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1) During a field trip, an instructor touched a moth resting on a tree trunk. The moth raised its forewings to reveal large eyespots on its hind wings. The instructor asked why the moth lifted its wings. One student answered that sensory receptors had fired and triggered a neuronal reflex culminating in the contraction of certain muscles. A second student responded that the behavior might frighten predators. Which statement best describes these explanations?

A) The first explanation is correct, but the second is incorrect.
B) The first explanation refers to proximate causation, whereas the second refers to ultimate causation.
C) The first explanation is biological, whereas the second is philosophical.
D) The first explanation is testable as a scientific hypothesis, whereas the second is not.
E) Both explanations are reasonable and simply represent a difference of opinion.

B

2) A female cat in heat urinates more often and in many places. Male cats congregate near the urine deposits and fight with each other. Which of the following is a proximate cause of this behavior of increased urination?

A) It announces to the males that she is in heat.
B) Female cats that did this in the past attracted more males.
C) It is a result of hormonal changes associated with her reproductive cycle.
D) The female cat learned the behavior from observing other cats.
E) All of the above are ultimate causes of behavior.

C

3) A female cat in heat urinates more often and in many places. Male cats congregate near the urine deposits and fight with each other. Which of the following would be an ultimate cause of the male cats' response to the female's urinating behavior?

A) The males have learned to recognize the specific odor of the urine of a female in heat.
B) When the males smelled the odor, various neurons in their brains were stimulated.
C) Male cats respond to the odor because it is a means of locating females in heat.
D) Male cats' hormones are triggered by the odor released by the female.
E) The odor serves as a releaser for the instinctive behavior of the males.

C

4) Which of the following is a behavioral pattern that results from a proximate cause?

A) A cat kills a mouse to obtain food.
B) A male sheep fights with another male because it helps it to improve its social position and find a mate.
C) A female bird lays its eggs because the amount of daylight is decreasing slightly each day.
D) A goose squats and freezes motionless because that behavior helps it to escape a predator.
E) A cockroach runs into a crack in the wall and avoids being stepped on

C

5) Which of the following is a behavioral pattern resulting from an ultimate cause?

A) A male robin attacks a red tennis ball because it resembles the breast of another male.
B) A male robin attacks a red tennis ball because hormonal changes in spring increase its aggression.
C) A male robin attacks a red tennis ball because a part of its brain is stimulated by red objects.
D) A male robin attacks a red tennis ball because several times in the past red tennis balls have been thrown at it, and it has learned that they are dangerous.
E) A male robin attacks a red tennis ball because it confuses it with an encroaching male who will steal his territory.

E

6) The proximate causes of behavior are interactions with the environment, but behavior is ultimately shaped by

A) hormones.
B) evolution.
C) sexuality.
D) pheromones.
E) the nervous system.

B

7) Which of the following groups of scientists is closely associated with ethology?

A) Watson, Crick, and Franklin
B) McClintock, Goodall, and Lyon
C) Fossey, Hershey, and Chase
D) von Frisch, Lorenz, and Tinbergen
E) Hardy, Weinberg, and Castle

D

8) In the territorial behavior of the stickleback fish, the red belly of one male elicits attack from another male by functioning as

A) a pheromone.
B) a sign stimulus.
C) a fixed action pattern.
D) a search image.
E) an imprint stimulus.

B

9) Which of the following statements is (are) true of fixed action patterns?

A) They are highly stereotyped, instinctive behaviors.
B) They are triggered by sign stimuli in the environment and, once begun, are continued to completion.
C) An inappropriate stimulus can sometimes trigger them.
D) A and B only
E) A, B, and C

E

10) Animal communication involves what type of sensory information?

A) visual
B) auditory
C) chemical
D) A and C only
E) A, B, and C

E

11) What type of signal is long-lasting and works at night?

A) olfactory
B) visual
C) auditory
D) tactile
E) electrical

A

12) What type of signal is brief and can work at night or among obstructions?
A) olfactory
B) visual
C) auditory
D) tactile
E) electrical

C

13) What type of signal is fast and requires daylight with no obstructions?

A) olfactory
B) visual
C) auditory
D) tactile
E) electrical

B

14) A chemical produced by an animal that serves as a communication to another animal of the same species is called

A) a marker.
B) an inducer.
C) a pheromone.
D) an imprinter.
E) an agonistic chemical.

C

15) Which scientist formulated four questions that motivate the modern study of animal behavior?

A) E. O. Wilson
B) Jane Goodall
C) J. B. S. Haldane
D) Niko Tinbergen
E) William Hamilton

D

16) Which scientist determined that digger wasps used landmarks to locate nest entrances?

A) Karl von Frisch
B) Niko Tinbergen
C) Konrad Lorenz
D) William Hamilton
E) Ivan Pavlov

B

17) Which scientist studied imprinting of greylag geese?

A) Karl von Frisch
B) Niko Tinbergen
C) Konrad Lorenz
D) William Hamilton
E) Ivan Pavlov

C

18) A cage containing male mosquitoes has a small earphone placed on top, through which the sound of a female mosquito is played. All the males immediately fly to the earphone and thrust their abdomens through the fabric of the cage. What is the best explanation for this behavior?

A) The males learn to associate the sound with females.
B) Copulation is a fixed action pattern, and the female flight sound is a sign stimulus that initiates it.
C) The sound from the earphone irritates the male mosquitoes, causing them to attempt to sting it.
D) The reproductive drive is so strong that when males are deprived of females, they will attempt to mate with anything that has even the slightest female characteristic.
E) Through classical conditioning, the male mosquitoes have associated the inappropriate stimulus from the earphone with the normal response of copulation.

B

19) If mayflies lay eggs on roads instead of in water, this behavior could involve which of the following?

