Psych Final 2.0

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1. Which of the following statements best reflects the main advantage of conducting psychological research with animals?
a.It is much cheaper to conduct research on animals than on humans.
b.In their biological makeup, animals are fundamentally similar to humans.
c.With research on animals, there are no ethical issues to be concerned with.
d.A researcher can exert more control over an animal than over a human subject.

d.A researcher can exert more control over an animal than over a human subject.

2.

You are interviewing a new member of the psychology department for the university newspaper. The faculty member states: "Internal states undoubtedly exist, but it is not necessary to draw inferences about unobservable states in order to understand behavior." This faculty member's views are most similar to the views held by
a.
William James
b.
B. F. Skinner
c.
Sigmund Freud
d.
Carl Rogers

b.
B. F. Skinner

A multifactorial approach to explaining your performance in a course would most likely focus on
a.
personal factors more than situational factors
b.
situational factors more than personal factors
c.
both personal and situational factors
d.
the relationship between you and your professor

c.
both personal and situational factors

4.

Which of the following is NOT likely to be a characteristic of a critical thinker?
a.
flexible
b.
unable to admit mistakes
c.
willing to plan
d.
persistent

b.
unable to admit mistakes

5.

Which of the following theorists would tend to emphasize explanations in terms of freedom and potential for personal growth?
a.
Carl Rogers
b.
Sigmund Freud
c.
B. F. Skinner
d.
all of the above

a.
Carl Rogers

6.

A researcher is measuring the heart rate of subjects as an index of anxiety. In this study, heart rate is
a.
a confounded variable
b.
negatively correlated with anxiety
c.
an independent variable
d.
an operational definition of anxiety

d.
the results obtained cannot be analyzed statistically

8.

A group of researchers wanted to investigate allegations of sexual harassment on a company's assembly line. To make their observations, the researchers took jobs working on the assembly line and pretended to be new employees. In this example, the researchers were using
a.
naturalistic observation
b.
correlational research
c.
survey research
d.
the case study method of research

a.
naturalistic observation

9.

Perhaps the greatest disadvantage or limitation associated with descriptive research methods is
a.
the inability to look at important variables like nutritional effects on behavior
b.
an insensitivity to ethical concerns
c.
the inability to control events and isolate cause and effect linkages
d.
the fact that these methods usually focus attention too narrowly on a single variable

c.
the inability to control events and isolate cause and effect linkages

7.

Naturalistic observation, case studies, and surveys all have in common that
a.
they do not directly observe behavior
b.
they do not manipulate the variables under study
c.
they can show causal relationships
d.
the results obtained cannot be analyzed statistically

b.
they do not manipulate the variables under study

10.

The standard deviation is a measure of
a.
central tendency
b.
the degree of relationship between two variables
c.
the amount of variability in a data set
d.
the difference between the largest and smallest scores in a data set

c.
the amount of variability in a data set

11.

Suppose a researcher discovered a strong negative correlation between the length of people's hair and the amount of money they paid for their automobile. In general, people who paid the least amount of money for their automobile also had
a.
the longest hair
b.
mid-length hair
c.
the shortest hair
d.
either extremely long or extremely short hair

a.
the longest hair

12.

The correct sequencing of the sections of the main body of a journal article would be
a.
introduction, method, results, discussion
b.
introduction, discussion, method, results
c.
discussion, introduction, method, results
d.
method, introduction, results, discussion

a.
introduction, method, results, discussio

13.

Dr. Jacoby has just discovered a new drug named Z2W that is an antagonist to acetylcholine. It is likely that this new drug will produce side effects such as
a.
general stimulation within the body and an increase in heart rate
b.
paralysis and memory loss
c.
anxiety reduction and general relaxation
d.
hallucinations and disrupted sleep patterns

b.
paralysis and memory loss

14.

If you hit your thumb with a hammer, which nervous system sends the message to your brain?
a.
the somatic nervous system
b.
the central nervous system
c.
the autonomic nervous system
d.
the corpus callosum

b.
the central nervous system

15.

The brain imaging method that uses multiple X-rays to generate a picture of a horizontal slice of the brain is
a.
an electroencephalograph
b.
computerized tomography
c.
stereotaxic instrumentation
d.
EKG

b.
computerized tomography

16.

