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During what phase in the cell cycle, would you find the most DNA per cell?

G2

What is prometaphase?

the nuclear envelope fragments

If a cell contains 60 chromatids at the start of mitosis, how many chromosomes will be found in each daughter cell at the completion of the cell cycle?

30

Observations of cancer cells in culture support the hypothesis that cancer cells _____.

do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition

The region of a chromosome holding the two double strands of replicated DNA together is called _____.

a centromere

If a somatic human cell is just about to divide, it has _____ chromatids

92

Which of the following phases of mitosis is essentially the opposite of prometaphase in terms of the nuclear envelope?

telophase

Chromatids are _____.

identical copies of each other if they are part of the same chromosome

The centromere is a region in which _____.

sister chromatids are attached to one another in prophase

When a cell in S phase is fused with a cell in G1, _____.

DNA synthesis begins immediately in the original G1 nucleus

During interphase, the genetic material of a typical eukaryotic cell is _____.

dispersed in the nucleus as long strands of chromatin

The complex of DNA and protein that makes up a eukaryotic chromosome is properly called _____.

chromatin

In animal cell mitosis, the cleavage furrow forms during _____.

cytokinesis

If an intestinal cell in a grasshopper contains 24 chromosomes, a grasshopper sperm cell would contain _____ chromosomes.

12

Which one of the following does not occur during mitosis?

replication of chromosomes

A cell biologist carefully measured the quantity of DNA in grasshopper cells growing in cell culture. Cells examined during the G2 phase of the cell cycle contained 200 units of DNA. What would be the amount of DNA at G1 of the cell cycle in one of the grasshopper daughter cells?

100 units

Binary fission in bacterial cells involves _____.

distribution of a copy of the single parental chromosome to each daughter cell

A cell entering the cell cycle with 32 chromosomes will produce two daughter cells, each with _____.

32 chromosomes

What is the difference between a benign tumor and a malignant tumor?

Cells of benign tumors do not metastasize; those of malignant tumors do.

Sister chromatids separate during _____.

anaphase

You would know a dividing cell was a plant cell rather than an animal cell if you saw that _____.

it had formed a cell plate

During binary fission in a bacterium _____.

the origins of replication move apart

How many maternal chromosomes are present in a somatic human cell not engaged in cell division?

23

The phase of mitosis during which the chromosomes move toward separate poles of the cell is _____.

anaphase

DNA replication occurs in _____.

the S phase of interphase in both somatic and reproductive cells

The function of the cell cycle is to produce daughter cells that _____.

are genetically identical to the parent cell (assuming no mutation has occurred)

You would be unlikely to see which of the following human cells dividing?

nerve cell

How many genes are present in the human genome?

tens of thousands

What is a locus?

the precise location of a gene on a chromosome

Sexual and asexual reproduction are alike in that _____.

they can both occur in multicellular organisms

In telophase of mitosis, the mitotic spindle breaks down and the chromatin uncoils. This is essentially the opposite of what happens in _____.

prophase

A biochemist measured the amount of DNA in cells growing in the laboratory and found that the quantity of DNA in the cells doubled _____.

between the G1 and G2 phases

At which point in the cell cycle do centrosomes begin to move apart to two poles of the cell in a dividing human skin cell?

prophase

Unless the chromosomes were stained to show band patterns, a karyotype would be least likely to show which of the following?

part of a chromosome turned around

A karyotype is _____.

a photograph of all of an individual's chromosomes

Fertilization produces ___________.

a diploid zygote

A life cycle in which the only multicellular form is haploid is most typical of _____.

fungi

Which of the following results in cells that contain half the parental chromosome number?

meiosis

In sexually reproducing species, the chromosome number remains stable over time because _____ and _____ always alternate.

meiosis; fertilization

The egg (ovum) of a rabbit contains 22 chromosomes. How many chromosomes are in the somatic (body) cells of a rabbit?

44

In a diploid cell containing 10 chromosomes, meiosis results in the formation of daughter cells containing _____ chromosomes.

5

How many pairs of autosomes do humans have?

22

Sister chromatids ___________.

are identical copies of each other formed during DNA synthesis

Which of the following statements about homologous chromosomes is correct?

They have genes for the same traits at the same loci.