A) a defective gene
B) trial-and-error learning
C) misdirected response to a sign stimulus
D) natural behavioral variation in the mayfly population
E) insecticide poisoning

C

20) The time during imprinting when specific behaviors can be learned is called the

A) window of imprinting.
B) major period.
C) sensitive period.
D) timing imprint.
E) significant window.

C

21) Which of the following is true about imprinting?

A) It may be triggered by visual or chemical stimuli.
B) It happens to many adult animals, but not to their young.
C) It is a type of learning that does not involve innate behavior.
D) It occurs only in birds.
E) It causes behaviors that last for only a short time (the sensitive period).

A

22) A type of learning that can occur only during a brief period of early life and results in a behavior that is difficult to modify through later experiences is called

A) insight.
B) imprinting.
C) habituation.
D) operant conditioning.
E) trial-and-error learning.

B

23) Sow bugs become more active in dry areas and less active in humid areas. This is an example of

A) taxis.
B) tropism.
C) kinesis.
D) cognition.
E) net reflex.

C

24) You turn on a light and observe cockroaches scurrying to dark hiding places. What have you observed?

A) taxis
B) learned behavior
C) migration
D) visual communication
E) operant conditioning

A

25) Loss of responsiveness to stimuli that convey little or no new information is called

A) adapting.
B) spacing.
C) conditioning.
D) imprinting.
E) habituation.

E

26) Which of the following could be classified as habituation?

A) You enter a room and hear a fan motor. After a period of time, you are no longer aware of the motor's noise.
B) You hear a horn while driving your car. You step on the brakes but notice the sound came from a side street. You resume your previous speed.
C) One morning you awake to a beep-beep-beep from a garbage truck working on a new early morning schedule. The next week the garbage truck arrives at the same time and makes the same noise, but does not wake you up.
D) A and C only
E) A, B, and C

D

27) Learning in which an associated stimulus may be used to elicit the same behavioral response as the original sign stimulus is called

A) concept formation.
B) trial-and-error.
C) classical conditioning.
D) operant conditioning.
E) habituation.

C

28) Every morning at the same time, John went into the den to feed his new tropical fish. After a few weeks, he noticed that the fish swam to the top of the tank when he entered the room. This is an example of

A) habituation.
B) imprinting.
C) classical conditioning.
D) operant conditioning.
E) maturation.

C

29) The type of learning that causes specially trained dogs to salivate when they hear bells is called

A) insight.
B) imprinting.
C) habituation.
D) classical conditioning.
E) trial-and-error learning.

D

30) Which of the following statements about learning and behavior is incorrect?

A) Operant conditioning involves associating a behavior with a reward or punishment.
B) Associative learning involves linking one stimulus with another.
C) Classical conditioning involves trial-and-error learning.
D) Behavior can be modified by learning, but some apparent learning is due to maturation.
E) Imprinting is a learned behavior with an innate component acquired during a sensitive period.

C

31) A type of bird similar to a chickadee learns to peck through the cardboard tops of milk bottles left on doorsteps and drink the cream from the top. What term best applies to this behavior?

A) sign stimulus
B) habituation
C) imprinting
D) classical conditioning
E) operant conditioning

E

32) Male insects attempt to mate with orchids but eventually stop responding to them. What term best applies to this behavior?

A) sign stimulus
B) habituation
C) imprinting
D) classical conditioning
E) operant conditioning

B

33) A salmon returns to its home stream to spawn. What term best applies to this behavior?

A) sign stimulus
B) habituation
C) imprinting
D) classical conditioning
E) operant conditioning

C

34) A stickleback fish will attack a fish model as long as the model has red coloring. What term best applies to this behavior?

A) sign stimulus
B) habituation
C) imprinting
D) classical conditioning
E) operant conditioning

A

35) Parental protective behavior in turkeys is triggered by the cheeping sound of young chicks. What term best applies to this behavior?

A) sign stimulus
B) habituation
C) imprinting
D) classical conditioning
E) operant conditioning

A

36) A guinea pig loves the lettuce kept in the refrigerator and squeals each time the refrigerator door opens. What term best applies to this behavior?

A) sign stimulus
B) habituation
C) imprinting
D) classical conditioning
E) operant conditioning

D

37) Sparrows are receptive to learning songs only during a sensitive period. What term best applies to this behavior?

A) sign stimulus
B) habituation
C) imprinting
D) classical conditioning
E) operant conditioning

C

38) Classical conditioning and operant conditioning differ in that

A) classical conditioning takes longer.
B) operant conditioning usually involves more intelligence.
C) operant conditioning involves consequences for the animal's behavior.
D) classical conditioning is restricted to mammals and birds.
E) classical conditioning is much more useful for training domestic animals.

C

39) Some dogs love attention, and Frodo the beagle learns that if he barks, he gets attention. Which of the following might you use to describe this behavior?

A) The dog is displaying an instinctive fixed action pattern.
B) The dog is performing a social behavior.
C) The dog is trying to protect its territory.
D) The dog has been classically conditioned.
E) The dog's behavior is a result of operant conditioning.

E

40) Among song birds, a -crystallized- song is one that

A) is high pitched.
B) is aimed at attracting mates.
C) extremely young chicks sing.
D) is the final song that some species produce.
E) warns of predators.

D

41) Which of the following is least related to the others?

A) fixed action pattern
B) imprinting
C) operant conditioning
D) classical conditioning
E) habituation

A

42) Imagine that you are designing an experiment aimed at determining whether the initiation of migratory behavior is largely under genetic control. Of the following options, the best way to proceed is to

A) observe genetically distinct populations in the field and see if they have different migratory habits.
B) perform within-population matings with birds from different populations that have different migratory habits. Do this in the laboratory and see if offspring display parental migratory behavior.
C) bring animals into the laboratory and determine the conditions under which they become restless and attempt to migrate.
D) perform within-population matings with birds from different populations that have different migratory habits. Rear the offspring in the absence of their parents and observe the migratory behavior of offspring.
E) All of the above are equally productive ways to approach the question.

