microbiology 15

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1. The bone marrow is where
immune responses to antigen occur.
blood stem cells give rise to immature lymphocytes.
antigen is filtered from the blood.
antigen is filtered from tissue fluid.
T lymphocytes complete maturation.

blood stem cells give rise to immature lymphocytes.

2. The progeny cells of a B-cell clone are called
antibodies.
sensitized T cells.
activated macrophages.
plasma cells.
Bursa cells.

plasma cells

. Helper T cells
secrete antibodies.
function in allergic reactions.
directly destroy target cells.
suppress immune reactions.
activate B cells and other T cells

activate B cells and other T cells

4. Plasma cells
secrete antibodies.
function in allergic reactions.
directly destroy target cells.
suppress immune reactions.
activate B cells and other T cells.

secrete antibodies

. Cell surface markers involved in immune reactions
are the result of genetic expression.
function in recognition of self molecules.
receive and transmit chemical messages among other cells of the system.
aid in cellular development.
All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

6. The major histocompatability complex is
a group of blood vessels that protects the nervous system.
a set of genes that code for MHC cell receptors.
also known as the complement system.
located in the thymus gland.
All of the choices are correct.

a set of genes that code for MHC cell receptors.

7. Class II MHC genes code for
certain secreted complement components.
self receptors recognized by natural killer cells.
all HLA antigens.
receptors located primarily on macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells.
All of the choices are correct.

receptors located primarily on macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells.

8. Class I MHC genes code for
certain secreted complement components.
markers that display unique characteristics of self.
all HLA antigens.
receptors located primarily on macrophages and B cells.
All of the choices are correct.

markers that display unique characteristics of self.

9. Lymphocytes
possess MHC antigens for recognizing self.
have membrane receptors that recognize foreign antigens.
gain tolerance to self by destruction of lymphocytes that could react against self.
develop into clones of B and T cells with extreme variations of specificity.
All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

10. The monomer subunit of immunoglobulin molecules has all the following except
two identical heavy polypeptide chains.
two identical light polypeptide chains.
disulfide bonds between polypeptide chains.
four antigen binding sites.
a variable and constant region on each polypeptide chain.

four antigen binding sites.

11. The region of each antibody molecule where amino acid composition is very different from one clone of B lymphocytes to another is the
variable region.
joining region.
constant region.
light region.
hinge region.

variable region

12. Lymphocyte maturation involves
hormonal signals that initiate development.
B cells maturing in bone marrow sites.
T cells maturing in the thymus.
release of mature lymphocytes to begin migration to various lymphoid organs.
All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct

13. Properties of effective antigens include all the following except
foreign to the immune system.
molecular complexity.
large molecules with a minimum molecular weight of 1,000.
large polymers made up of repeating subunits.
cells or large, complex molecules.

large polymers made up of repeating subunits.

14. The molecular fragment on an antigen molecule that a lymphocyte recognizes and responds to is called a/an
epitope.
hapten.
antigen binding site.
variable region.
None of the choices are correct.

epitope

15. Small foreign molecules that are too small by themselves to elicit an immune response are termed
antigenic determinant.
hapten.
antigen binding site.
variable region.
None of the choices are correct.

hapten

16. Antigen presenting cells
include dendritic cells.
include macrophages.
engulf and modify antigen to be more immunogenic.
hold and present processed antigen on their cell membrane surface.
All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct

17. T cell response to T-cell-dependent antigens requires
typically a protein antigen.
binding of T cell to a Class II MHC receptor on an antigen-presenting cell.
binding of T cell to a site on the antigen.
interleukin-1 activating the T helper cell.
All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct

18. Which is incorrect about the Fc region of an immunoglobulin?
It determines the antibody's distribution in the body.
It forms the antigen binding sites.
It contains an effector molecule that can bind to cells such as macrophages and mast cells.
It contains an effector molecule that can fix complement.
It determines the class to which the immunoglobulin belongs.

It forms the antigen binding sites.

19. Which process involves antibodies covering surface receptors on a virus or toxin molecule thereby disrupting their activity?
Neutralization
Opsonization
Complement fixation
Agglutination
Anamnestic response

Neutralization

20. Which process involves antibodies cross-linking cells or particles into large aggregates?
Neutralization
Opsonization
Complement fixation
Agglutination
Anamnestic response

Agglutination

21. Which process involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to facilitate phagocytosis?
Neutralization
Opsonization
Complement fixation
Agglutination
Anamnestic response

Opsonization

22. Which process involves a more rapid synthesis and greatly increased titer of antibody when the immune system is subsequently exposed to the same antigen?
Neutralization
Opsonization
Complement fixation
Agglutination
Anamnestic response

Anamnestic response

23. The immunoglobulin class that has a dimer form found in mucus, saliva, colostrum, and other body secretions is
IgA.
IgD.
IgE.
IgG.
IgM.

