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Which of the following stimuli are considered to be potentially injurious to cells?

A) Infection
B) Genetic mutations
C) Immunologic reactions
D) All of the above

D) All of the above

Which statement about the extent of cellular injury is true?

A) Two individuals exposed to the identical stimulus always have the same degree of cellular injury.
B) Nutritional status can have a profound effect on the extent of cell injury.
C) The precise point at which cell death occurs can be precisely predicted from the extent of injury.
D) Severe injury always causes irreversible cellular injury.

B) Nutritional status can have a profound effect on the extent of cell injury.

Which of the following terms describes cellular death caused by severe cell swelling and the breakdown of organelles?

A) Gangrene
B) Metastasis
C) Necrosis
D) Adaptation

C) Necrosis

A direct result of anaerobic metabolism during hypoxic cell injury is:

A) increased ATP.
B) the production of lactate.
C) tissue ischemia.
D) the production of free radicals.

B) the production of lactate.

Failure of the sodium/potassium pump during cellular injury results in cellular:

A) acidosis.
B) adaptation.
C) swelling.
D) dehydration.

C) swelling.

Free radicals are unstable molecules that cause cellular injury through the process of:

A) antioxidant toxicity.
B) hypoxia.
C) cell membrane damage.
D) all of the above.

C) cell membrane damage.

During cellular swelling, dilation of the endoplasmic reticulum leads to:

A) decreased ATP production.
B) release of hydrolytic enzymes.
C) failure of the sodium/potassium pump.
D) decreased protein synthesis.

D) decreased protein synthesis.

What are the primary factors contributing to oncosis in hypoxic injury?

A) Sodium movement into the cell
B) Injury to the Golgi apparatus
C) Potassium movement out of the cell
D) Accumulation of lipids and pigments in the cell

A) Sodium movement into the cell

Chronic infection of the cervix by the human papillomavirus results in cervical:

A) atrophy.
B) dysplasia.
C) metaplasia.
D) hormonal hyperplasia.

B) dysplasia.

Infectious injury is caused by:

A) radiation.
B) heat.
C) microorganisms.
D) allergies.

C) microorganisms.

Inflammatory and immunologic injuries are caused by:

A) phagocytic cells.
B) chemicals released by immune and inflammatory cells.
C) antibodies.
D) all of the above.

D) all of the above.

Cellular accumulations in normal and injured cells are also known as:

A) infiltrations.
B) dystrophic metabolites.
C) hydropic proteins.
D) proliferations.

A) infiltrations.

Metabolic disorders affecting the central nervous system often result in the accumulation of:

A) melanin.
B) lipid and carbohydrates.
C) iron.
D) proteins.

B) lipid and carbohydrates.

The process of programmed cellular self-destruction is called:

A) necrosis.
B) gangrene.
C) somatic death.
D) apoptosis.

D) apoptosis.

Caseous necrosis occurs under which of the following conditions?

A) Ischemic injury to neurons
B) Tuberculosis pulmonary infection
C) Injury to breast, pancreas, and other abdominal organs
D) Hypoxic injury to the heart, kidneys, and adrenal glands

B) Tuberculosis pulmonary infection

The body's first line of defense against microorganisms is/are the:

A) immune system.
B) inflammatory response.
C) skin and mucous membranes.
D) hypersensitivity response.

C) skin and mucous membranes.

In contrast with the inflammatory response, the immune response:

A) is more effective at fighting microorganisms
B) is faster.
C) recognizes specific invaders.
D) has no memory.

C) recognizes specific invaders.

The primary cell of immunity is the:

A) mast cell.
B) macrophage.
C) neutrophil.
D) lymphocyte.

D) lymphocyte.

Humoral immunity is generated through the process of:

A) direct cell lysis.
B) stimulating an inflammatory
C) producing antibodies.
D) secreting toxic molecules.

C) producing antibodies.

The generation of clonal diversity is:

A) the reaction of a lymphocyte to a specific antigen.
B) the development of natural immunity.
C) the ability of the population of lymphocytes to recognize any antigenic molecule.
D) the circulation of lymphocytes through the spleen.

C) the ability of the population of lymphocytes to recognize any antigenic molecule.

Which of the following statements best describes the process of clonal selection?

A) An antigen directly activates B- and T-cell clones.
B) Lymphocytes that can recognize and react to a specific antigen proliferate.
C) A single lymphocyte develops the ability to recognize multiple antigens.
D) A B lymphocyte is selected to become a T cytotoxic cell.

B) Lymphocytes that can recognize and react to a specific antigen proliferate.

If a person has resistance to a disease from natural exposure to an antigen, the person has which form of immunity?

A) Natural
B) Innate
C) Passive acquired
D) Active acquired

D) Active acquired

Molecules that are capable of inducing an immune response are called:

A) lymphocytes.
B) haptens.
C) antigens.
D) antibodies.

C) antigens.

The portion of the antigenic molecule that is recognized by the lymphocyte is called the antigenic determinant or:

A) MHC complex.
B) immunoglobulin.
C) epitope.
D) haplotype.

C) epitope.

Which of the following is an example of an endogenous antigen?

A) Poison ivy
B) Injected medications
C) Pollen
D) The body's own tissue

D) The body's own tissue

The condition in which the immune cells attack the individual's own tissues as if they were invaders is called:

A) alloimmunity.
B) autoimmunity.
C) hypersensitivity.
D) graft rejection.