When we say that an organism is haploid, we mean that _____.

its cells have a single set of chromosomes

Which one of the following is a function of mitosis in humans?

multiplication of body cells

Somatic cells in humans contain _____ set(s) of chromosomes and are therefore termed _____.

two; diploid

Nearly all life cycles have both haploid and diploid phases. Usually, the transition from haploid to diploid takes place _____.

at fertilization, when gametes fuse

Spores and gametes are different in that _____.

gametes can fuse to form a zygote, but spores can develop into independent organisms without first forming a zygote

At the end of telophase I of meiosis and the first cytokinesis, there are _____.

two haploid cells

What is the result when a diploid cell undergoes meiosis?

four haploid cells

Synapsis occurs during _____.

prophase I

Which of the following occurs during anaphase II?

Sister chromatids separate and migrate toward opposite poles.

Which of the following occurs during anaphase I?

Homologs separate and migrate toward opposite poles.

What is the function of meiosis?

to make cells with a haploid (half that of the parents) number of chromosomes

Crossing over occurs during _____.

prophase I

Regions of chromosomes where nonsister chromatids cross over are called _____.

chiasmata

The synaptonemal complex _____.

physically connects homologous chromosomes during prophase I

In the experiment by Yoshinori Watanabe and colleagues regarding the role of the protein shugoshin, their hypothesis was that __________.

the protein shugoshin protects cohesins from being degraded

An organism has a haploid chromosome number n = 4. How many tetrads will form during meiosis?

4

Which event occurs only during prophase I of the first meiotic division?

Synapsis of homologous pairs occurs

In a male mammal, every cell that undergoes meiosis gives rise to _____ sperm.

four

Which one of the following occurs in meiosis, but not mitosis?

Homologous chromosomes separate.

Ignoring crossover, how many kinds of gametes can be produced by an organism with a diploid number of 8?

16

Radish flowers may be red, purple, or white. A cross between a red‐flowered plant and a white‐flowered plant yields all‐purple offspring. The part of the radish we eat may be oval or long, with long being the dominant characteristic.
1) If true‐breeding red long radishes are crossed with true breeding white oval
radishes, the F1 will be expected to be which of the following?
A) Red and long
B) Red and oval
C) White and long
D) Purple and long
E) Purple and oval

D) Purple and long

Radish flowers may be red, purple, or white. A cross between a red‐flowered plant and a white‐flowered plant yields all‐purple offspring. The part of the radish we eat may be oval or long, with long being the dominant characteristic.
In the F2 generation of the above cross, which of the following phenotypic
ratios would be expected?
A) 9:3:3:1
B) 9:4:3
C) 1:1:1:1
D) 1:1:1:1:1:1
E) 6:3:3:2:1:1

E) 6:3:3:2:1:1

Radish flowers may be red, purple, or white. A cross between a red‐flowered plant and a white‐flowered plant yields all‐purple offspring. The part of the radish we eat may be oval or long, with long being the dominant characteristic.
The flower color trait in radishes is an example of which of the following?
A) A multiple allelic system
B) Sex linkage
C) Codominance
D) Incomplete dominance
E) Epistasis

D) Incomplete dominance

Tallness (T) in snapdragons is dominant to dwarfness (t), while red (R) flower
color is dominant to white (r). The heterozygous condition results in pink (Rr) flower color. A dwarf, red snapdragon is crossed with a plant homozygous for tallness and white flowers. What are the genotype and phenotype of the F1
individuals?
A) ttRr-dwarf and pink
B) ttrr-dwarf and white
C) TtRr-tall and red
D) TtRr-tall and pink
E) TTRR-tall and red

D) TtRr-tall and pink

In cattle, roan coat color (mixed red and white hairs) occurs in the heterozygous (Rr) offspring of red (RR) and white (rr) homozygotes. Which of the
following crosses would produce offspring in the ratio of 1 red : 2 roan : 1
white?
A) red × white
B) roan x roan
C) white × roan
D) red × roan
E) The answer cannot be determined from the information provided.