D

43) One way to understand how early environment influences differing behaviors in similar species is through the -cross-fostering- experimental technique. Suppose that the curly- whiskered mud rat differs from the bald mud rat in several ways, including being much more aggressive. How would you set up a cross-fostering experiment to determine if environment plays a role in the curly-whiskered mud rat's aggression?

A) You would cross curly-whiskered mud rats and bald mud rats and hand-rear the offspring.
B) You would place newborn curly-whiskered mud rats with bald mud rat parents, place newborn bald mud rats with curly-whiskered mud rat parents, and let some mud rats of both species be raised by their own species. Then compare the outcomes.
C) You would remove the offspring of curly-whiskered mud rats and bald mud rats from their parents and raise them in the same environment.
D) You would see if curly-whiskered mud rats bred true for aggression.
E) None of these schemes describes cross-fostering.

B

44) What probably explains why coastal and inland garter snakes react differently to banana slug prey?

A) Ancestors of coastal snakes that could eat the abundant banana slugs had increased fitness. No such selection occurred inland, where banana slugs were absent.
B) Banana slugs are difficult to see, and inland snakes, which have poor vision compared with coastal snakes, are less able to see them.
C) Garter snakes learn about prey from other garter snakes. Inland garter snakes have fewer types of prey because they are less social.
D) Inland slugs are distasteful, so inland snakes learn to avoid them. Coastal banana slugs are not distasteful.
E) Garter snakes are conditioned to eat what their mother eats. Coastal snake mothers happened to prefer slugs.

A

45) Which statement below about mating behavior is incorrect?

A) Some aspects of courtship behavior may have evolved from agonistic interactions.
B) Courtship interactions ensure that the participating individuals are nonthreatening and of the proper species, sex, and physiological condition for mating.
C) The degree to which evolution affects mating relationships depends on the degree of prenatal and postnatal input the parents are required to make.
D) The mating relationship in most mammals is monogamous, to ensure the reproductive success of the pair.
E) Polygamous relationships most often involve a single male and many females, but in some species this is reversed.

D

46) Which of the following is least related to the others?

A) agonistic behavior
B) cognitive maps
C) dominance hierarchy
D) ritual
E) territory

B

47) Which of the following statements about evolution of behavior is correct?

A) Natural selection will favor behavior that enhances survival and reproduction.
B) An animal may show behavior that maximizes reproductive fitness.
C) If a behavior is less than optimal, it is not completely evolved but will eventually become optimal.
D) A and B only
E) A, B, and C

D

48) Animals tend to maximize their energy intake-to-expenditure ratio. What is this behavior called?

A) agonistic behavior
B) optimal foraging
C) dominance hierarchies
D) animal cognition
E) territoriality

B

49) Feeding behavior with a high energy intake-to-expenditure ratio is called

A) herbivory.
B) autotrophy.
C) heterotrophy.
D) search scavenging.
E) optimal foraging.

E

50) Modern behavioral concepts relate the cost of a behavior to its benefit. Under which relationship might a behavior be performed?

A) cost is greater than the benefit
B) cost is less than the benefit
C) cost is equal to the benefit
D) A and C only
E) B and C only

E

51) Optimal foraging involves all of the following except

A) maximizing energy gained by the forager.
B) minimizing energy expended by the forager.
C) securing essential nutrients for the forager.
D) minimizing the risk of predation on the forager.
E) maximizing the population size of the forager.

E

52) In the evolution of whelk-eating behavior in crows, which of the following did natural selection minimize?

A) the average number of drops required to break the shell
B) the average height a bird flew to drop a shell
C) the average total energy used to break shells
D) the average size of the shells dropped by the birds
E) the average thickness of the shells dropped by the birds

C

53) Which of the following might affect the foraging behavior of an animal in the context of optimal foraging?

A) risk of predation
B) prey size
C) prey defenses
D) A and B only
E) A, B, and C

E

54) You discover a rare new bird species, but you are unable to observe its mating behavior. You see that the male is large and ornamental compared with the female. On this basis, you can probably conclude that the species is

A) polygamous.
B) monogamous.
C) polyandrous.
D) promiscuous.
E) agonistic.

A

55) The evolution of mating systems is most likely affected by

A) population size.
B) care required by young.
C) certainty of paternity.
D) B and C only
E) A, B , and C

D

56) Fred and Joe, two unrelated, mature male gorillas, encounter one another. Fred is courting a female. Fred grunts as Joe comes near. As Joe continues to advance, Fred begins drumming (pounding his chest) and bares his teeth. Joe then rolls on the ground on his back, gets up, and quickly leaves. This behavioral pattern is repeated several times during the mating season. Choose the most specific behavior described by this example.

A) agonistic behavior
B) territorial behavior
C) learned behavior
D) social behavior
E) fixed action pattern

A

57) Which of the following is least related to the others?

A) fixed action pattern
B) pheromones
C) sign stimulus
D) hormones
E) optimal foraging

E

58) Which one of these concepts is not associated with sociobiology?

A) parental investment
B) inclusive fitness
C) associative learning
D) reciprocal altruism
E) kin selection

C

59) Which of the following is least related to the others?

A) altruism
B) polygamy
C) monogamy
D) polygyny
E) polyandry

A

60) Which of the following does not have a coefficient of relatedness of 0.5?

A) a father to his daughter
B) a mother to her son
C) an uncle to his nephew
D) a brother to his brother
E) a sister to her brother

C

61) Which scientist devised a rule that predicts when natural selection should favor altruism?

A) Karl von Frisch
B) Niko Tinbergen
C) Konrad Lorenz
D) William Hamilton
E) Ivan Pavlov

D

62) Animals that help other animals of the same species are expected to

A) have excess energy reserves.
B) be bigger and stronger than the other animals.
C) be genetically related to the other animals.
D) be male.
E) have defective genes controlling their behavior.

