Microbiology Review 2

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150 terms

1. All of the following is correct about treating viral diseases except
A. viruses are killed by the same antibiotics that kill bacteria.
B. many antiviral drugs block viral replication.
C. many antiviral drugs cause severe side effects.
D. interferons show potential for treating and preventing viral infections. E. All of the choices are correct.

A. viruses are killed by the same antibiotics that kill bacteria.

2. T-even phages
A. include the poxviruses. B. infect Escherichia coli cells.
C. enter host cells by engulfment.
D. have helical capsids.
E. All of the choices are correct.

infect Escherichia coli cells

3. When a virus enters a lysogenic phase, it means A. the virus is bursting through the host cell membrane.
B. the virus is starting biosynthesis of its nucleic acid.
C. the number of viruses in the host is decreasing as the immune system becomes effective.
D. the virus will remain in circulation and not continue infecting its host.
E. the virus is integrated into the DNA of the host cell and is latent.

E. the virus is integrated into the DNA of the host cell and is latent.

4. These structures are used by bacteriophages to attach to host cell receptors.
A. sheath
B. tail fibers
C. nucleic acid
D. capsid head
E. None of the choices are correct.

. tail fibers

5. Which of the following represents a virus family name?
A. Herpesviridae
B. Picornavirus
C. Herpes simplex virus
D. Enterovirus
E. Hepatitis B virus

. Herpesviridae

6. Viral growth in bird embryos can cause discrete, opaque spots in the embryonic membranes called
A. budding.
b. pocks.
C. lysogeny.
D. plaques.
E. cytopathic effects.

. pocks.

7. Viruses acquire envelopes around their nucleocapsids during A. penetration. B. assembly. C. release.
D. replication. E. adsorption.

C. release.

8. The correct sequence of events in viral multiplication is A. penetration, replication, maturation, adsorption, assembly, release. B. adsorption, release, maturation, replication, assembly, penetration. C. assembly, maturation, replication, release, penetration, adsorption. D. replication, penetration, maturation, assembly, absorption, release. E. adsorption, penetration, replication, maturation, assembly, release.

E. adsorption, penetration, replication, maturation, assembly, release.

9. Which is incorrect about prophages? A. present when the virus is in lysogeny B. formed when viral DNA enters the bacterial chromosome C. occur when temperate phages enter host cells D. replicated with host DNA and passed on to progeny E. cause lysis of host cells

E. cause lysis of host cells

10. Viruses have all the following except A. definite shape. B. metabolism. C. genes.
D. ultramicroscopic size. E. ability to infect host cells.

B. metabolism

11. Viruses belong to which of the following Kingdoms? A. Protists B. Fungi C. Archaea
D. Bacteria E. None of the choices are correct.

E. None of the choices are correct.

12. Helical and icosahedral are terms used to describe the shapes of a virus A. capsid. B. spike. C. capsomere.
D. core. E. envelope

A. capsid.

13. Viruses that consist of only a nucleocapsid are considered A. naked viruses. B. simple viruses. C. complex viruses.
D. incomplete viruses. E. viroids.

A. naked viruses.

14. Which of the following is a type of cytopathic effect? A. inclusions in the nucleus B. multinucleated giant cells C. inclusions in the cytoplasm
D. cells round up E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

15. Viruses that cause infection resulting in alternating periods of activity with symptoms and inactivity without symptoms are called A. viroids. B. prions.
C. oncogenic. D. latent. E. delta agents.

D. latent.

16. Uncoating of viral nucleic acid A. does not occur in bacteriophage multiplication. B. involves enzymatic destruction of the capsid. C. occurs during penetration in the multiplication cycle. D. occurs before replication. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct

17. Which of the following is not associated with every virus? A. genome B. nucleic acid C. envelope
D. capsomers E. capsid

C. envelope

18. Which of the following will not support viral cultivation? A. continuous cell cultures B. embryonated bird eggs C. blood agar
D. live lab animals E. primary cell cultures

C. blood agar

19. The virus-induced, specific damage to the host cell that can be seen in a light microscope is called A. plaques. B. pocks. C. lysogeny.
D. budding. E. cytopathic effects.