Which of the following brain structures is most closely associated with the regulation of emotion?
a.
cerebellum
b.
reticular formation
c.
brainstem
d.
limbic system

d.
limbic system

17.

Hormones are transported throughout the body via the
a.
nervous system
b.
limbic system
c.
bloodstream
d.
lymph nodes

c.
bloodstream

18.

Which of the following does NOT belong with the others?
a.
a neuromodulator
b.
an EEG
c.
a CT scan
d.
a stereotaxic instrument

a.
a neuromodulator

19.

If the pathway through the superior colliculus were not functioning correctly, you might expect that a person would have difficulty
a.
distinguishing colors
b.
perceiving depth
c.
detecting differences in texture
d.
integrating visual and auditory information

d.
integrating visual and auditory information

20.

Perceptual sets influence our perception of the environment by
a.
affecting what stimuli in the environment we actually sense.
b.
creating a slant in how we interpret sensory input.
c.
preventing sensory adaptation.
d.
prevents us from engaging in feature analysis.

b.
creating a slant in how we interpret sensory input.

21.

Ashlynn was listening to a tape recording of a famous speech that was being played backward. She just heard gibberish until a classmate said the phrase "meet me in St. Louis" was clearly spoken. The tape was rewound and as Ashlynn listened this time, she also clearly heard the same phrase. Ashlynn's ability to detect the phrase the second time through the tape illustrates
a.
the opponent-process model of perception
b.
the top-down processing model of perception
c.
the bottom-up processing model of perception
d.
the eclectic model of perception

b.
the top-down processing model of perception

22.

The sensory receptors for smell are referred to as
a.
smell buds
b.
gustatory bulbs
c.
olfactory cilia
d.
sciatic receptors

c.
olfactory cilia

23.

The ____ were more concerned with interpreting a viewer's fleeting perception of reality than with recreating the photographic "reality" of a scene.
a.
Medievalists
b.
Realists
c.
French Impressionists
d.
Cubists

c.
French Impressionists

24.

The 24 hour biological cycles found in humans and many other species are known as ____ rhythms.
a.
circadian
b.
slow-wave
c.
rem
d.
subcortical

a.
circadian

25.

Which of the following appears to be the sequence of events associated with resetting one's biological clock?
a.
The hypothalamus signals the thalamus, which in turn sends signals to the medial forebrain bundle.
b.
The thalamus signals the optic chiasm, which in turn causes a release of the hormone philoxin, which activates the renal gland.
c.
The suprachiasmatic nucleus signals the pineal gland, which in turn secretes the hormone melatonin.
d.
The superior colliculus signals the thalamus, which stimulates Broca's area.

c.
The suprachiasmatic nucleus signals the pineal gland, which in turn secretes the hormone melatonin

26.

Kelli wakes up abruptly from NREM sleep with intense autonomic arousal and feelings of panic. Kelli has just experienced a
a.
night terror
b.
nightmare
c.
psychotic dream
d.
somnambulistic break

a.
night terror

27.

Wyatt uses a non-prescription drug on a regular basis. Some of the short-term side effects he experiences are depression and poor mental functioning. It is most likely Wyatt is using
a.
LSD
b.
marijuana
c.
alcohol
d.
cocaine

c.
alcohol

28.

One Saturday, Clayton was sitting at home when the telephone rang. A local company was making promotional calls and told Clayton he had just won a $500 gift certificate. He felt a rush of excitement at the thought of what he could do with $500. Now Clayton finds that whenever he hears a telephone ring, he feels a little surge of excitement. In this example, the conditioned response is
a.
the surge of excitement that Clayton feels whenever he hears a telephone ring
b.
the ringing of a telephone
c.
the news that he had just won a $500 gift certificate
d.
the rush of excitement he felt when he won the certificate

a.
the surge of excitement that Clayton feels whenever he hears a telephone ring

29.

In classical conditioning, spontaneous recovery refers to
a.
the return of a conditioned response that had been extinguished, after a period of non-exposure to the conditioned stimulus
b.
a loss of responding that results from the repeated presentation of a conditioned stimulus without an unconditioned stimulus
c.
learning that an event signals the absence, or non-occurrence, of the unconditioned stimulus
d.
a procedure which uses an established conditioned stimulus to condition a response to a second, neutral stimulus

a.
the return of a conditioned response that had been extinguished, after a period of non-exposure to the conditioned stimulus

30.