B) autoimmunity.

Immune cells distinguish "self" from "nonself" by recognizing:

A) cellular RNA.
B) major histocompatibility antigens.
C) different types of phospholipids in a cell's membrane.
D) "nonself" enzymes secreted by foreign cells.

B) major histocompatibility antigens.

Which molecule is found on the surface of antigen-presenting cells (APCs) that present lipid antigens and plays an important role in recognizing tuberculosis infections?

A) CD1 antigen
B) Rh antigen
C) BCR antigen
D) MHC II antigen

A) CD1 antigen

Major histocompatibility class I (MHC I) antigens are found on which of the following cells?

A) Red blood cells
B) B lymphocytes and macrophages only
C) All body cells except for red blood cells
D) Liver, heart, and bone marrow cells only

C) All body cells except for red blood cells

Which of the following cells has the capacity to produce antibodies during an immune response?

A) Plasma cells
B) T cells
C) Memory cells
D) Pluripotent cells

A) Plasma cells

The Fc portion of the antibody:

A) is responsible for binding to specific antigen.
B) is responsible for creating the hinge region of the antibody.
C) consists of light chains.
D) interacts with inflammatory cells.

D) interacts with inflammatory cells.

Which cell ingests microorganisms for the purposes of presenting their antigen to the immune system and activating an immune response?

A) Helper T cell
B) Mast cell
C) Neutrophil
D) Macrophage

D) Macrophage

Which cell stimulates both the cell-mediated and humoral immune responses?

A) Plasma cells
B) Cytotoxic T cells
C) B lymphocytes
D) Helper T cells

D) Helper T cells

CD4 receptors that bind to the surface of macrophages and B cells are found on:

A) helper T cells.
B) cytotoxic T cells.
C) plasma cells.
D) the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).

A) helper T cells.

Th1 cells stimulate the proliferation and differentiation of:

A) cytotoxic T cells.
B) B cells.
C) eosinophils.
D) Regulatory T cells.

A) cytotoxic T cells.

Which process confers long-lasting immunity against a specific organism?

A) Production of memory cells
B) Activation of macrophages
C) Activation of cytotoxic T cells
D) Activation of the inflammatory response

A) Production of memory cells

An immune complex is formed by which of the following paired molecules?

A) Cytotoxic T cells and antigen
B) Antibodies and antigen
C) B cells and antigen
D) Helper T cells and lymphocytes

B) Antibodies and antigen

The predominant antibody of a typical secondary immune response is:

A) IgG.
B) IgM.
C) IgE.
D) IgA.

A) IgG.

If a person is exposed to antigen X and is later exposed to antigen X again, which of the following immune responses will occur?

A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Determinant
D) Immunosuppressive

B) Secondary

What type of immunity is conferred when an individual is given a vaccine?

A) Natural immunity
B) Passive acquired immunity
C) Active acquired immunity
D) Alloimmunity

C) Active acquired immunity

Which of the following is not a function of antibodies?

A) Neutralizing bacterial toxins
B) Preventing viruses from entering tissue cells
C) Direct cell killing through the release of toxic chemicals
D) Opsonizing foreign antigen

C) Direct cell killing through the release of toxic chemicals

What role does opsonization play in the immune and inflammatory response?

A) Prevents the lymphocytes from attacking self-antigen
B) Stimulates cytotoxic T cells
C) Stimulates exudation of white blood cells into the tissues
D) Promotes phagocytosis of foreign antigen

D) Promotes phagocytosis of foreign antigen

Which type of antibody can be created in a laboratory for the treatment of diseases such as cancer and will only react with a single antigen?

A) Polymorphic
B) Monoclonal
C) Totipotent
D) Deterministic

B) Monoclonal

Which is the main antibody transferred from a mother to an infant in breast milk?

A) IgG
B) IgM
C) IgE
D) IgA

D) IgA

When a person has an allergic reaction to bee stings, which antibody causes the life-threatening hypersensitivity response?

A) IgM
B) IgA
C) IgE
D) IgG

C) IgE

Cytotoxic T (Tc) cells can destroy infected or cancer cells by which of the following mechanisms?

A) Producing toxins
B) Stimulating apoptosis
C) Producing antibodies
D) Both A and B

D) Both A and B

How do natural killer (NK) cells differ from cytotoxic T (Tc) cells?

A) NK cells lack antigen-specificity and can target any infected or malignant cell.
B) NK cells are phagocytic.
C) NK cells can opsonize bacteria and viruses.
D) NK cells release toxins that kill the target cell.

A) NK cells lack antigen-specificity and can target any infected or malignant cell.

At birth, IgG levels in newborn infants are:

A) low.
B) high.
C) near adult levels.
D) absent.

C) near adult levels.

Older individuals are at increased risk for which of the following problems?

A) Autoimmune diseases
B) Hypersensitivity reactions
C) Infections
D) All of the above

D) All of the above

A decrease in cell-mediated (T cell) immunity decreases at puberty because of:

A) decreases in bone marrow production of T cells.
B) atrophy of the thymus.
C) the diminishing effects of most childhood vaccines.
D) the inhibitory effects of sex hormones on T-cell function

B) atrophy of the thymus.

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