IgA.

24. The immunoglobulin class that is the only one capable of crossing the placenta is
IgA.
IgD.
IgE.
IgG.
IgM.

IgG

25. The immunoglobulin class that has an Fc region that binds to receptors on basophils and mast cells is
IgA.
IgD.
IgE.
IgG.
IgM.

IgE.

26. All of the following are characteristics of IgM except
it has 10 antigen binding sites.
it contains a central J chain.
it is the first class synthesized by a plasma cell.
it can fix complement.
it is a dimer.

it is a dimer.

27. Which immunoglobulin class/es can fix complement?
IgM only
IgG only
IgD only
IgM and IgG
IgE and IgA

IgM and IgG

28. When antiserum is subjected to electrophoresis, the gamma globulin band contains mostly
IgM.
IgA.
IgD.
IgE.
IgG.

IgG

29. The most significant cells in graft rejection are
helper T cells.
suppressor T cells.
cytotoxic T cells.
B cells.
natural killer (NK) cells.

cytotoxic T cells.

30. Which are the first to attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells?
helper T cells
suppressor T cells
cytotoxic T cells
delayed hypersensitivity T cells
natural killer (NK) cells

natural killer (NK) cells

31. Monoclonal antibodies
originate from a single B cell clone.
have a single specificity for antigen.
are secreted by hybridomas.
are used in immunology lab tests and cancer therapy.
All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

32. Cytotoxic T cells
stimulate B cell proliferation.
lack specificity for a target cell.
secrete granzymes and perforins that damage target cells.
secrete interleukin-2 to stimulate B and T cells.
All of the choices are correct.

secrete granzymes and perforins that damage target cells.

33. An example of artificial passive immunity would be
chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity.
chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
None of the choices are correct.

giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease

34. An example of natural passive immunity would be
chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity.
chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
None of the choices are correct.

a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.

35. An example of artificial active immunity would be
chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity.
chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
None of the choices are correct.

chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.

36. Which type of cell is severely depressed in AIDS patients?
Cytotoxic T cells
Helper T cells
B cells
Plasma cells
Suppressor T cells

Helper T cells

37. In the primary response to an antigen, the first class of antibody to be secreted is
IgD.
IgE.
IgG.
IgM.
IgA.

IgM

38. In the secondary response to an antigen, the predominant antibody is
IgD.
IgE.
IgG.
IgM.
IgA.

IgG.

39. All of the following characterize the secondary response to an antigen except
a higher titer of antibody is produced than the primary response.
a longer persistence of antibody than with the primary response.
a quicker rate of antibody synthesis than the primary response.
it is mostly IgM antibodies that are produced.
it is also known as the anamnestic response.

it is mostly IgM antibodies that are produced.

40. Which antibody confers the most important specific local immunity to enteric, respiratory, and genitourinary pathogens?
IgD
IgE
IgG
IgM
IgA

IgA

41. The process of clonal deletion is designed to
destroy clones of lymphocytes able to react to self molecules.
slow down the primary immune response to an antigen.
slow down the secondary immune response to an antigen.
limit the number of lymphocyte clones an individual has in order to make the system more efficient.
slow down the immune system in the elderly.

destroy clones of lymphocytes able to react to self molecules.

42. Herceptin is an example of a monoclonal antibody-based drug for
asthma.
Chron's disease.
breast cancer.
respiratory syncytial virus.
All of the choices are correct.

breast cancer

43. Cody is 4 months old and is given an MMR injection by his pediatrician as part of the routine immunization schedule. What type of immunity is this?
Natural active immunity
Artificial passive immunity
Natural passive immunity
Artificial active immunity
None of the choices will protect him

Artificial active immunity

44. Edward Jenner's work involved
inoculation of dried pus from smallpox pustules into a person to stimulate immunity.
development of passive immunotherapy.
development of an immunization to protect people against cowpox.
immunization using a related, less pathogenic organism to give protection against a more pathogenic one.
All of the choices are correct.

immunization using a related, less pathogenic organism to give protection against a more pathogenic one.

45. Immunotherapy is the
use of antitoxins.
use of immune serum globulin.
conferring of passive immunity.
administering of preformed antibodies.
All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

46. High titers of specific antibodies are components of
specific immune globulin (SIG).
gamma globulin.
immune serum globulin (ISG).
attenuated vaccines.
toxoids.

specific immune globulin (SIG).