You are watching a rat in a Skinner box, and every time a red light comes on the rat presses the lever in the box. However, when a green light comes on the rat never presses the lever. In this case, it appears that the color of the light is acting as
a.
a positive reinforcer for bar pressing
b.
a negative reinforcer for bar pressing
c.
an unconditioned stimulus for bar pressing
d.
a discriminative stimulus for bar pressing

d.
a discriminative stimulus for bar pressing

31.

Slot machines increase gambling behavior through the use of
a.
a continuous reinforcement schedule
b.
a noncontingent reinforcement schedule
c.
an intermittent reinforcement schedule
d.
a short-delay reinforcement schedule

c.
an intermittent reinforcement schedule

32.

You are watching a rat pressing a lever in a Skinner box to obtain food pellets. The rat is pressing the lever at a very high rate, and does not stop, even when a food pellet is delivered. In this example, the reinforcement schedule that is in place is most likely
a.
a fixed-interval schedule
b.
a variable-ratio schedule
c.
a fixed-ratio schedule
d.
a variable-interval schedule

b.
a variable-ratio schedule

33.

Learning that is not apparent from behavior when it first occurs is known as
a.
insight learning
b.
latent learning
c.
classical conditioning
d.
operant conditioning

b.
latent learning

34.

Studies of response-outcome relations and reinforcement have found that
a.
operant behavior is automatically strengthened when it is followed by desirable consequences
b.
people actively reason out the relations between responses and the outcomes that follow
c.
there are species-specific predispositions to form certain types of associations
d.
on concurrent schedules of reinforcement, organisms emit responses that maximize the total number of reinforcers they will receive

b.
people actively reason out the relations between responses and the outcomes that follow

35.

Parallel distribute processing models of memory assert that specific memories correspond to
a.
spreading activation within a semantic network
b.
particular patterns of activation in the network of neurons
c.
excitatory signals to cells in the hippocampus
d.
inhibitory signals to cells in the hippocampus

b.
particular patterns of activation in the network of neurons

36.

You attended your high school graduation over 20 years ago. You are now trying to recall as much as possible about the graduation ceremonies. Which of the following would be the best retrieval cue?
a.
the number of students who graduated
b.
the year the ceremony took place
c.
the time of day the ceremony took place
d.
the featured speaker at the ceremony

d.
the featured speaker at the ceremony

37.

Tara's bank assigned her a personal identification number (PIN) of 927321 when she was first issued her credit card. Last week, a different company bought out the credit card division and Tara was issued a new PIN of 840645. If Tara experiences retroactive interference when she enters her PIN, you would expect that she will enter the digits
a.
840321, using the last three digits of her old number in error
b.
840645, her new PIN
c.
927321, her old PIN
d.
927645, using the first three digits of her old number in error

b.
840645, her new PIN

38.

Which of the following areas of the brain is associated with the severe memory impairment that occurs in Alzheimer's disease?
a.
limbic system
b.
hippocampal region
c.
sympathetic nervous system
d.
Broca's area

ANSWER:

B
POINTS:

0 / 1
REF:

p. 287

b.
hippocampal region

39.

The hypothetical process involving the gradual conversion of information into durable memory codes stored in long term memory is known as?
a.
long-term potentiation
b.
consolidation
c.
pseudomemory
d.
cryptomnesia

b.
consolidation

40.

If you group information according to similarities as an aid for later remembering, you are ____ that information.
a.
organizing
b.
transferring
c.
processing
d.
encoding

a.
organizing

41.

Overconfidence in recalling information is most likely to be fueled by which of the following errors in thinking?
a.
source-monitoring errors
b.
reality-monitoring errors
c.
the fundamental attribution error
d.
the failure to seek disconfirming evidence

d.
the failure to seek disconfirming evidence

42.

When you attempt to recall the name of a high school classmate by imagining yourself back in the English class with her, you are making use of
a.
retrieval cues
b.
context cues
c.
schemas
d.
recognition cues

b.
context cues

43.

Babies start babbling at about what age?
a.
birth
b.
1 month
c.
3 months
d.
6 months

d.
6 months

44.

After the first word is spoken,
a.
vocabulary immediately grows at an extremely rapid pace
b.
further increases in vocabulary occur very slowly and steadily
c.
vocabulary growth is slow for several months and then speeds up dramatically
d.
no further vocabulary growth takes place until around 18 months

c.
vocabulary growth is slow for several months and then speeds up dramatically

45.