E. cytopathic effects.

20. The core of every virus particle always contains A. capsomers. B. either DNA or RNA. C. DNA and RNA.
D. DNA. E. enzymes.

B. either DNA or RNA.

21. Infectious protein particles are called A. phages. B. oncogenic viruses. C. prions.
D. spikes. E. viroids.

C. prions.

22. Which of the following is correct about viruses? A. are procaryotic B. can be grown on nutrient agar C. undergo binary fission
D. cannot be seen with a light microscope E. contain 70S ribosomes

D. cannot be seen with a light microscope

23. Which of the following parts of a virus is not always present? A. envelope B. nucleic acid C. capsid
D. capsomers E. None of the choices are optional parts of a virus.

envelope

24. Oncogenic viruses include all the following except A. measles virus. B. hepatitis B virus. C. Epstein-Barr virus.
D. papillomavirus. E. HTLVI and HTLVII viruses.

A. measles virus.

25. Virus capsids are made from subunits called A. peplomers. B. capsomeres. C. spikes.
D. envelopes. E. prophages.

capsomeres.

26. Which body system is mainly affected by Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease? A. circulatory B. nervous C. respiratory
D. genitourinary E. digestive

nervous

27. The nucleocapsid consists of A. the envelope and capsid. B. the nucleic acid along with the capsid. C. the capsomers assembled into the capsid. D. the envelope, nucleic acid and capsid. E. the nucleic acid of the virus only.

B. the nucleic acid along with the capsid.

28. Creutzfeld-Jacob disease is A. also called "mad cow disease". B. caused by a chronic latent virus. C. caused by a viroid. D. a spongiform encephalopathy of humans. E. initiated by an oncogenic virus.

D. a spongiform encephalopathy of humans.

29. The event that occurs in bacteriophage multiplication that does not occur in animal virus replication is A. host cell synthesis of viral enzymes and capsid proteins. B. assembly of nucleocapsids. C. adsorption to the host cells.
D. replication of viral nucleic acid. E. injection of the viral nucleic acid into the host cell.

E. injection of the viral nucleic acid into the host cell.

30. All of the following pertain to virus envelopes except they A. are located between the capsid and nucleic acid. B. are gained as a virus leaves the nuclear membrane. C. help the virus particle attach to host cells.
D. are gained as a virus leaves the host cell membrane. E. contain special virus proteins.

A. are located between the capsid and nucleic acid.

31. All of the following are characteristics of viruses except A. they often have a geometric capsid. B. they have a viscous fluid inside their capsids. C. they can cause mild diseases.
D. they can be crystallized. E. they can cause fatal diseases.

B. they have a viscous fluid inside their capsids.

32. Classification of viruses into families involves determining all the following characteristics except A. type of capsid. B. nucleic acid strand number. C. presence of an envelope.
D. biochemical reactions. E. type of nucleic acid.

D. biochemical reactions.

33. Host cells of viruses include A. human and other animals. B. plants and fungi. C. bacteria.
D. protozoa and algae. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

34. Visible, clear, well-defined patches in a monolayer of virus-infected cells in a culture are called A. budding. B. lysogeny. C. pocks.
D. cytopathic effects. E. plaques.

plaques.

35. Host range is limited by A. type of nucleic acid in the virus. B. age of the host cell. C. type of host cell receptors on cell membrane. D. size of the host cell. E. All of the choices are correct.

C. type of host cell receptors on cell membrane.

36. A microorganism that does not have catalase or superoxide dismutase would find it difficult to live in an environment with A. high salt. B. carbon dioxide.
C. high acidity. D. temperatures above 37° C. E. oxygen.

E. oxygen.

37. The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which the rate of multiplication equals the rate of cell death is the A. lag phase. B. log phase.
C. stationary phase. D. death phase. E. All of the choices are correct.

C. stationary phase.

38. A microorganism that has an optimum growth temperature of 37° C, but can survive short exposure to high temperatures is called a/an A. thermoduric. B. facultative psychrophile.
C. extremophile. D. thermophile. E. psychrophile.

thermoduric.

39. The stage in a normal growth curve when cells reach the maximum rate of cell division is the A. fast phase. B. log phase. C. stationary phase.
D. death phase. E. lag phase.

