MHC)

What type of immunodeficiency is a result of an inherited defect (may notice breed suseptibilities, especially in breeds with reduced genetic diversity)?

Primary immunodeficiency

What type of immunodeficiency is a result of some other cause, such as an infection or exposure to a toxin?

secondary immunodeficiency

What is an example of primary immunodeficiency?

canine cyclical neutropenia (grey collie syndrome)

See More

Please allow access to your computer’s microphone to use Voice Recording.

Having trouble? Click here for help.

We can’t access your microphone!

Click the icon above to update your browser permissions above and try again

Example:

Reload the page to try again!

Reload

Press Cmd-0 to reset your zoom

Press Ctrl-0 to reset your zoom

It looks like your browser might be zoomed in or out. Your browser needs to be zoomed to a normal size to record audio.

Please upgrade Flash or install Chrome
to use Voice Recording.

For more help, see our troubleshooting page.

Your microphone is muted

For help fixing this issue, see this FAQ.

Star this term

You can study starred terms together

NEW! Voice Recording

Create Set