In general, toddlers can
a.
say more words than they understand
b.
understand more words than they can say
c.
understand and say about the same number of words
d.
use more "action" words than "object" words

b.
understand more words than they can say

46.

Metalinguistic awareness refers to
a.
the ability to recognize one's own grammatical errors
b.
the ability to reflect on the use of language
c.
knowledge of which verbs are irregular
d.
awareness of the role of positive reinforcement in language acquisition

b.
the ability to reflect on the use of language

47.

The active efforts to discover what must be done to achieve a goal that is not readily attainable is the cognitive structure known as
a.
inductive reasoning
b.
creativity
c.
problem solving
d.
a heuristic

c.
problem solving

48.

Greeno referred to problems where individuals need to carry out a sequence of changes in order to reach a specific goal as an example of a problem of
a.
arrangement
b.
transformation
c.
inducing structure
d.
cognition

b.
transformation

49.

Marie received a puzzle as a present for her birthday. The puzzle has three pegs, and to solve the puzzle a person is required to move nine disks from the center peg to one of the outside pegs. However, only one disk can be moved at a time, and a larger disk can never be placed on top of a smaller disk. Marie's puzzle is an example of
a.
a problem of transformation
b.
a problem of arrangement
c.
a problem of inducing structure
d.
an ill-defined problem

a.
a problem of transformation

50.

Observing the similarities between a new problem to be solved and one you've successfully solved in the past is called
a.
an algorithm
b.
searching for analogies
c.
shaping
d.
the alternative outcomes effect

b.
searching for analogies

51.

____ tests measure general mental ability and ____ tests measure various aspects of people including motives, interests, values and attitudes.
a.
Standardized; intelligence
b.
Intelligence; standardized
c.
Personality; standardized
d.
Intelligence; personality

d.
Intelligence; personality

52.

Tamara is completing The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale, and one section of the test evaluates her arithmetic reasoning skills using story problems. Tamara's score on this section of the test will be used in the computation of her score on the
a.
performance scale
b.
practical scale
c.
logical-mathematical scale
d.
verbal scale

d.
verbal scale

53.

Coleman is currently 30 years old. When he was 15 years old, he took an intelligence test and was told that his IQ score was 110. If Coleman retakes the intelligence test now, he would likely discover that his current IQ score
a.
is close to 220, double his previous score
b.
is close to 55, one half his previous score
c.
is similar to his previous score of 110
d.
has little relation to his early score because IQ scores tend to lack reliability

c.
is similar to his previous score of 110

54.

Which of the following statements corresponds most closely to the position on ethnic differences in average IQ scores presented by Herrnstein and Murray in their book The Bell Curve?
a.
Ethnic differences in average IQ differences are a function of relative nutritional levels for different ethnic groups, particularly the amount of protein in one's diet.
b.
Ethnic differences in average IQ scores are substantial and are partly genetic in origin.
c.
Ethnic differences in average IQ differences reflect the inherent bias in IQ tests toward different ethnic groups.
d.
Herrnstein & Murray are interactionists and would partially endorse all of these statements.

b.
Ethnic differences in average IQ scores are substantial and are partly genetic in origin.

55.

Which of the following researchers proposed the notion of stereotype vulnerability to explain ethnic differences in IQ scores?
a.
Sandra Scarr
b.
Arthur Jensen
c.
Claude Steele
d.
Robert Sternberg

c.
Claude Steele

56.

Intelligence tests tend to measure ____ thinking; tests of creativity tend to measure ____ thinking.
a.
divergent; convergent
b.
divergent; divergent
c.
convergent; divergent
d.
convergent; convergent

c.
convergent; divergen

57.

Needs, wants, interests and desires that propel people in certain directions are known as
a.
drives
b.
motives
c.
incentives
d.
habits

a.
drives

58.

High levels of ____ have been associated with a higher rate of female sexual activity.
a.
catecholamines
b.
pheromones
c.
estrogen
d.
testosterone

d.
testosterone

59.

A person's preference for emotional and sexual relationships with individuals of the same, other or either sex refers to a person's ____.
a.
sexual orientation
b.
homosexuality
c.
bisexuality
d.
heterosexuality

a.
sexual orientation

60.

