Module 4: Innate Defenses: Inflammation

63 terms by cherryobebe

Create a new folder

Advertisement Upgrade to remove ads

Which of the following stimuli are considered to be potentially injurious to cells?

A) Infection
B) Genetic mutations
C) Immunologic reactions
D) All of the above

D) All of the above

Which statement about the extent of cellular injury is true?

A) Two individuals exposed to the identical stimulus always have the same degree of cellular injury.
B) Nutritional status can have a profound effect on the extent of cell injury.
C) The precise point at which cell death occurs can be precisely predicted from the extent of injury.
D) Severe injury always causes irreversible cellular injury.

B) Nutritional status can have a profound effect on the extent of cell injury.

Which of the following terms describes cellular death caused by severe cell swelling and the breakdown of organelles?

A) Gangrene
B) Metastasis
C) Necrosis
D) Adaptation

C) Necrosis

A direct result of anaerobic metabolism during hypoxic cell injury is:

A) increased ATP.
B) the production of lactate.
C) tissue ischemia.
D) the production of free radicals.

B) the production of lactate.

Failure of the sodium/potassium pump during cellular injury results in cellular:

A) acidosis.
B) adaptation.
C) swelling.
D) dehydration.

C) swelling.

Free radicals are unstable molecules that cause cellular injury through the process of:

A) antioxidant toxicity.
B) hypoxia.
C) cell membrane damage.
D) all of the above.

C) cell membrane damage.

During cellular swelling, dilation of the endoplasmic reticulum leads to:

A) decreased ATP production.
B) release of hydrolytic enzymes.
C) failure of the sodium/potassium pump.
D) decreased protein synthesis.

D) decreased protein synthesis.

What are the primary factors contributing to oncosis in hypoxic injury?

A) Sodium movement into the cell
B) Injury to the Golgi apparatus
C) Potassium movement out of the cell
D) Accumulation of lipids and pigments in the cell

A) Sodium movement into the cell

Chronic infection of the cervix by the human papillomavirus results in cervical:

A) atrophy.
B) dysplasia.
C) metaplasia.
D) hormonal hyperplasia.

B) dysplasia.

Infectious injury is caused by:

A) radiation.
B) heat.
C) microorganisms.
D) allergies.

C) microorganisms.

Inflammatory and immunologic injuries are caused by:

A) phagocytic cells.
B) chemicals released by immune and inflammatory cells.
C) antibodies.
D) all of the above.

D) all of the above.

Cellular accumulations in normal and injured cells are also known as:

A) infiltrations.
B) dystrophic metabolites.
C) hydropic proteins.
D) proliferations.

A) infiltrations.

Metabolic disorders affecting the central nervous system often result in the accumulation of:

A) melanin.
B) lipid and carbohydrates.
C) iron.
D) proteins.

B) lipid and carbohydrates.

The process of programmed cellular self-destruction is called:

A) necrosis.
B) gangrene.
C) somatic death.
D) apoptosis.

D) apoptosis.

Caseous necrosis occurs under which of the following conditions?

A) Ischemic injury to neurons
B) Tuberculosis pulmonary infection
C) Injury to breast, pancreas, and other abdominal organs
D) Hypoxic injury to the heart, kidneys, and adrenal glands

B) Tuberculosis pulmonary infection

If the surface barriers such as the skin or mucus membranes are breached, the second line of defense in innate immunity is the:

A) lymph node.
B) lymphocyte response.
C) inflammatory response.
D) memory cells.

C) inflammatory response.

Which of the following statements about the skin's role as barrier to infectious microorganisms is false?

A) The melanocytes, which are the pigment-producing cells, have the capacity to ingest microorganisms.
B) Body surface temperatures are cooler than required for optimal bacterial growth.
C) Tight junctions between epithelial cells prevent microorganisms from entering the body.
D) Microorganisms get sloughed off with dead skin.

A) The melanocytes, which are the pigment-producing cells, have the capacity to ingest microorganisms.

The first vascular response in inflammation is:

A) vasoconstriction.
B) vasodilation.
C) increased vascular permeability.
D) decreased vascular permeability.

A) vasoconstriction.

What is the purpose of vasodilation and increased vascular permeability during inflammation?

A) To bring white blood cells to the area of injury
B) To transport inflammatory chemicals to the area of injury
C) To dilute toxins
D) All of the above

D) All of the above

The components of the complement and kinin system are:

A) antibodies.
B) white blood cells.
C) growth factors.
D) plasma proteins.

C) growth factors.