47. Killed or inactivated vaccines are prepared by
removal of virulence genes from the microbe.
treatment with formalin, heat, or radiation.
passage of the pathogen through unnatural hosts or tissue culture.
long-term subculturing of the microbe.
All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

48. Live, attenuated vaccines
include the Sabin polio vaccine.
include the measles, mumps, rubella vaccine (MMR).
contain viable microbes that can multiply in the person.
require smaller doses and fewer boosters compared to inactivated vaccines.
All of the choices are correct.

include the measles, mumps, rubella vaccine (MMR).

49. Acellular vaccines and subunit vaccines
contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules.
are always genetically engineered.
contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses.
confer passive immunity.
All of the choices are correct.

contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses.

50. Toxoids
contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules.
are always genetically engineered.
contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses.
confer passive immunity.
All of the choices are correct.

contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules.

51. Vaccinia virus is often used in the technique to make
adjuvant.
booster.
antibodies to toxin.
gamma globulin.
"Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine

"Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine

52. Which of the following is a special binding substance that enhances immugenicity and prolongs antigen retention at the injection site?
Adjuvant
Booster
Antibodies to toxin
Gamma globulin
"Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine

Adjuvant

53. Variolation involved using
dried, ground smallpox scabs.
a recombinant carrier with genetic material of the smallpox virus.
preparations of human cowpox lesions.
antibodies to the smallpox virus.
None of the choices are correct.

dried, ground smallpox scabs.

54. Antitoxins
contain antibodies to neutralize specific toxin.
use Vaccinia virus with genetic material of bacterial toxins.
contain purified, chemically denatured bacterial exotoxin.
include capsule material against the pneumococcus and meningococcus

contain antibodies to neutralize specific toxin.

55. The DTaP immunization
contains diphtheria toxoid.
is administered in childhood.
contains tetanus toxoid.
contains a pertussis vaccine with acellular capsule material.
All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

56. Which of the immunizations would carry the greatest risk for immunocompromised patients?
Killed, inactivated vaccines
Attenuated vaccines
Toxoids
Immune serums
Subunit vaccines

Attenuated vaccines

57. Which of the following conditions have been conclusively proven to be linked to childhood vaccinations?
Autism
Diabetes
Asthma
All of the choices are correct.
None of the choices are correct.

None of the choices are correct.

58. All of the following are advantages of attenuated vaccines over inactivated vaccines except
they require smaller doses.
they require fewer boosters.
they confer longer lasting protection.
they can be transmitted to other people.
they produce infection but not disease.

they can be transmitted to other people.

59. All of the following are advantages of attenuated vaccines over inactivated vaccines except
they confer longer lasting protection.
they produce infection but not disease.
they can mutate back to a virulent strain.
they require fewer boosters.
they require smaller doses.

they can mutate back to a virulent strain.

60. All of the following are characteristics of an effective vaccine except
it should have a relatively long shelf life.
it should stimulate only the antibody (B-cell) response.
it should protect against wild forms of the pathogen.
it should not require numerous boosters.
it should be easy to administer.

it should stimulate only the antibody (B-cell) response.

61. Antibody molecules circulate in lymph, blood, and tissue fluids.
True
False

True

62. Scientists are currently developing bananas that synthesize proteins from pathogens, as a delivery system to vaccinate populations that otherwise would not have access to them.
True
False

true

63. Human B lymphocytes mature in an intestinal region called the bursa.
True
False

false

64. Activation of B cells occurs when antigen bonds to B cell surface immunoglobulin receptors.
True
False

true

65. After secreting antibodies during an immune response, plasma cells then differentiate into memory cells.
True
False

false

66. A disadvantage of using a live microbe in a vaccine is it can conceivably mutate back to a virulent strain.
True
False

true

67. Autoantigens are types of antigens that cause damage to host tissue as a consequence of the immune response.
True
False

true

68. The albumin fraction of serum separated by electrophoresis will contain most of the antibodies.
True
False

false

69. Antibody molecules can act as enzyme to directly destroy an antigen.
True
False

false

70. Gamma globulin can be given as immunotherapy to confer artificial passive immunity.
True
False

true

71. Each genetically distinct group of lymphocytes that possesses the same specificity is called a _____.

clone

72. Certain body sites contain sequestered molecules, called _____ that escaped assessment during development of immune tolerance and are mistaken as foreign.

autoantigens

73. _____ is the most abundant class of antibodies in serum.

igG

74. A hybridoma results from the fusion of a myeloma cell with a normal _____ cell.

plasma

75. Each _____ fragment of an antibody molecule contains the variable regions of a heavy and light chain that folds into a groove for one antigenic determinant.

fab

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