C

63) The presence of altruistic behavior is most likely due to kin selection, a theory maintaining

A) aggression between sexes promotes the survival of the fittest individuals.
B) genes enhance survival of copies of themselves by directing organisms to assist others who share those genes.
C) companionship is advantageous to animals because in the future they can help each other.
D) critical thinking abilities are normal traits for animals and they have arisen, like other traits, through natural selection.
E) natural selection has generally favored the evolution of exaggerated aggressive and submissive behaviors to resolve conflict without grave harm to participants.

B

64) In Belding's ground squirrels, it is mostly the females that behave altruistically by sounding alarm calls. What is the likely reason for this distinction?

A) Males have smaller vocal cords and are less likely to make sounds.
B) Females invest more in foraging and food stores, so they are more defensive.
C) Females settle in the area in which they were born, so the calling females are warning kin.
D) The sex ratio is biased.
E) Males forage alone; therefore, alarm calls are useless.

C

65) The central concept of sociobiology is that

A) human behavior is rigidly predetermined.
B) the behavior of an individual cannot be modified.
C) our behavior consists mainly of fixed action patterns.
D) most aspects of our social behavior have an evolutionary basis.
E) the social behavior of humans is homologous to the social behavior of honeybees.

D

66) Which scientist suggested that human social behavior may have a genetic basis?

A) E. O. Wilson
B) Jane Goodall
C) J. B. S. Haldane
D) Niko Tinbergen
E) William Hamilton

A

67) Which scientist developed the concept of inclusive fitness?

A) E. O. Wilson
B) Jane Goodall
C) J. B. S. Haldane
D) Niko Tinbergen
E) William Hamilton

E

1) Which of the following is true of innate behaviors?

A) Genes have very little influence on the expression of innate behaviors.
B) Innate behaviors tend to vary considerably among members of a population.
C) Innate behaviors are limited to invertebrate animals.
D) Innate behaviors are expressed in most individuals in a population across a wide range of environmental conditions.
E) Innate behaviors occur in invertebrates and some vertebrates but not in mammals.

D

2) Researchers have found that a region of the canary forebrain shrinks during the nonbreeding season and enlarges when breeding season begins. This annual enlargement of brain tissue is probably associated with the annual

A) addition of new syllables to a canary's song repertoire.
B) crystallization of subsong into adult songs.
C) sensitive period in which canary parents imprint on new offspring.
D) renewal of mating and nest-building behaviors.
E) elimination of the memorized template for songs sung the previous year.

A

3) Although many chimpanzee populations live in environments containing oil palm nuts, members of only a few populations use stones to crack open the nuts. The most likely explanation for this behavioral difference between populations is that

A) the behavioral difference is caused by genetic differences between populations.
B) members of different populations have different nutritional requirements.
C) the cultural tradition of using stones to crack nuts has arisen in only some populations.
D) members of different populations differ in learning ability.
E) members of different populations differ in manual dexterity.

C

4) Which of the following is not required for a behavioral trait to evolve by natural selection?

A) In each individual, the form of the behavior is determined entirely by genes.
B) The behavior varies among individuals.
C) An individual's reproductive success depends in part on how the behavior is performed.
D) Some component of the behavior is genetically inherited.
E) An individual's genotype influences its behavioral phenotype.

A

5) Female spotted sandpipers aggressively court males and, after mating, leave the clutch of young for the male to incubate. This sequence may be repeated several times with different males until no available males remain, forcing the female to incubate her last clutch. Which of the following terms best describes this behavior?

A) monogamy
B) polygyny
C) polyandry
D) promiscuity
E) certainty of paternity

C

6) According to Hamilton's rule, of the altruist. B) natural selection favors altruistic acts when the resulting benefit to the beneficiary, correct for relatedness, exceeds the cost to the altruist. C) natural selection is more likely to favor altruistic behavior that benefits an offspring than altruistic behavior that benefits a sibling. D) the effects of kin selection are larger than the effects of direct

A) natural selection does not favor altruistic behavior that causes the death of the altruist.
B) natural selection favors altruistic acts when the resulting benefit to the beneficiary, correct for relatedness, exceeds the cost to the altruist.
C) natural selection is more likely to favor altruistic behavior that benefits an offspring than altruistic behavior that benefits a sibling.
D) the effects of kin selection are larger than the effects of direct natural selection on individuals.
E) altruism is always reciprocal.

B

7) The core idea of sociobiology is that

A) human behavior is rigidly determined by inheritance.
B) humans cannot choose to change their social behavior.
C) much human behavior has evolved by natural selection.
D) the social behavior of humans has many similarities to that of social insects such as honeybees.
E) the environment plays a larger role than genes in shaping human behavior.

C

1) -How does the foraging of animals on tree seeds affect the distribution and abundance of the trees?- This question

A) would require an elaborate experimental design to answer.
B) is difficult to answer because a large experimental area would be required.
C) is difficult to answer because a long-term experiment would be required.
D) is a question that a present-day ecologist would be likely to ask.
E) A, B, C and D are correct.

E

2) Which of the following statements about ecology is incorrect?

A) Ecologists may study populations and communities of organisms.
B) Ecological studies may involve the use of models and computers.
C) Ecology is a discipline that is independent from natural selection and evolutionary history.
D) Ecology spans increasingly comprehensive levels of organization, from individuals to ecosystems.
E) Ecology is the study of the interactions between biotic and abiotic aspects of the environment.

C

3) Which of the following levels of organization is arranged in the correct sequence from most to least inclusive?