Activated complement proteins C3a and C5a act as:

A) opsonins.
B) membrane attack complexes.
C) anaphylatoxins.
D) vasoconstrictive agents.

C) anaphylatoxins.

The alternative pathway of the complement system is activated by:

A) histamine.
B) antigen-antibody complexes.
C) bacteria.
D) bleeding.

C) bacteria.

Functions of the clotting cascade during inflammation include which of the following?

A) Keeps bacteria close to the inflammatory cells
B) Helps stop bleeding
C) Prevents the spread of infection
D) All of the above

D) All of the above

Activation of the clotting system results in the production of:

A) platelets.
B) Hageman factor.
C) platelet-activating factor.
D) fibrin.

D) fibrin.

What is the role of plasmin in the inflammatory response?

A) It inhibits the complement system.
B) It directly stimulates mast cell degranulation.
C) It stimulates proliferation of fibrocytes.
D) It controls clotting by breaking down fibrin.

D) It controls clotting by breaking down fibrin.

The first cell to react to tissue injury is the:

A) macrophage.
B) mast cell.
C) fibroblast.
D) neutrophil.

B) mast cell.

Which of the following stimuli are known to induce mast cell degranulation?

A) Thermal injury
B) The presence of toxins
C) Immunologic tissue injury
D) All of the above

D) All of the above

Which of the following chemicals of inflammation are produced by mast cells from arachidonic acids in the cell membrane after degranulation?

A) Platelet-activating factor
B) Histamine and chemotactic cytokines
C) Leukotrienes and prostaglandins
D) Complement proteins

C) Leukotrienes and prostaglandins

During degranulation the mast cells release chemotactic cytokines that perform which of the following functions?

A) Vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
B) Attraction of neutrophils and eosinophils
C) Activation of the complement cascade
D) Opsonization of bacteria

B) Attraction of neutrophils and eosinophils

What is the function of H2 receptors for histamine on white blood cells?

A) Activate neutrophils and macrophages
B) Stimulate degranulation
C) Inhibit inflammation
D) Stimulate the immune response

C) Inhibit inflammation

In the respiratory system, the release of leukotrienes during an inflammatory response induces:

A) bronchoconstriction.
B) bronchodilation.
C) coughing.
D) free radical formation.

A) bronchoconstriction.

The process of a phagocyte squeezing through retracted endothelial cells to enter into the tissues is called:

A) fusion.
B) diapedesis.
C) phagocytosis.
D) margination.

B) diapedesis.

Prior to engulfment of a bacterium during phagocytosis, which of the following events must occur?

A) Release of lysosomal enzymes
B) Fusion
C) Recognition and adherence
D) Formation of a phagolysosome

C) Recognition and adherence

Which of the following substances are used by phagocytes to destroy engulfed bacteria?

A) Hydrolytic enzymes
B) Lactic acid
C) Oxygen radicals
D) All of the above

D) All of the above

Which of the following cells is responsible for prolonging the inflammatory response and are present at the site of chronic bacterial infections?

A) Neutrophils
B) Eosinophils
C) Macrophages
D) Lymphocytes

C) Macrophages

How long does it take neutrophils to arrive at the site of inflammation?

A) 1 to 2 hours
B) 6 to 12 hours
C) 24 to 48 hours
D) At least 48 hours

B) 6 to 12 hours

In addition to phagocytosis, which of the following functions are also performed by macrophages?

A) Release of growth factors and stimulating new blood vessel growth
B) Destroying circulating antibodies
C) Inhibiting inflammation
D) Promotion of blood clotting

A) Release of growth factors and stimulating new blood vessel growth

A monocyte is a circulating white blood cell that transforms into which of the following cells once it enters the tissue during an inflammatory response?

A) Neutrophil
B) Macrophage
C) Mast cell
D) Fibroblast

B) Macrophage

In order for macrophages to be effective phagocytes, they must be activated by lymphokines produced by:

A) neutrophils.
B) plasma cells.
C) mast cells.
D) T helper cells.

D) T helper cells.

Which white blood cell plays an important role in inhibiting the inflammatory response?

A) Neutrophil
B) Mast cell
C) Eosinophil
D) Basophil

C) Eosinophil

Under normal conditions, which cell accounts for the greatest percentage of the white blood cell count differential?

A) Neutrophils (PMNs)
B) Monocytes
C) Bands
D) Lymphocytes

A) Neutrophils (PMNs)

A differential rise in which white blood cell is typically seen with viral infections?

A) Neutrophils
B) Eosinophils
C) Monocytes
D) Lymphocytes

D) Lymphocytes

Which of the following cytokines is an antiinflammatory chemical?