B) roan × roan

A woman who has blood type A positive has a daughter who is type O positive and
a son who is type B negative. Rh positive is a trait that shows simple dominance
over Rh negative and is designated by the alleles R and r, respectively.
6) Which of the following is a possible partial genotype for the son?
A) IBIB
B) IBIA
C) ii
D) IBi
E) IAIA

D) IBi

A woman who has blood type A positive has a daughter who is type O positive and
a son who is type B negative. Rh positive is a trait that shows simple dominance
over Rh negative and is designated by the alleles R and r, respectively.
7) Which of the following is a possible genotype for the mother?
A) IAIA
B) IBIB
C) ii
D) IAi
E) IAIB

D) IAi

A woman who has blood type A positive has a daughter who is type O positive and
a son who is type B negative. Rh positive is a trait that shows simple dominance
over Rh negative and is designated by the alleles R and r, respectively.
8) Which of the following is the probable genotype for the mother?
A) IAIARR
B) IAIARr
C) IAirr
D) IAiRr
E) IAiRR

D) IAiRr

What is the difference between a monohybrid cross and a dihybrid cross?
A) A monohybrid cross involves a single parent, whereas a dihybrid cross involves two parents.
B) A monohybrid cross produces a single progeny, whereas a dihybrid cross produces two progeny.
C) A dihybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for two characters and a monohybrid only one.
D) A monohybrid cross is performed for one generation, whereas a dihybrid cross is performedfor two generations.
E) A monohybrid cross results in a 9:3:3:1 ratio whereas a dihybrid cross gives a 3:1 ratio.

C) A dihybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for two characters and amonohybrid only one.

Pea plants were particularly well suited for use in Mendel's breeding experiments for all of the following reasons except that
A) peas show easily observed variations in a number of characters, such as pea shape and flower color.
B) it is possible to control matings between different pea plants.
C) it is possible to obtain large numbers of progeny from any given cross.
D) peas have an unusually long generationtime.
E) many of the observable characters that vary in pea plants are controlled by single genes.

D) peas have an unusually long generation time.

What was the most significant conclusion that Gregor Mendel drew from his experiments withpea plants?
A) There is considerable genetic variation in garden peas.
B) Traits are inherited in discrete units, and are not the results of "blending."
C) Recessive genes occur more frequently in the F1 than do dominant ones.
D) Genes are composed of DNA.
E) An organism that is homozygous for many recessive traits is at a disadvantage.

B) Traits are inherited in discrete units, and are not the results of "blending."

How many unique gametes could be produced through independent assortment by an individual with the genotype AaBbCCDdEE?
A) 4
B) 8
C) 16
D) 32
E) 64

B) 8

Two characters that appear in a 9:3:3:1 ratio in the F2 generation should have which of the following properties
A) Each of the traits is controlled by single genes.
B) The genes controlling the characters obey the law of independent assortment.
C) Each of the genes controlling the characters has two alleles.
D) Four genes are involved.
E) Sixteen different phenotypes are possible.

B) The genes controlling the characters obey the law of independent assortment.

Which of the following about the law of segregation is false?
A) It states that each of two alleles for a given trait segregate into different gametes.
B) It can be explained by the segregation of homologous chromosomes during meiosis.
C) It can account for the 3:1 ratio seen in the F2 generation of Mendel's crosses.
D) It can be used to predict the likelihood of transmission of certain genetic diseases withinfamilies.
E) It is a method that can be used to determine the number of chromosomes in a plant.

E) It is a method that can be used to determine the number of chromosomes in a plant.

The fact that all seven of the pea plant traits studied by Mendel obeyed the principle of independent assortment most probably indicates which of the following?
A) None of the traits obeyed the law of segregation.
B) The diploid number of chromosomes in the pea plants was 7.
C) All of the genes controlling the traits were located on the same chromosome.
D) All of the genes controlling the traits behaved as if they were on different chromosomes.
E) The formation of gametes in plants occurs by mitosis only.

D) All of the genes controlling the traits behaved as if they were on different chromosomes.