A) community, ecosystem, individual, population
B) ecosystem, community, population, individual
C) population, ecosystem, individual, community
D) individual, population, community, ecosystem
E) individual, community, population, ecosystem

B

4) Ecology as a discipline directly deals with all of the following levels of biological organization except

A) population.
B) cellular.
C) organismal.
D) ecosystem.
E) community.

B

5) You are working for the Environmental Protection Agency and researching the effect of a potentially toxic chemical in drinking water. There is no documented scientific evidence showing that the chemical is toxic, but many suspect it to be a health hazard. Using the precautionary principle, what would be a reasonable environmental policy?

A) Establish no regulations until there are conclusive scientific studies.
B) Set the acceptable levels of the chemical conservatively low, and keep them there unless future studies show that they can be safely raised.
C) Set the acceptable levels at the highest levels encountered, and keep them there unless future studies demonstrate negative health effects.
D) Caution individuals to use their own judgment in deciding whether to drink water from a potentially contaminated area.
E) Establish a contingency fund to handle insurance claims in the event that the chemical turns out to produce negative health effects.

B

6) Which of the following statements best describes the difference in approach to studying the environment by early naturalists compared to present-day ecologists?

A) Early naturalists employed a descriptive approach; present-day ecologists generate hypotheses, design experiments, and draw conclusions from their observations.
B) Early naturalists manipulated the environment and observed changes in plant and animal populations, while modern ecology focuses on population dynamics.
C) Early naturalists systematically recorded what they observed in their environment; modern ecology is only concerned with man's impact on the environment.
D) Early naturalists were interested with man's interaction with the natural world; present-day ecologists seek to link ecology to developmental biology.
E) Early naturalists were interested in interactions between organisms and their environment; present day ecologists are interested in interactions between organisms.

A

7) Which statement best contrasts environmentalism with ecology?

A) Ecology is the study of the environment; environmentalism is the study of ecology.
B) Ecology provides scientific understanding of living things and their environment; environmentalism is more about conservation and preservation of life on Earth.
C) Environmentalists are only involved in politics and advocating for protecting nature; ecologists are only involved in scientific investigations of the environment.
D) Ecologists study organisms in environments that have been undisturbed by human activities; environmentalists study the effects of human activities on organisms.
E) Environmentalism is devoted to applied ecological science; ecology is concerned with basic/theoretical ecological science.

B

8) Of the following examples of ecological effect leading to an evolutionary effect (→), which is most correct?

A) When seeds are not plentiful → trees produce more seeds.
B) A few organisms of a larger population survive a drought → these survivors then emigrate to less arid environments.
C) A few individuals with denser fur survive the coldest days of an ice age → the reproducing survivors all have long fur.
D) Fish that swim the fastest in running water → catch the most prey and more easily escape predation.
E) The insects that spend the most time exposed to sunlight → have the most mutations.

C

9) Rachel Carson would most likely have endorsed which of the following statements?

A) Conserving wildness will lead to the preservation of the Earth.
B) The greatest liberty humans have taken is with nature.
C) Humans have dominion over the Earth and all of its inhabitants.
D) All pesticides are unsafe and must be banned.
E) The environment can repair damage created by human activity.

B

10) Landscape ecology is best described as the study of

A) the flow of energy and materials between the biotic and abiotic components of an ecosystem.
B) how the structure and function of species enable them to meet the challenges of their environment.
C) what factors affect the structure and size of a population over time.
D) the interactions between the different species that inhabit and ecosystem.
E) the factors controlling the exchanges of energy, materials, and organisms among ecosystem patches.

E

11) Studying species transplants is a way that ecologists

A) determine the abundance of a species in a specified area.
B) determine the distribution of a species in a specified area.
C) develop mathematical models for distribution and abundance of organisms.
D) determine if dispersal is a key factor in limiting distribution of organisms.
E) consolidate a landscape region into a single ecosystem.

D

12) Which of the following are important biotic factors that can affect the structure and organization of biological communities?

A) precipitation, wind
B) nutrient availability, soil pH
C) predation, competition
D) temperature, water
E) light intensity, seasonality

C

13) Which of the following abiotic factors has the greatest influence on the metabolic rates of plants and animals?

A) water
B) wind
C) temperature
D) rocks and soil
E) disturbances

C

14) Which of the following statements about light in aquatic environments is correct?

A) Water selectively reflects and absorbs certain wavelengths of light.
B) Photosynthetic organisms that live in deep water probably use red light.
C) Longer wavelengths penetrate to greater depths.
D) Light penetration seldom limits the distribution of photosynthetic species.
E) Most photosynthetic organisms avoid the surface where the light is not too intense.

A

15) In mountainous areas of western North America, north-facing slopes would be expected to

A) receive more sunlight than similar southern exposures
B) be warmer and drier than comparable southern exposed slopes
C) consistently steeper than southern exposures
D) support biological communities similar to those found lower elevations on similar south- facing slopes.
E) support biological communities similar to those found at higher elevations on similar south- facing slopes.

E

16) Coral reefs can be found on the southern east coast of the United States but not at similar latitudes on the southern west coast. Differences in which of the following most likely account for this?

A) sunlight intensity
B) precipitation
C) day length
D) ocean currents
E) salinity

D

17) Deserts typically occur in a band at 30 degrees north and south latitude because ture.

A) descending air masses tend to be cool and dry.
B) trade winds have a little moisture.
C) water is heavier than air and is not carried far over land.
D) ascending air tends to be moist.
E) these locations get the most intense solar radiation of any location on Earth

A

18) Turnover of water in temperate lakes during the spring and fall is made possible by which of the following?

A) warm, less dense water layered at the top
B) cold, more dense water layered at the bottom
C) a distinct thermocline between less dense warm water and cold, dense water.
D) the density of water changes as seasonal temperatures change.
E) currents generated by nektonic animals

D

19) In temperate lakes, the surface water is replenished with nutrients during turnovers that occur in the

A) autumn and spring.
B) autumn and winter.
C) spring and summer.
D) summer and winter.
E) summer and autumn.