B. log phase.

40. The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration is called A. active transport. B. endocytosis. C. osmosis.
D. facilitated diffusion. E. diffusion.

E. diffusion.

41. Cultures of a bacterial species were incubated out on the incubator shelf, in an anaerobic jar and in a candle jar. After incubation there was moderate growth of cultures in the candle and anaerobic jars, but heavy growth of the culture on the incubator shelf. This species is a/an A. facultative anaerobe.
B. anaerobe. C. microaerophile. D. capnophile. E. aerobe.

A. facultative anaerobe.

42. The use of energy by a cell to enclose a substance in its membrane by forming a vacuole and engulfing it is called A. facilitated diffusion. B. active transport.
C. diffusion. D. osmosis. E. endocytosis.

endocytosis.

43. Plant roots provide various growth factors for soil bacteria, and the bacteria help fertilize the plant by supplying it with minerals. This is an example of A. mutalism. B. antagonism.
C. parasitism. D. synergism. E. commensalism.

synergism.

44. The decline in growth rate during the death phase is due to all of the following except A. the depletion of oxygen. B. the depletion of nutrients. C. the decrease in temperature of the culture.
D. the excretion of organic acids. E. the excretion of biochemical pollutants.

C. the decrease in temperature of the culture.

45. A halophile would grow best in A. salt lakes. B. fresh water ponds. C. acid pools.
D. hot geyser springs. E. arid, desert soil.

A. salt lakes.

46. Barophiles are microorganisms able to tolerate A. high atmospheric pressure. B. intense ultraviolet light. C. a pH of 1 to 2.
D. high osmotic pressure. E. high solute concentration.

A. high atmospheric pressure.

47. The methanogens, producers of methane gas, require environments that A. are extremely cold. B. have sunlight. C. are anaerobic with hydrogen gas and CO2.
D. are very acidic. E. have abundant oxygen and CO2.

C. are anaerobic with hydrogen gas and CO2.

48. A microaerophile A. grows best in an anaerobic jar. B. grows with or without oxygen. C. needs normal atmospheric levels of oxygen. D. requires a small amount of oxygen but won't grow at normal atmospheric levels. E. None of the choices are correct.

D. requires a small amount of oxygen but won't grow at normal atmospheric levels.

49. The movement of substances from higher to lower concentration across a semipermeable membrane that must have a specific protein carrier but no energy expenditure is called A. active transport. B. facilitated diffusion.
C. endocytosis. D. osmosis. E. diffusion.

E. diffusion.

50. The term chemotroph refers to an organism that A. gets energy from sunlight. B. uses CO2 for its carbon source. C. does not need a carbon source.
D. must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs. E. gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds.

E. gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds.

51. You inoculate a culture into a test tube containing broth and take it out of the incubator the next day. You see the culture is growing at the bottom of the tube. You conclude the culture must be A. anaerobic. B. facultative anaerobe.
C. microaerophilic. D. aerobic. E. aerotolerant.

anaerobic.

52. The time interval from parent cell to two new daughter cells is called the A. death phase. B. generation time. C. growth curve.
D. culture time. E. binary fission.

E. binary fission.

53. You inoculate a culture into a test tube containing broth and take it out of the incubator the next day. You see the culture is growing equally throughout the broth. You conclude the culture must be A. facultative anaerobe. B. aerotolerant.
C. aerobic. D. microaerophilic. E. anaerobic.

A. facultative anaerobe.

54. An organism that grows best at a higher CO2 tension than is normally present in the atmosphere is a(n) A. aerotolerant anaerobe. B. anaerobe. C. aerobe.
D. facultative anaerobe. E. capnophile.

capnophile.

55. An important mineral ion that is a component of chloroplasts and stabilizer of membranes and ribosomes is A. zinc. B. iron. C. potassium.
D. calcium. E. magnesium.

magnesium.

56. Facultative anaerobes usually possess A. neither catalase or superoxide dismutase. B. alternative mechanisms for dealing with oxygen. C. both catalase and superoxide dismutase. D. superoxide dismutase only. E. catalase only.

C. both catalase and superoxide dismutase.

57. An organic nutrient that cannot be synthesized by the organism and must be provided is called a/an A. element. B. trace element. C. water.
D. macronutrient. E. growth factor.