Mendel's observation of the segregation of alleles in gamete formation has its basis in which of the following phases of cell division?
A) Prophase I of meiosis
B) Prophase II of meiosis
C) Metaphase I of meiosis
D) Anaphase I of meiosis
E) Anaphase of mitosis

D) Anaphase I of meiosis

Mendel's second law of independent assortment has its basis in which of the following events of meiosis I?
A) Synapsis of homologous chromosomes
B) Crossing over
C) Alignment of tetrads at the equator
D) Separation of homologs at anaphase
E) Separation of cells at telophase

C) Alignment of tetrads at the equator

Black fur in mice (B) is dominant to brown fur (b). Short tails (T) are dominant to long tails (t). What fraction of the progeny of the cross BbTt×BBtt will have black fur and long tails?
A) 1/16
B) 3/16
C) 3/8
D) 1/2
E) 9/16

D) 1/2

Two true-breeding stocks of pea plants are crossed. One parent has red, axial flowers and the other has white, terminal flowers; all F1 individuals have red, axial flowers. The genes for flower color and location assort independently. If 1,000 F2 offspring resulted from the cross, approximately how many of them would you expect to have red, terminal flowers?
A) 65
B) 190
C) 250
D) 565
E) 750

B) 190

Given the parents AABBCc×AabbCc, assume simple dominance and independent assortment. What proportion of the progeny will be expected to phenotypically resemble the firstparent?
A) 1/4
B) 1/8
C) 3/4
D) 3/8
E) 1

C) 3/4

Labrador retrievers are black, brown, or yellow. In a cross of a black female with a brown male, results can be either all black puppies, 1/2 black to 1/2 brown puppies, or 3/4 black to 1/4 yellow puppies. These results indicate which of the following?
A) Brown is dominant to black.
B) Black is dominant to brown and to yellow.
C) Yellow is dominant to black.
D) There is incomplete dominance.
E) Epistasis (2 or more genes affecting a phenotype) is involved.

E) Epistasis (2 or more genes affecting a phenotype) is involved.

How many genes must be responsible for these coat colors in Labrador retrievers?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

B) 2

In one type cross of black × black, the results were as follows: 9/16 black 4/16 yellow 3/16 brown. The genotype aabb must result in which of the following? A) Black
B) Brown
C) Yellow
D) A lethal result

C) Yellow

A 1:2:1 phenotypic ratio in the F2generation of a monohybrid cross is a sign of A) complete dominance. B) multiple alleles. C) incomplete dominance. D) polygenic inheritance. E) pleiotropy.

C) incomplete dominance.

In snapdragons, heterozygotes for one of the genes have pink flowers, whereas homozygotes have red or white flowers. When plants with red flowers are crossed with plants with whiteflowers, what proportion of the offspring will have pink flowers?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 100%

E) 100%

Skin color in a certain species of fish is inherited via a single gene with four different alleles. How many different types of gametes would be possible in this system?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 8
E) 16

C) 4

Genes control the sharpness of spines in a type of cactus. Cactuses with the dominant allele, S, have sharp spines, whereas homozygous recessivess cactuses have dull spines. At the same time,a second gene, N, determines whether cactuses have spines. Homozygous recessive nn cactuses have no spines at all.The relationship between genes S and N is an example of
A) incomplete dominance
B) epistasis
C) complete dominance
D) pleiotropy
E) codominance

B) epistasis.

A cross between a true-breeding sharp-spined cactus and a spineless cactus would produce
A) all sharp-spined progeny.
B) 50% sharp-spined, 50% dull-spined progeny.
C) 25% sharp-spined, 50% dull-spined, 25% spineless progeny
D) all spineless progeny.
E) Itis impossible to determine the phenotypes of the progeny.

A) all sharp-spined progeny.

If doubly heterozygous SsNn cactuses were allowed to self-pollinate, the F2 would segregate in which of the following ratios?
A) 3 sharp-spined : 1 spineless
B) 1 sharp-spined : 2 dull-spined : 1 spineless
C) 1 sharp spined : 1 dull-spined : 1 spineless
D) 1 sharp-spined : 1 dull-spined
E) 9 sharp-spined : 3 dull-spined : 4 spineless

E) 9 sharp-spined : 3 dull-spined : 4 spineless

If both children are of blood group MM, which of the following is possible?
A) Each parent is either M or MN.
B) Each parent must be type M.
C) Both children are heterozygous for this gene.
D) Neither parent can have the N allele.
E) The MN blood group is recessive to the ABO blood group.

A) Each parent is either M or MN.