A

20) Which of the following is responsible for the summer and winter stratification of deep temperate lakes?

A) Water is densest at 4°C.
B) Oxygen is most abundant in deeper waters.
C) Winter ice sinks in the summer.
D) Stratification is caused by a thermocline.
E) Stratification always follows the fall and spring turnovers.

A

21) Generally speaking, deserts are located in places where air masses are usually

A) tropical.
B) humid.
C) rising.
D) descending.
E) expanding.

D

22) Which of the following causes Earth's seasons?

A) global air circulation
B) global wind patterns
C) ocean currents
D) changes in Earth's distance from the sun
E) the tilt of Earth's axis

E

23) Which of the following events might you predict to occur if the tilt of Earth's axis relative to its plane of orbit was increased 33.5 degrees?

A) Summers and winters in the United States would likely become warmer and colder, respectively.
B) Winters and summers in Australia would likely become less distinct seasons.
C) Seasonal variation at the equator might decrease.
D) Both northern and southern hemispheres would experience summer and winter at the same time.
E) Both poles would experience massive ice melts

A

24) Imagine some cosmic catastrophe jolts Earth so that its axis is perpendicular to the orbital plane between Earth and the sun. The most obvious effect of this change would be

A) the elimination of tides.
B) an increase in the length of night.
C) an increase in the length of a year.
D) a decrease in temperature at the equator.
E) the elimination of seasonal variation.

E

25) The main reason polar regions are cooler than the equator is because

A) there is more ice at the poles.
B) sunlight strikes the poles at an lower angle.
C) the poles are farther from the sun.
D) the poles have a thicker atmosphere.
E) the poles are permanently tilted away from the sun.

B

26) Which of the following environmental features might influence microclimates?

A) a discarded soft-drink can
B) a tree
C) a fallen log
D) a stone
E) all of the above

E

27) The success with which plants extend their range northward following glacial retreat is best determined by

A) whether there is simultaneous migration of herbivores.
B) their tolerance to shade.
C) their seed dispersal rate.
D) their size.
E) their growth rate.

C

28) As climate changes because of global warming, species' ranges in the northern hemisphere may move northward. The trees that are most likely to avoid extinction in such an environment are those that

A) have seeds that are easily dispersed by wind or animals.
B) have thin seed coats.
C) produce well-provisioned seeds.
D) have seeds that become viable only after a forest fire.
E) disperse many seeds in close proximity to the parent tree.

A

29) Which of the examples below provides appropriate abiotic and biotic factors that might determine the distribution of the species in question?

A) The amount of nitrate and phosphate in the soil and wild flower abundance and diversity
B) The number of frost-free days and competition between species of introduced grasses and native alpine grasses
C) Increased predation and decreased food availability and a prairie dog population after a prairie fire
D) Available sunlight and increased salinity in the top few meters of the ocean and the abundance and diversity of phytoplankton communities
E) The pH and dissolved oxygen concentration and the streams in which brook trout can live

B

30) A certain species of pine tree survives only in scattered locations at elevations above 2,800 m in the western United States. To understand why this tree grows only in these specific places an ecologist should

A) conclude that lower elevations are limiting to the survival of this species.
B) study the anatomy and physiology of this species.
C) investigate the various biotic and abiotic factors that are unique to high altitude.
D) analyze the soils found in the vicinity of these trees, looking for unique chemicals that may support their growth.
E) collect data on temperature, wind, and precipitation at several of these locations for a year.

C

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31) How would an ecologist likely explain the expansion of the cattle egret?

A) The areas to which the cattle egret has expanded have no cattle egret parasites.
B) Climatic factors, such as temperature and precipitation provide suitable habitat for cattle egrets.
C) There are no natural predators for cattle egrets in the New World, so they continue to expand their range.
D) A habitat left unoccupied by native herons and egrets met the biotic and abiotic requirements of the cattle egret transplants and their descendants.
E) The first egrets to colonize South America evolved into a new species capable of competing with the native species of herons and egrets.

D

32) Species introduced to new geographic locations

A) are usually successful in colonizing the area.
B) always spread because they encounter no natural predators.
C) increase the diversity and therefore the stability of the ecosystem.
D) can out-compete and displace native species for biotic and abiotic resources.
E) are always considered pests by ecologists.

D

33) Which of the following organisms is the most likely candidate for geographic isolation?

A) sparrow
B) bat
C) squirrel
D) salt-water fish
E) land snail

E

34) Generalized global air circulation and precipitation patterns are caused by

A) rising, warm, moist air masses cool and release precipitation as they rise and then at high altitude, cool and sink back to the surface as dry air masses after moving north or south of the tropics.
B) air masses that are dried and heated over continental areas that rise, cool aloft, and descend over oceanic areas followed by a return flow of moist air from ocean to land delivering high amounts of precipitation to coastal areas.
C) polar, cool, moist high pressure air masses from the poles that move along the surface, releasing precipitation along the way to the equator where they are heated and dried.
D) the revolution of the Earth around the sun.
E) Mountain ranges that deflect air masses containing variable amounts of moisture.

A

35) Air masses formed over the Pacific Ocean are moved by prevailing westerlies where they encounter extensive north-south mountain ranges, such as the Sierra Nevada and the Cascades. Which statement best describes the changes that these air masses undergo?