E. growth factor.

58. An organism with a temperature growth range of 45° C to 60° C would be called a/an A. thermoduric. B. psychrophile. C. thermophile.
D. facultative psychrophile. E. extremophile.

C. thermophile.

59. Diffusion of water through a semipermeable membrane is called A. facilitated diffusion. B. diffusion. C. active transport.
D. endocytosis. E. osmosis.

osmosis.

60. The movement of substances from lower to higher concentration across a semipermeable membrane that must have a specific protein carrier and use energy is called A. osmosis. B. active transport.
C. endocytosis. D. facilitated diffusion. E. diffusion.

B. active transport.

61. Which of the following microorganisms would find hypotonic conditions most detrimental? A. algae B. bacteria C. cyanobacteria
D. fungi E. protozoa

cyanobacteria

62. Microorganisms require small quantities of this nutrient for enzyme function and maintenance of protein structure: A. water B. element
C. macronutrient D. trace element E. growth factor

D. trace element

63. The type of photosynthesis that does not produce oxygen A. occurs in algae and plants. B. occurs in cyanobacteria. C. does not require sunlight.
D. does not require CO2 as a reactant. E. occurs in certain bacteria.

E. occurs in certain bacteria.

64. The term phototroph refers to an organism that A. gets energy from sunlight. B. uses CO2 for its carbon source. C. does not need a carbon source.
D. must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs. E. gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds.

A. gets energy from sunlight.

65. The majority of organisms live or grow in habitats between A. pH 7 and 9. B. pH 3 and 4. C. pH 5 and 6.
D. pH 8 and 10. E. pH 6 and 8.

E. pH 6 and 8.

66. Contractile vacuoles are A. used to expel excess water from cells. B. found in bacterial cells. C. important to certain organisms in hypertonic environments. D. protein carriers in cell membranes. E. None of the choices are correct.

A. used to expel excess water from cells.

67. Microorganisms require large quantities of this nutrient for use in cell structure and metabolism: A. water B. element C. trace element
D. macronutrient E. growth factor

macronutrient

68. Bacteria living in a freshwater stream that are moved to salty seawater would A. be in a hypotonic solution. B. gain water. C. be in a isotonic solution.
D. shrivel. E. None of the choices are correct.

D. shrivel.

69. An important mineral ion of the cytochrome pigments of cellular respiration is A. zinc. B. calcium. C. iron.
D. potassium. E. magnesium.

C. iron.

70. The E. coli that normally live in the human large intestines and produce vitamin K that the body uses would be best termed a _____ relationship. A. parasitic B. saprobic
C. commensal D. mutualistic E. None of the choices are correct.

D. mutualistic

71. Which of the following require the cell to use ATP? A. facilitated diffusion B. diffusion C. endocytosis
D. osmosis E. None of the choices are correct.

endocytosis

72. In the viable plate count method, a measured sample of a culture is evenly spread across an agar surface and incubated. Each _____ represents one _____ from the sample. A. cell, colony B. colony, cell
C. species, colony D. cell, cell E. generation, cell

B. colony, cell

73. An organism that grows slowly in the cold but has an optimum growth temperature of 32° C is called a/an A. facultative psychrophile. B. psychrophile. C. thermoduric.
D. thermophile. E. extremophile.

A. facultative psychrophile.

74. All of the following could find a location in or on body tissues suitable for growth except A. mesophiles. B. capnophiles. C. psychrophiles.
D. anaerobes. E. facultative anaerobes.

psychrophiles.

75. Cultures of a bacterial species were incubated on the shelf of a refrigerator, out on a lab benchtop, on the shelf of a 37° C incubator and on the shelf of a 50° C incubator. After incubation, there was no growth at 37° C and 50° C, slight growth out on the benchtop, and abundant growth at refrigeration. What term could be used for this species? A. halophile B. capnophile C. mesophile D. psychrophile E. anaerobe

psychrophile

76. Mixed acid fermentation A. produces butyric acid. B. is seen in Streptococcus and Lactobacillus. C. occurs in all bacteria. D. produces acids plus CO2 and H2 gases. E. also produces ethanol.