Which of the following best describes the refractory period?
a.
the time between orgasms in multiorgasmic women
b.
a time following female orgasm during which females are largely unresponsive to further stimulation
c.
a time following male orgasm during which males are largely unresponsive to further stimulation
d.
the time between initiation of intercourse and orgasm

c.
a time following male orgasm during which males are largely unresponsive to further stimulation

61.

Warrick was posing for his girlfriend while she painted a picture for her art class. She had asked him to hold his mouth in a frown because she was trying to depict someone who was sad and dejected. Now that he has finished posing, Warrick finds that he is feeling somewhat unhappy, but he is not really sure why. This type of reaction is consistent with which of the following?
a.
the two-factor theory of emotion
b.
the James-Lange theory of emotion
c.
the facial feedback hypothesis
d.
the common-sense view of emotion

c.
the facial feedback hypothesis

62.

Ekman, who has conducted a number of studies of facial expressions associated with emotions, found
a.
expression of the same emotion varies from culture to culture
b.
six fundamental emotions that most everyone agrees on
c.
that there are too many different emotions to identify
d.
common expressions for happiness and sadness only

b.
six fundamental emotions that most everyone agrees on

3.

According to evolutionary theories of emotion,
a.
the experience of emotion depends on autonomic arousal and your cognitive interpretation of that arousal
b.
different patterns of autonomic activation lead to the experience of different emotions
c.
emotions occur when the thalamus sends signals simultaneously to the cortex and to the autonomic nervous system
d.
emotions developed because of their adaptive value

d.
emotions developed because of their adaptive value

64.

____ are premises for which no proof of evidence is offered.
a.
Statements
b.
Arguments
c.
Assumptions
d.
Attributions

c.
Assumptions

65.

____ asserts that two concepts or events are similar in some way.
a.
An analogy
b.
A dichotomy
c.
An argument
d.
A slippery slope

.a an anology

66.

Tucker is a graduate student who is studying identity formation. He selects a group of 5-year-olds, a group of 10-year-olds, and a group of 15-year-olds, and interviews each group, asking them what they plan to be when they finish school. In this example, Tucker is using
a.
a longitudinal research design
b.
a cross-sectional research design
c.
a multi-factorial research design
d.
a nested condition research design

b.
a cross-sectional research design

67.

Criticisms of Piaget's theory of cognitive development include all of the following EXCEPT
a.
Piaget may have underestimated the cognitive skills of infants and preschool children
b.
Piaget may have underestimated the influence of cultural factors on cognitive development
c.
the theory focuses too much on individual differences in development
d.
the theory does not explain how developmental changes occur

d.
the theory does not explain how developmental changes occur

68.

Finding and making commitments to society and future generations mark Erikson's stage of
a.
integrity versus despair
b.
identity versus role confusion
c.
intimacy versus isolation
d.
generativity versus self-absorption

d.
generativity versus self-absorption

69.

Gender roles tend to be
a.
based on biological capabilities
b.
a natural outgrowth of biological gender differences
c.
based on society's prescriptions of what is proper for each sex
d.
biology first and social prescription second

c.
based on society's prescriptions of what is proper for each sex

70.

Finding ways to meet instinctual needs and still take into account the conditions of the external, social world defines the ____, the basic operating theme of the ____.
a.
reality principle; id
b.
reality principle; ego
c.
pleasure principle; id
d.
pleasure principle; ego

b.
reality principle; ego

71.

The central aspect of Adler's theory of personality is that people
a.
must resolve conflicts between the needs of society and the needs of the self
b.
have a dynamic interplay between the structures of their mental life that must be maintained in a state of balance and harmony
c.
strive to adapt and master life's challenges
d.
have a drive to resolve the discrepancy between their real selves and their ideal selves

c.
strive to adapt and master life's challenges

72.

Rashad thinks of himself as an outgoing, sociable person. All his friends would agree; most of them think he is one of the most friendly, upbeat people they have ever met. According to Carl Rogers, Rashad is likely to
a.
experience congruence
b.
be high in self-efficacy
c.
experience incongruence
d.
be high in self-monitoring

a.
experience congruence

73.