A) The cool, moist Pacific air heats up as it rises, releasing its precipitation as it passes the tops of the mountains, and this warm, now dry air cools as it descends on the leeward side of the range.
B) The warm, moist Pacific air rises and cools, releasing precipitation as it moves up the windward side of the range, and this cool, now dry air mass heats up as it descends on the leeward side of the range.
C) The cool, dry Pacific air heats and picks up moisture from evaporation of the snowcapped peaks of the mountain range, releasing this moisture as precipitation as the air cools as it descends on the leeward side of the range.
D) These air masses are blocked by these mountain ranges producing high annual amounts of precipitation on the windward sides of these mountain ranges.
E) These air masses remain essentially unchanged in moisture content and temperature as they pass over these mountain ranges. 1

B

36) Experts in deer ecology generally agree that population sizes of deer that live in temperate climates are limited by winter snow. The deer congregate in -yarding- areas under evergreen trees because venturing out to feed in winter is energetically too expensive when snowfall depths accumulate to above 40 cm. Deer often stay yarded until the spring thaw. Snow depth over 40 inches for more than 60 days results in high mortality due to starvation. This observation best illustrates which of the following principles about factors that limit distribution of organisms?

A) Abiotic factors, such as weather extremes, ultimately limit distribution.
B) Organisms will face extinction unless they adapt to conditions or evolve new mechanisms for survival.
C) Environmental factors are limiting not only in amount but also in longevity.
D) Daily accumulations in snow depth gradually add up to cause increased deer mortality.
E) Temporary extremes in weather conditions usually result in high mortality in the deer population.

C

37) Which marine zone would have the lowest rates of primary productivity (photosynthesis)?

A) pelagic
B) abyssal
C) neritic
D) continental shelf
E) intertidal

B

38) The benthic zone in an aquatic biome

A) often supports communities of organisms that feed largely on detritus.
B) supports communities of highly motile animals.
C) is where one would most expect to find a thermocline.
D) has wider seasonal fluctuations in temperature than other aquatic zones.
E) is always devoid of light.

A

39) Where would an ecologist find the most phytoplankton in a lake?

A) profundal zone 2
B) benthic zone
C) photic zone
D) oligotrophic zone
E) aphotic zone

C

40) Phytoplankton is most frequently found in which of the following zones?

A) oligotrophic
B) photic
C) benthic
D) abyssal
E) aphotic

B

41) You are planning a dive in a lake, and are eager to observe not many underwater organisms but be able to observe them both close up and far away. You would do well to choose

A) an oligotrophic lake.
B) an eutrophic lake.
C) a relatively shallow lake.
D) a nutrient-rich lake.
E) a lake with consistently warm temperatures.

A

42) You are interested in studying how organisms react to a gradient of a variety of abiotic conditions and how they coexist in this gradient. The best location in which to conduct such a study is

A) a grassland.
B) an intertidal zone.
C) a river.
D) tropical forest.
E) an eutrophic lake.

B

43) Which of the following statements about the ocean pelagic biome is true?

A) The ocean is a vast, deep storehouse that always provides sustenance; it is the next -frontier- for feeding humanity. 3
B) Because it is so immense, the ocean is a uniform environment.
C) More photosynthesis occurs in the ocean than in any other biome.
D) Pelagic ocean photosynthetic activity is disproportionately low in relation to the size of the biome.
E) The most abundant animals are unicellular zooplankton.

D

44) Coral animals

A) are a diverse group of cnidarians often forming mutualistic symbiotic relationships with dinoflagellate algae.
B) are predominantly photosynthetic, multicellular algae.
C) can tolerate low oxygen and nutrient levels, and varying levels of salinity.
D) can only survive in tropical waters 30oC and above.
E) build coral reefs by glueing sand particles together.

A

45) If a meteor impact or volcanic eruption injected a lot of dust into the atmosphere and reduced the sunlight reaching Earth's surface by 70% for one year, all of the following marine communities most likely would be greatly affected except

A) deep-sea vent communities.
B) coral reef communities.
C) benthic communities.
D) pelagic communities.
E) estuary communities.

A

46) Which of the following is not true about estuaries?

A) Estuaries are often bordered by mudflats and salt marshes.
B) Estuaries contain waters of varying salinity.
C) Estuaries support a variety of animal life that humans consume.
D) Estuaries usually contain no or few producers.
E) Estuaries support many semiaquatic species.

D

47) Which of the following statements best describes the effect of climate on biome distribution?

A) Knowledge of annual temperature and precipitation is sufficient to predict which biome will be found in an area.
B) Fluctuation of environmental variables is not important if areas have the same annual temperature and precipitation means.
C) It is not only the average climate that is important in determining biome distribution, but also the pattern of climatic variation.
D) Temperate forests, coniferous forests, and grasslands all have the same mean annual temperatures and precipitation.
E) Correlation of climate with biome distribution is sufficient to determine the cause of biome patterns.

C

48) Probably the most important factor(s) affecting the distribution of biomes is (are)

A) wind and ocean water current patterns.
B) species diversity.
C) proximity to large bodies of water
D) climate.
E) day length and rainfall.

D

49) In the development of terrestrial biomes, which factor is most dependent on all the others?

A) the species of colonizing animals
B) prevailing temperature
C) prevailing rainfall
D) mineral nutrient availability
E) soil structure

A

50) An area in which different terrestrial biomes grade into each other is known as a(n)

A) littoral zone.
B) vertically stratified canopy.
C) ecotone.
D) abyssal zone.
E) cline.

C

51) Two plant species live in the same biome but on different continents. Although the two species are not at all closely related, they may appear quite similar as a result of

A) parallel evolution.
B) convergent evolution.
C) allopatric speciation.
D) introgression.
E) gene flow.

B

52) In which of the following terrestrial biome pairs are both dependent upon periodic burning?

A) tundra and coniferous forest
B) chaparral and savanna
C) desert and savanna
D) tropical forest and temperate broadleaf forest
E) grassland and tundra

B

53) Fire suppression by humans ill result ultimately in sustainable production of increased amounts of wood for human use.

A) will always result in an increase in the species diversity in a given biome.
B) can change the species composition within biological communities.
C) will result ultimately in sustainable production of increased amounts of wood for human use.
D) is necessary for the protection of threatened and endangered forest species.
E) is a management goal of conservation biologists to maintain the healthy condition of biomes.