D. produces acids plus CO2 and H2 gases.

77. A holoenzyme is a combination of a protein and one or more substances called A. substrates. B. apoenzymes. C. catalysts.
D. cofactors. E. None of the choices are correct.

D. cofactors.

78. Cyanide will cause rapid death in humans because it A. stops the TCA cycle from turning. B. inhibits the ATP synthase. C. stops glycolysis.
D. blocks cytochrome c oxidase. E. stops the electron transport chain at coenzyme Q.

D. blocks cytochrome c oxidase.

79. Enzymes are A. broken down in reactions that require energy input. B. proteins that function as catalysts. C. electron carrier molecules. D. not needed for catabolic reactions. E. All of the choices are correct.

B. proteins that function as catalysts.

80. All of the following pertain to glycolysis except it A. occurs during fermentation. B. involves reduction of NAD. C. occurs without oxygen.
D. degrades glucose to CO2 and H2O. E. ends with formation of pyruvic acid.

D. degrades glucose to CO2 and H2O.

81. When enzyme action stops due to a buildup of end product this control is called A. negative feedback. B. competitive inhibition. C. enzyme induction.
D. enzyme repression. E. None of the choices are correct.

A. negative feedback.

82. Each FADH2 that enters the electron transport system gives rise to _____ ATP. A. 3 B. 36 C. 2
D. 38 E. 24

C. 2

83. When amino acids are deaminated, they can be used as a source of A. fat. B. vitamins. C. carbon.
D. glucose. E. minerals.

D. glucose.

84. In the cell, energy released by electrons is often used to phosphorylate A. oxygen. B. ADP. C. NAD.
D. pyruvic acid. E. ATP.

B. ADP.

85. Enteric bacteria commonly occupy the human intestine and primarily produce A. CO2 and H2 gasses. B. lactic acid. C. alcohol.
D. butyric acid. E. methane gas.

A. CO2 and H2 gasses.

86. Exergonic reactions A. occur when ADP binds to inorganic phosphate to form ATP. B. do not occur in anaerobic cellular respiration. C. occur during aerobic cellular respiration. D. only occur in heterotrophs. E. include synthesis of large carbohydrates.

C. occur during aerobic cellular respiration.

87. In bacterial cells, the electron transport system is located in the A. mitochondria. B. cytoplasm. C. ribosomes.
D. cell membrane. E. chloroplasts.

D. cell membrane.

88. Why is cyanide harmless to some bacteria? A. Cyanide is deadly for all bacteria. B. They lack cytochrome c oxidase. C. They don't allow cyanide to cross their cell wall. D. They break down the cyanide before it enters the electron transport chain. E. They shut off the TCA cycle until the cyanide is diluted out of the cell.

B. They lack cytochrome c oxidase.

89. In anaerobic respiration, all of the following can serve as the final electron acceptor except A. nitrate. B. oxygen. C. sulfate.
D. nitrite. E. None of the choices are correct.

E. None of the choices are correct.

90. During aerobic cellular respiration, the final electron acceptor is A. nitrate. B. pyruvic acid. C. cytochrome c.
D. FAD. E. oxygen.

E. oxygen.

91. Enzymes that catalyze removing electrons from one substrate and adding electrons to another are called A. aminotransferases. B. ligases. C. phosphotransferases.
D. oxidoreductases. E. decarboxylases.

D. is part of a simple enzyme.

92. An apoenzyme A. is an RNA molecule. B. is often an inorganic metal ion. C. is also called a coenzyme. D. is part of a simple enzyme. E. contains the active site.

E. contains the active site.

93. During which of the phases of cellular respiration is the majority of ATP formed? A. electron transport B. Krebs cycle C. glycolysis
D. processing of pyruvic acid for the Krebs cycle E. All phases produce the same number of ATP molecules.

A. electron transport

94. All of the chemical reactions of the cell are called A. cellular respiration. B. catabolism. C. metabolism.
D. redox reactions. E. phosphorylation.