Which describes the ability of a single gene to have multiple phenotypic effects?
A) Incomplete dominance
B)Multiple alleles
C) Pleiotropy
D) Epistasis

C) Pleiotropy

Which describes the ABO blood group system?
A) Incomplete dominance
B) Multiple alleles
C) Pleiotropy
D) Epistasis

B) Multiple alleles

Which of the following terms best describes when the phenotype of the heterozygote differs from the phenotypes of both homozygotes?
A) Incomplete dominance
B) Multiple alleles
C) Pleiotropy
D) Epistasis

A) Incomplete dominance

Cystic fibrosis affects the lungs, the pancreas, the digestive system, and other organs, resulting in symptoms ranging from breathing difficulties to recurrent infections. Which of the following terms best describes this?
A) Incomplete dominance
B) Multiple alleles
C) Pleiotropy
D) Epistasis

C) Pleiotropy

Which of the following is an example of polygenic inheritance?
A) Pink flowers in snapdragons
B) The ABO blood groups in humans
C) Huntington's disease in humans
D) White and purple flower color in peas
E) Skin pigmentation in humans

E) Skin pigmentation in humans

Hydrangea plants of the same genotype are planted in a large flower garden. Some of the plants produce blue flowers and others pink flowers. This can be best explained by which of the following?
A) Environmental factors such as soil pH
B) The allele for blue hydrangea being completely dominant
C) The alleles being codominant
D) The fact that a mutation has occurred
E) Acknowledging that multiple alleles are involved

A) Environmental factors such as soil pH

Which of the following provides an example of epistasis?
A) Recessive genotypes for each of two genes (aabb) results in an albino corn snake.
B) The allele b17 produces a dominant phenotype, although b1 throughb 16 do not.
C) In rabbits and many other mammals, one genotype (cc) prevents any fur color from developing.
D) InDrosophila (fruit flies), white eyes can be due to an X-linked gene or to a combination of other genes.

C) In rabbits and many other mammals, one genotype(cc) prevents any fur color from developing.

Most genes have many more than two alleles. However, which of the following is also true?
A) At least one allele for a gene always produces a dominant phenotype.
B) Most of the alleles will never be found in a live-born organism.
C) All of the alleles but one will produce harmful effects if homozygous.
D) There may still be only two phenotypes for the trait.
E) More than two alleles in a genotype is lethal.

D) There may still be only two phenotypes for the trait.

Huntington's disease is a dominant condition with late age of onset in humans. If one parent has the disease, what is the probability that his or her child will have the disease?
A) 1
B) 3/4
C) 1/2
D) 1/4
E) 0

C) 1/2

A scientist discovers a DNA-based test for the allele of a particular gene. This and only this allele, if homozygous, produces an effect that results in death at or about the time of birth. Of the following, which is the best use of this discovery?
A) To screen all newborns of an at-risk population
B) To design a test for identifying heterozygous carriers of the allele
C) To introduce a normal allele into deficient newborns
D) To follow the segregation of the allele during meiosis
E) To test school-age children for the disorder

B) To design a test for identifying heterozygous carriers of the allele

Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a Mendelian disorder in the human population that is inherited as arecessive. Two normal parents have two children with CF. The probability of their next childbeing normal for this characteristic is which of the following?
A) 0
B) 1/2
C) 1/4
D) 3/4
E) 1/8

C) 1/4

Hutchinson-Gilford progeria is anexceedingly rare human genetic disorder in which there is very early senility, and death, usually of coronary artery disease, at an average age of approximately 13. Patients, who look very old even as children, do not live to reproduce. Which of the following represents the most likely assumption?
A) All cases must occur in relatives; therefore, there must be only one mutant allele.
B) Successive generations of a family will continue to have more and more cases over time.
C) The disorder may be due to mutation in a single protein-coding gene.
D) Each patient will have had at least one affected family member in a previous generation.
E) The disease is autosomal dominant.

C) The disorder may be due to mutation in a single protein-coding gene.

A pedigree analysis for a given disorder's occurrence in a family shows that, although both parents of an affected child are normal, each of the parents has had affected relatives with the same condition. The disorder is then which of the following?
A) Recessive
B) Dominant
C) Incompletely dominant
D) Maternally inherited
E) A new mutation

A) Recessive

One of two major forms of a human condition called neurofibromatosis (NF 1) is inherited as a dominant, although it may be either mildly to very severely expressed. If a young child is the first in her family to be diagnosed, which of the following is the best explanation?
A) The mother carries the gene but does not express it at all.
B) One of the parents has very mild expression of the gene.
C) The condition skipped a generation in the family.
D) The child has a different allele of the gene than the parents.