According to Carl Rogers, troublesome anxiety is caused by
a.
unresolved sexual conflicts
b.
unconditional love
c.
threats to our self-concept
d.
the use of defense mechanisms

c.
threats to our self-concept

74.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a self-actualizing person?
a.
being realistic
b.
being open and spontaneous
c.
enjoying peak experiences
d.
having a strong need to affiliate with many people

d.
having a strong need to affiliate with many people

75.

Dionne is trapped in an elevator that is stuck between the third and fourth floors of an office building. As maintenance workers try to restart the elevator it suddenly drops ten feet before becoming stuck once more. As the elevator drops, Dionne's sympathetic nervous system is activated. This nervous system activation will cause
a.
the adrenal cortex to begin to release large amounts of catecholamines
b.
the adrenal medulla to begin to release corticosteroids
c.
her amygdala to slow the release of acetylcholine
d.
the adrenal medulla to begin to release large amounts of catecholamines

d.
the adrenal medulla to begin to release large amounts of catecholamines

76.

When the adrenal cortex is stimulated,
a.
large amounts of catecholamines are released into the bloodstream
b.
the hormone ACTH is secreted
c.
corticosteroids are released that increase your energy
d.
the parasympathetic nervous system is activated

c.
corticosteroids are released that increase your energy

77.

According to Baumeister, the pressure to perform can elevate self-consciousness, which then disrupts our attention by
a.
diverting attention from the demands of the task
b.
causing us to perform too automatically
c.
creating an approach-avoidance conflict
d.
activating our autonomic nervous system

a.
diverting attention from the demands of the task

78.

Sherman's house was almost completely destroyed by fire last week. As he walked through the charred remains with the insurance adjuster, Sherman joked and said: "It's too bad that the only thing that wasn't destroyed is that ugly painting that my brother-in-law gave me for my birthday." In this stressful situation, Sherman's joking attitude
a.
can help to redefine the situation in a less threatening way
b.
is an example of overcompensation and intellectualization
c.
is a counterproductive way of dealing with stress
d.
will likely cause him to experience stress-rebound in the future

a.
can help to redefine the situation in a less threatening way

79.

Dave washes his hands at least 50 times per day, even though his hands are rarely dirty. Dave's behavior is an example of
a.
an obsession
b.
a phobia
c.
a compulsion
d.
a delusion

c.
a compulsion

80.

Kate constantly thinks about jumping in front of an oncoming car when she is walking. The only way she seems to be able to stop these self-destructive thoughts is to say Mother Goose nursery rhymes over and over to herself. In this case, Kate's symptoms are most consistent with
a.
generalized anxiety disorder
b.
panic disorder
c.
bipolar disorder
d.
obsessive-compulsive disorder

d.
obsessive-compulsive disorder

81.

According to Seligman's concept of "preparedness," which of the following stimuli should one develop a phobia toward most easily?
a.
chairs
b.
monkeys
c.
heights
d.
certain numbers

c.
heights

82.

Emotional disturbances that affect one's physical, perceptual, social, and thought processes are referred to as
a.
somatoform disorders
b.
dissociative disorders
c.
anxiety disorders
d.
mood disorders

d.
mood disorders

83.

Carina is 50 years old, and she never seems to be on an even keel. Some days she is excited and happy, other days she is sad and withdrawn. Her symptoms seem fairly mild, but she has had mood swings of this type since she was in her early 20s. Carina's symptoms are most consistent with those seen in
a.
cyclothymic disorder
b.
dysthymic disorder
c.
undifferentiated schizophrenia
d.
dissociative identity disorder

a.
cyclothymic disorder

84.

Studies that have evaluated concordance rates for various mood disorders have found
a.
only unipolar disorder has a genetic component
b.
the influence of genetic factors appears to be stronger for unipolar disorders than for bipolar disorders
c.
the influence of genetic factors is the same for both bipolar and unipolar disorders
d.
the influence of genetic factors appears to be stronger for bipolar disorders than for unipolar disorders

d.
the influence of genetic factors appears to be stronger for bipolar disorders than for unipolar disorders

85.

Which of the following neurotransmitters has been implicated in mood disorders?
a.
GABA
b.
serotonin
c.
dopamine
d.
endorphins

b.
serotonin

86.

The basic problem in the mood disorders is disturbed ____; the basic problem in the schizophrenic disorders is disturbed ____.
a.
thought; emotion
b.
perception; thought
c.
thought; perception
d.
emotion; thought

d.
emotion; thought

87.