C. metabolism.

95. Each NADH that enters the electron transport system gives rise to _____ ATP. A. 3 B. 2 C. 36
D. 24 E. 38

A. 3

96. When glucose is broken down by glycolysis during bacterial fermentation, how many ATP are generated? A. 36 ATP B. 3 ATP C. 24 ATP
D. 2 ATP E. 38 ATP

D. 2 ATP

97. The reactions of fermentation function to produce _____ molecules for use in glycolysis. A. pyruvic acid B. ATP C. NADH
D. glucose E. NAD

E. NAD

98. The step involving ATP, hexokinase, and the phosphorylation of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate is A. an example of oxidative phosphorylation. B. the final step of the Krebs cycle. C. the first redox reaction of the electron transport system.
D. an example of substrate-level phosphorylation. E. an example of photophosphorylation.

D. an example of substrate-level phosphorylation.

99. In eukaryotes, glycolysis takes place A. in the nucleus. B. in the endoplasmic reticulum. C. in the cell membrane.
D. in the cytoplasm. E. in the mitochondria.

D. in the cytoplasm.

100. Fatty acids can be metabolized by entering A. the electron transport chain. B. lactic acid fermentation. C. the phosphogluconate pathway.
D. glycolysis. E. the TCA cycle.

E. the TCA cycle.

101. Important components of coenzymes are A. ribozymes. B. metallic ions. C. vitamins.
D. active sites. E. substrates.

C. vitamins.

102. Most electron carriers are A. coenzymes. B. enzymes. C. hydrogens.
D. inorganic phosphate. E. All of the choices are correct.

A. coenzymes.

103. The process of alcoholic fermentation produces A. alcohol and carbon dioxide. B. alcohol only. C. carbon dioxide and yeast.
D. yeast and oxygen. E. alcohol and oxygen.

A. alcohol and carbon dioxide.

104. In bacterial cells, when glucose is completely oxidized by all the pathways of aerobic cellular respiration, how many ATP are generated? A. 38 ATP B. 2 ATP
C. 24 ATP D. 3 ATP E. 36 ATP

A. 38 ATP

105. Which of the following is NOT involved in the step that occurs between glycolysis and the TCA cycle? A. reduction of NAD B. coenzyme A attaches to an acetyl group C. pyruvic acid accepts electrons from NADH
D. dehydrogenation of pyruvic acid E. decarboxylation of pyruvic acid

C. pyruvic acid accepts electrons from NADH

106. In addition to electrons, which of the following is also involved in electron transfer? A. carbon dioxide B. carbon C. ADP
D. hydrogen protons E. glucose

D. hydrogen protons

107. All of the following are exoenzymes except A. elastase. B. penicillinase. C. collagenase.
D. ATP synthase. E. streptokinase.

D. ATP synthase.

108. Enzymes that are produced only when substrate is present are termed A. exoenzymes. B. constitutive enzymes. C. conjugated enzymes.
D. induced enzymes. E. endoenzymes.

D. induced enzymes.

109. Formation of peptide bonds between amino acids to build a polypeptide would be called A. exergonic. B. fermentation. C. phosphorylation.
D. anabolism. E. glycolysis.

D. anabolism.

110. In eukaryotes, the Krebs cycle takes place A. in the nucleus. B. in the mitochondria. C. in the cytoplasm.
D. in the endoplasmic reticulum. E. in the cell membrane.

B. in the mitochondria.

111. Bacterial conjugation involves A. bacteriophage carrying donor DNA to the recipient cell. B. a donor cell with a plasmid and a pilus. C. naked DNA fragments from a lysed donor cell are taken up by a recipient cell. D. new progeny cells with genes from two parent bacterial cells. E. None of the choices are correct.

B. a donor cell with a plasmid and a pilus.

112. The DNA of microorganisms is made up of subunits called A. polymerases. B. histones. C. nucleotides.
D. amino acids. E. mRNA.

C. nucleotides.

113. Groups of three consecutive bases along the DNA of a gene have the code for one A. protein. B. nucleotide. C. amino acid.
D. purine. E. None of the choices are correct.

C. amino acid.

114. Which is incorrect about inducible operons? A. they include the lac operon B. they are normally turned off C. they have genes turned off by a buildup of end product D. they are often for catabolic pathways
E. they are turned on by the substrate of the enzyme

C. they have genes turned off by a buildup of end product

115. Which is incorrect about pyrimidines? A. are only found in DNA, not in RNA B. they are found within nucleotides C. they are nitrogenous bases they
D. they include cytosine and thymine E. they are always paired with a specific purine

A. are only found in DNA, not in RNA

116. The site where the old DNA strands separate and new DNA strands will be synthesized is called the A. primer. B. template. C. replication fork.
D. Okazaki fragment. E. rolling circle.