A) IL-1
B) IL-6
C) IL-10
D) TNF-alpha

C) IL-10

All of the following chemicals will induce a fever during inflammation except:

A) TNF-alpha.
B) IL-1.
C) histamine.
D) prostaglandin E2.

C) histamine.

Which of the following inflammatory chemicals are blocked by nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs such as ibuprofen?

A) Histamine
B) Prostaglandins
C) Leukotrienes
D) All of the above

B) Prostaglandins

Which of the following inflammatory chemicals are responsible for inducing pain during inflammation?

A) Bradykinin and prostaglandins
B) Histamine and chemotactic cytokines
C) Lymphokines
D) Nitrous oxide and platelet-activating factor

A) Bradykinin and prostaglandins

Cells defend against viral invasion through the production and secretion of:

A) histamine.
B) interferon.
C) growth factors.
D) prostaglandins.

B) interferon.

Which of the following molecules are opsonins?

A) Histamine and serotonin
B) Endotoxin and exotoxin
C) Bacteria and parasites
D) Antibodies and complement proteins

D) Antibodies and complement proteins

Opsonization promotes the process of:

A) phagocytosis.
B) vasodilation.
C) increased vascular permeability.
D) clotting.

A) phagocytosis.

Prostaglandins differ from histamine in which of the following ways?

A) Site of production
B) Duration of effect
C) Vascular effect
D) All of the above

B) Duration of effect

Manifestation of local inflammation includes:

A) edema.
B) pallor.
C) bruising.
D) necrosis.

A) edema.

Warmth and redness of the skin are indicators of inflammation. Which of the following processes is responsible for this clinical manifestation?

A) Increased vascular permeability
B) Phagocytosis
C) Vasoconstriction
D) Vasodilation

D) Vasodilation

Which of the following types of exudate is characterized by the movement of watery fluid, containing few cells and little protein, into the tissues?

A) Fibrinous
B) Serous
C) Purulent
D) Hemorrhagic

B) Serous

Which of the following exudates would be present in highest concentration at the site of a persistent bacterial infection?

A) Fibrinous
B) Serous
C) Hemorrhagic
D) Purulent

D) Purulent

One systemic manifestation of the acute inflammatory response is fever, which is induced by several mediators, including:

A) histamine.
B) interferon.
C) interleukin 1.
D) nitrous oxide.

C) interleukin 1.

An elevation of which cell accounts for a "left shift" in the white blood cell count differential?

A) Lymphocytes
B) Monocytes
C) Basophils
D) Bands and PMNs

D) Bands and PMNs

Which of the following characteristics concerning the acute phase reactant C-reactive protein is (are) true?

A) Produced by the liver
B) Plasma indicator of inflammation
C) Significant risk factor for heart
D) All of the above

D) All of the above

Which of the following cells plays an active role in collagen deposition during wound contraction and scar tissue formation?

A) Mast cell
B) Macrophage
C) Fibroblast
D) Osteocyte

C) Fibroblast

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of chronic inflammation?

A) Granuloma formation
B) Bleeding
C) Neutrophilia
D) All of the above

A) Granuloma formation

A deep pressure ulcer heals through the process of:

A) primary intention.
B) secondary intention.
C) reepithelialization without significant scarring.
D) retraction.

B) secondary intention.

Which of the following events occurs during the reconstructive phase of wound healing?

A) Epithelialization
B) Scar tissue remodeling
C) Dehiscence
D) Degranulation

A) Epithelialization

The development of contractures during wound healing can result in which of the following problems?

A) Limited movement at joints
B) Impaired blood flow
C) Organ strictures
D) All of the above

D) All of the above

The first line of defense against pathogens is the:

A) skin and mucous membranes.
B) inflammatory response.
C) primary immune response.
D) hypersensitivity response.

A) skin and mucous membranes.

Please allow access to your computer’s microphone to use Voice Recording.

Having trouble? Click here for help.

We can’t access your microphone!

Click the icon above to update your browser permissions above and try again

Example:

Reload the page to try again!

Reload

Press Cmd-0 to reset your zoom

Press Ctrl-0 to reset your zoom

It looks like your browser might be zoomed in or out. Your browser needs to be zoomed to a normal size to record audio.

Please upgrade Flash or install Chrome
to use Voice Recording.

For more help, see our troubleshooting page.

Your microphone is muted

For help fixing this issue, see this FAQ.

Star this term

You can study starred terms together

NEW! Voice Recording

Create Set