Which of the following is NOT one of the main categories of treatment?
a.
insight therapies
b.
revelation therapies
c.
behavior therapies
d.
biomedical therapies

b.
revelation therapies

88.

What do psychoanalytic, client-centered, and cognitive therapies have in common?
a.
They all deal with psychotic problems.
b.
They all stress insight into the self.
c.
They all require an M.D. degree to practice.
d.
They all use drugs as part of the treatment.

b.
They all stress insight into the self.

89.

Which of the following is NOT one of the characteristics that Carl Rogers believes is necessary in client-centered therapy to encourage client growth?
a.
empathy
b.
genuineness
c.
directedness
d.
unconditional positive regard

c.
directedness

90.

In client-centered therapy Roger believed that is was critical for the therapist to provide
a.
a warm, supportive and accepting climate
b.
provide interpretation of unconscious conflicts
c.
behavior modification techniques for correcting behavior
d.
cognitive evaluation

a.
a warm, supportive and accepting climate

91.

Giving an alcoholic an emetic drug so that each time she takes a drink she becomes nauseous and ill is a form of
a.
systematic desensitization
b.
aversive conditioning
c.
behavioral redirection
d.
negative reinforcement therapy

b.
aversive conditioning

92.

What percentage of psychiatric inpatient admissions are readmission of former patients?
a.
approximately 1 percent
b.
less than 15 percent
c.
over 66 percent
d.
approximately 95 percent

c.
over 66 percent

93.

Person perception refers to the process of
a.
forming impressions of others
b.
developing an implicit personality theory
c.
predicting the behavior of others
d.
monitoring the impressions you make on other people

a.
forming impressions of others

94.

Harper is 35 years old, and he has just enrolled in his first university course. On the first day of class he looks over the individuals in the room, and sits next to another male student who appears to be in his early 30s. In this case, Harper has likely classified the other student
a.
using a self-serving bias
b.
as a member of his ingroup
c.
as the teaching assistant for the class
d.
as someone who has more university experience than Harper

b.
as a member of his ingroup

96.

Virginia has a favorable attitude toward aerobics and working out. Just the thought of her daily workout is enough to make Virginia feel good, and she finds that when she is at the gym she feels much more relaxed and much less stressed. These emotional responses form part of the
a.
cognitive component of Virginia's attitude toward working out
b.
behavioral component of Virginia's attitude toward working out
c.
physiological component of Virginia's attitude toward working out
d.
affective component of Virginia's attitude toward working out

d.
affective component of Virginia's attitude toward working out

97.

Which of the following statements regarding the use of weak arguments in persuasive communication is most accurate?
a.
The more arguments one presents, the more effective the message will be, regardless of the strength of the arguments.
b.
Adding weak arguments to a persuasive message will likely do more harm than good to one's case.
c.
The key determinant of the effectiveness of a persuasive message seems to be the ratio of strong arguments to weak arguments.
d.
Weak arguments will enhance the effectiveness of a persuasive communication as long as they are presented clearly.

b.
Adding weak arguments to a persuasive message will likely do more harm than good to one's case.

98.

When Stoner (1961) compared the average decision of a group's individual members against their group decision generated through group discussion, he found that
a.
group members ignored the discussion and maintained their original decision
b.
individuals arrived at riskier decisions than groups
c.
groups arrived at riskier decisions than individuals
d.
the longer the discussion continued, the riskier the group's decisions

c.
groups arrived at riskier decisions than individuals

95.

According to Bernard Weiner people also focus on the ____ of the causes of underlying behavior.
a.
stability
b.
personal nature
c.
positive or negative aspect
d.
correctness

a.
stability

99.

Milgram's surprising findings and the fact that common sense does not predict behaviors like the bystander effect and the fact that people will have more favorable feelings about events after a big letdown all illustrate
a.
that psychology is theoretically diverse
b.
that our behavior is shaped by our cultural heritage
c.
that it is important that psychology is empirical
d.
that our experience of the world is highly subjective

c.
that it is important that psychology is empirical

100.

In trying to understand why some ethnic neighborhoods are dominated by poverty, people often infer that the residents are lazy and unmotivated. This type of inference illustrates
a.
a stable global attribution
b.
inverse discrimination
c.
the fundamental attribution error
d.
a stable external attribution

c.
the fundamental attribution error

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