C. replication fork.

117. Which of the following is incorrect about animal viruses? A. host DNA polymerase often participates in viral DNA replication B. host tRNA's are used in viral translation C. viral mRNA is translated on host cell ribosomes D. replication of viral RNA occurs in the host nucleus E. oncogenic viruses integrate their DNA into host DNA and can initiate cancer

D. replication of viral RNA occurs in the host nucleus

118. Eukaryotic chromosomes differ from prokaryotic chromosomes because only eukaryotes have A. histone proteins. B. chromosomes in a nucleus. C. several to many chromosomes.
D. elongated, not circular, chromosomes. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

119. The Ames test is designed to A. detect if a cell is infected by a virus. B. detect chemicals with carcinogenic potential. C. detect the presence of a prophage in a cell. D. determine if a cell is resistant to an antibiotic. E. determine the rate of DNA replication in various bacterial species.

B. detect chemicals with carcinogenic potential.

120. A mutation that changes a normal codon to a stop codon is called a A. point mutation. B. missense mutation. C. silent mutation.
D. nonsense mutation. E. back mutation.

D. nonsense mutation.

121. Semiconservative replication refers to A. each base bonding at the 1' position of the sugar. B. a purine always bonding to a pyrimidine. C. one helix strand that runs from the 5' to 3' direction and the other strand runs from the 3' to 5' direction. D. an original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule. E. None of the choices are correct.

D. an original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule.

122. If the DNA sequence is ATTCCGGA, the mRNA transcript would be A. ATTCCGGA. B. UAAGGCCU. C. TAAGGCCT.
D. CAAGGUTA. E. GUUAATTG.

C. TAAGGCCT.

123. Which of the following is incorrect about transfer RNA? A. it contains a binding site for an amino acid B. the initiator tRNA in bacteria carries tryptophan C. the initiator tRNA that binds to the P site has the anticodon UAC D. it has a bottom hairpin loop with an anticodon
E. an anticodon is complementary to a codon

D. it has a bottom hairpin loop with an anticodon

124. The operon segment composed of the gene that codes for a protein repressor is called the A. operator. B. structural locus. C. regulator.
D. promoter. E. None of the choices are correct.

C. regulator.

125. Which is incorrect about purines? A. only found in DNA, not in RNA B. include adenine and guanine C. are nitrogenous bases
D. always paired with a specific pyrimidine E. found within nucleotides

A. only found in DNA, not in RNA

126. Which of the following is incorrect about termination codons? A. they include UAA, UAG, UGA B. they are also called nonsense codons C. they do not have corresponding tRNA
D. they include AUG E. where the bond between the final tRNA and the polymerase is broken

D. they include AUG

127. This molecule is transcribed from the DNA template strand and later translated. A. ribosomal RNA B. transfer RNA C. primer RNA
D. messenger RNA E. protein

D. messenger RNA

128. The development of virulent, toxin-producing bacterial strains due to the presence of a temperate phage can occur in A. bacterial conjugation. B. transformation.
C. generalized transduction. D. specialized transduction. E. All of the choices are correct.

D. specialized transduction.

129. Individuals with xeroderma pigmentosa cannot repair mutations caused by A. nitrous acid. B. acridine dyes. C. bisulfite.
D. ultraviolet light. E. ethidium bromide.

E. ethidium bromide.

130. The RNA molecules that carry amino acids to the ribosomes during protein synthesis are called A. ribosomal RNA. B. ribozymes. C. primer RNA.
D. transfer RNA. E. messenger RNA.

D. transfer RNA.

131. RNA molecules differ from DNA molecules because only RNA A. has ribose. B. has uracil. C. is typically one strand of nucleotides.
D. does not have thymine. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

132. The following pertain to ribosomes during protein synthesis except they A. use their large subunit to supply enzymes for peptide bonding. B. contain codons within their rRNA molecules. C. participate only in translation.
D. bind to the 5' end of mRNA by their small subunit. E. shift to the right along the mRNA strand from one codon to the next.