B

54) Which of the following statements best describes the interaction between fire and ecosystems?

A) The chance of fire in a given ecosystem is highly predictable over the short term.
B) Many kinds of plants and plant communities have adapted to frequent fires.
C) The prevention of forest fires has allowed more productive and stable plant communities to develop.
D) Chaparral communities have evolved to the extent that they rarely burn.
E) Fire is unnatural in ecosystems and should be prevented.

B

55) Which biome is able to support many large animals despite receiving moderate amounts of rainfall?

A) tropical rain forest
B) temperate forest
C) chaparral
D) taiga
E) savanna

E

56) Tropical grasslands with scattered trees are also known as

A) taigas.
B) tundras.
C) savannas.
D) chaparrals.
E) temperate plains.

C

57) Which type of biome would most likely occur in a climate with mild, rainy winters and hot, dry summers?

A) desert
B) taiga
C) temperate grassland
D) chaparral
E) savanna

D

58) In which community would organisms most likely have adaptations enabling them to respond to different photoperiods?

A) tropical forest
B) coral reef
C) savanna
D) temperate forest
E) abyssal

D

59) The growing season would generally be shortest in which of the following biomes?

A) savanna
B) temperate broadleaf forest
C) temperate grassland
D) tropical rain forest
E) coniferous forest

E

60) Trees are not usually found in the tundra biome because of

A) insufficient annual precipitation.
B) acidic soils.
C) extreme winter temperatures.
D) overbrowsing by musk ox and caribou.
E) permafrost.

E

61) If global warming continues at its present rate, which biomes will likely take the place of the coniferous forest (taiga)?

A) tundra and polar ice
B) temperate broadleaf forest and grassland
C) desert and chaparral
D) tropical forest and savanna
E) chaparral and temperate broadleaf forest

B

1) Which of the following areas of study focuses on the exchange of energy, organisms, and materials between ecosystems?

A) population ecology
B) organismal ecology
C) landscape ecology
D) ecosystem ecology
E) community ecology

C

2) If Earth's axis of rotation suddenly became perpendicular to the plane of its orbit, the most predictable effect would be

A) no more night and day. 8
B) a big change in the length of the year.
C) a cooling of the equator.
D) a loss of seasonal variation at high latitudes.
E) the elimination of ocean currents.

D

3) When climbing a mountain, we can observe transitions in biological communities that are analogous to the changes

A) in biomes at different latitudes.
B) at different depths in the ocean.
C) in a community through different seasons.
D) in an ecosystem as it evolves over time.
E) across the United States from east to west.

A

4) The oceans affect the biosphere in all of the following ways except

A) producing a substantial amount of the biosphere's oxygen.
B) removing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.
C) moderating the climate of terrestrial biomes.
D) regulating the pH of freshwater biomes and terrestrial groundwater.
E) being the source of most of Earth's rainfall.

D

5) Which lake zone would be absent in a very shallow lake?

A) benthic zone
B) aphotic zone
C) pelagic zone
D) littoral zone
E) limnetic zone

B

6) Which of the following is true with respect to oligotrophic lakes and eutrophic lakes?

A) Oligotrophic lakes are more subject to oxygen depletion.
B) Rates of photosynthesis are lower in eutrophic lakes.
C) Eutrophic lake water contains lower concentrations of nutrients.
D) Eutrophic lakes are richer in nutrients.
E) Sediments in oligotrophic lakes contain larger amounts of decomposable organic matter.

D

7) Which of the following is characteristic of most terrestrial biomes?

A) annual average rainfall in excess of 250 cm
B) a distribution predicted almost entirely by rock and soil patterns
C) clear boundaries between adjacent biomes 9
D) vegetation demonstrating stratification
E) cold winter months

D

8) Which of the following biomes is correctly paired with the description of its climate?

A) savanna-low temperature, precipitation uniform during the year
B) tundra-long summers, mild winters
C) temperate broadleaf forest-relatively short growing season, mild winters
D) temperate grasslands-relatively warm winters, most rainfall in summer
E) tropical forests-nearly constant day length and temperature

E

9) Suppose the number of bird species is determined mainly by the number of vertical strata found in the environment. If so, in which of the following biomes would you find the greatest number of bird species?

A) tropical rain forest
B) savanna
C) desert
D) temperate broadleaf forest
E) temperate grassland

A

1) A population is correctly defined as having which of the following characteristics?
I. inhabiting the same general area individuals
II. belonging to the same species
III. possessing a constant and uniform density and dispersion

A) I only
B) III only
C) I and II only
D) II and III only
E) I, II, and III

C

2) An ecologist recorded 12 white-tailed deer, Odocoileus virginianus, per square mile in one woodlot and 20 per square mile on another woodlot. What was the ecologist comparing?

A) density
B) dispersion
C) carrying capacity
D) quadrats
E) range

A

3) To measure the population density of monarch butterflies occupying a particular park, 100 butterflies are captured, marked with a small dot on a wing, and then released. The next day, another 100 butterflies are captured, including the recapture of 20 marked butterflies. One would estimate the population to be

A) 200.
B) 500.
C) 1,000.
D) 10,000.
E) 900,000.

B

4) During the spring, you are studying the mice that live in a field near your home. There are lots of mice in this field, but you realize that you rarely observe any reproductive females. This most likely indicates

A) that there is selective predation on female mice.
B) that female mice die before reproducing.
C) that this habitat is a good place for mice to reproduce.
D) that you are observing immigrant mice.
E) that the breeding season is over

D

5) You are observing a population of lizards when you notice that the number of adults has increased and is higher than previously observed. One explanation for such an observation would include

A) reduction in death rate.
B) increased immigration.
C) increased emigration.
D) decreased emigration.
E) increased birth rate.

B

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