B) One of the parents has very mild expression of the gene.

Which of the following contributes to genetic variation in sexually reproducing species?

random fertilization, independent assortment, crossing over

In humans, the haploid number of chromosomes is 23. Independent assortment has the possibility of producing _____ different types of gametes.

223

The diploid number of chromosomes in a certain animal is 8 (2n = 8). How do the four pairs of homologous chromosomes align and separate during meiosis?

They align and assort independently to form any of 16 different combinations.

In a diploid set of chromosomes, one member of each pair of homologous chromosomes is derived from the father (paternal), and the other comes from the mother (maternal). If 2n = 6, what is the probability of obtaining a gamete in which all the chromosomes are paternal ones?

1/8

The major contribution of sex to evolution is that _____.

it provides a method to increase genetic variation

What is the goal of Meiosis?

Divide one diploid cells into 4 haploid cells

How many phases does Meiosis have?

2 phases, meiosis, I + II meiosis

How many chromosomes do somatic cell have?

Human 2n somatic cells have 46 chromosomes

How many chromosomes do sex cells have?

23

How does a diploid cell become two diploid cells?

mitosis and Cytokineses

What is mitosis?

Division of the nucleus

What is Cytokineses?

Division of cytoplasm

What are the parts of the "cell cycle"

G1 > S > G2 > Mitosis > Cytokinesis

Summary of cell cycle

Mother cells starts with 4 chromosomes, through anaphase it has 8 chromosomes, through Telophase two daughter cells have 4 chromosomes each

Metaphase 1

spindle fibers attach to chromosomes and line up in center of cell

Prophase 2 in Males

chromosomes begin to condense, nuclear membrane dissolves, spindle fibers form

Metaphase 2 in Males

spindle fibers attach to chromosomes, Chromosomes line up in center of cell

Anaphase 2 in Males

Centromeres divide and sister chromatids move to opposite ends of cell as spindle fibers shorten

Cytokinesis

cell division occurs

Prophase 1 in females

chromatin begin got condense to chromosomes, nuclear membrane and nucleus disappear, spindle and asters form, Centrioles go to opposite poles of cell, homologous chromosomes pair up, crossing over occurs, recombinant chromosomes

Metaphase 1 in females

spindle fibers attach to chromosomes, chromosomes line up in center of cell

Anaphase 1 in females

chromosomes start to move to opposite ends of cell as spindle fibers shorten, independent assortment (genetic varation)

Telophase 1 in females

chromosomes reach opposite ends, Nuclear membrane forms

Prophase 2 in females

chromosomes begin to condense, nuclear membrane dissolves, Spindle fibers form

Metaphase 2 in females

spindle fibers attach to chromosomes, Chromosomes line up in center of cell

Anaphase 2 in females

centromeres divide and sister chromatids move to opposite ends of cell as spindle fibers shorten

Telophase 2 in females

Chromosomes reach opposite ends nuclear membrane forms

Where does meiosis take place in females?

the ovary

Summary of Meiosis

(2n) diploid cell goes through meiosis 1 to create 2 (n) Haploid cells, then through meiosis 2 they create 4 cells

What is an oocyte?

egg

How many polar bodies die?

3

Of all the gametes of women, the only survivor is?

the mature egg cell

When the sperm and the egg nuclei bond, what is created?

a zygote (2n)

There are 3 ways for genetic variation

Crossing over, Independent Assortment, Fertilization

Fertilization

when the mommy and daddy cells meet

Summarize Male Genetogenesis

1 (2n) spermatocyte goes through meiosis 1 to create 2 spermatocytes, they then go through meiosis 2 to make 4 spermatids that differentiate to 4 sperms with 23 chromosomes

Summarize Female Genetogenesis

1 (2n) ooctye goes through meiosis 1 to create one small polar body and one large and one small, the small one goes through meiosis 2 to create 3 polar bodies that will die. The large one goes through meiosis 2 to create an egg cell or an ovum

Faternal (Paternal) or non-identical twins use how many sperm and how many eggs?

2 eggs, 2 sperm

Explain identical twins.

A (2n) zygote goes through mitosis to produce two cells which in turn separate into two different cell bundles

Gregor Mendel

"father of genetics" and published a book called Laws of Inheritance

Mendle's study group?

Used pea plants

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