B. contain codons within their rRNA molecules.

133. A sequence of bases on a gene that does not code for protein is called a/an A. exon. B. intron. C. operator.
D. promoter. E. operon.

B. intron.

134. Split genes A. are common in prokaryotes and eukaryotes. B. only have exons initially transcribed to mRNA. C. have introns located only at the beginning and end of a coding region. D. use spliceosomes to excise introns and then join exons. E. All of the choices are correct.

B. only have exons initially transcribed to mRNA.

135. Which type of mutation leads to a frameshift mutation? A. missense B. deletion C. nonsense
D. base substitution E. All of the choices are correct.

B. deletion

136. The antiparallel arrangement within DNA molecules refers to A. each base bonding at the 1' position of the sugar. B. a purine always bonding to a pyrimidine. C. one helix strand that runs from the 5' to 3' direction and the other strand runs from the 3' to 5' direction. D. an original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule. E. None of the choices are correct.

C. one helix strand that runs from the 5' to 3' direction and the other strand runs from the 3' to 5' direction.

137. All of the following pertain to nitrogenous bases except A. adenine pairs with thymine. B. cytosine and thymine are pyrimidines. C. allows variation from one nucleotide to another which creates the encoded information. D. guanine pairs with uracil.
E. they form pairs by hydrogen bonding.

D. guanine pairs with uracil.

138. The nontranscribed region of DNA to which RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription is called the A. intron. B. operon. C. operator.
D. promoter. E. exon.

D. promoter.

139. Much of what was previously thought to be "junk" DNA has been found to have which purpose? A. It codes for antibiotic resistance proteins. B. It codes for repressor proteins. C. It codes for RNA regulatory molecules.
D. It codes for repair enzymes to fix mutations. E. None of the choices are correct.

C. It codes for RNA regulatory molecules.

140. All of the following are true about mutations except A. they can create variants in a population. B. they occur in the DNA. C. they are always detrimental to the organism they occur in. D. they may lead to an incorrect protein being made.
E. if not repaired, they become part of the gene pool.

C. they are always detrimental to the organism they occur in.

141. All of the following pertain to transcription except it A. is part of the process of protein synthesis. B. occurs on a ribosome in the cytoplasm. C. occurs before translation.
D. requires RNA polymerase. E. requires a template DNA strand.

B. occurs on a ribosome in the cytoplasm.

142. Which enzyme fills in the spaces between the Okazaki fragments with the correct nucleotides? A. DNA helicases B. DNA polymerases C. DNA ligases
D. primases E. DNA gyrases

C. DNA ligases

143. Which of the following is not true about transposons? A. They are rare among prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. B. They can move from a chromosome to a plasmid. C. They contain DNA that codes for their own removal and insertion. D. They can replicate themselves before jumping to the next location. E. They can move from a chromosome to another chromosome.

A. They are rare among prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.

144. Among the microorganisms, various genomes can include A. chromosomes. B. plasmids. C. mitochondrial DNA.
D. chloroplast DNA. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

145. All of the following are products of transcription except A. rRNA. B. mRNA. C. DNA.
D. tRNA. E. All of the choices are products of transcription

C. DNA.

146. Which enzyme is mismatched with its function in DNA replication? A. DNA polymerase III - Adding bases to the new DNA chain B. ligase - final sealing of DNA nicks in DNA C. RNA polymerase - synthesizes RNA primers
D. DNA polymerase I - removes primer E. gyrase - supercoiling DNA

C. RNA polymerase - synthesizes RNA primers

147. The enzymes that can proofread replicating DNA, detect incorrect bases, excise them, and correctly replace them are A. DNA ligases. B. primases.
C. DNA polymerases. D. DNA helicases. E. DNA gyrases.

C. DNA polymerases.

148. DNA polymerase III A. is needed for adding nucleotides during mRNA synthesis. B. synthesizes new DNA only in the 5' to 3' direction. C. cannot add nucleotides to the lagging strand. D. synthesizes an RNA primer. E. All of the choices are correct.

B. synthesizes new DNA only in the 5' to 3' direction.

149. If a codon for alanine is GCA, then the anticodon is A. CGT. B. ACG. C. UGC.
D. GCA. E. CGU.

E. CGU.

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