Module 6: Hypersensitivities, Infection, and Immune Deficiencies

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Which of the following cells produce antibodies during an immune reaction?

A) T cells
B) Mast cells
C) Plasma cells
D) Macrophages

C) Plasma cells

When mast cells degranulate, they release:

A) toxins.
B) histamine.
C) bradykinin.
D) antibodies.

B) histamine.

Which of the following is not a function of antibodies?

A) Stimulating vasodilation and vasopermeability
B) Neutralizing bacterial toxins
C) Preventing viruses from entering tissue cells
D) Promoting natural killer (NK) cell activity

A) Stimulating vasodilation and vasopermeability

In addition to antibodies, which of the following molecules act as opsonins?

A) Histamine
B) Complement proteins
C) Fibrin
D) Antigens

B) Complement proteins

The predominant antibody of a typical primary immune response is:

A) IgG.
B) IgM.
C) IgE.
D) IgA.

B) IgM.

If a person is exposed to antigen X and is later exposed to antigen Y, which of the following immune responses to antigen Y will occur?

A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Determinant
D) Immunosuppressive

A) Primary

A differential rise in which white blood cells is typically seen with viral infections?

A) Neutrophils
B) Eosinophils
C) Monocytes
D) Lymphocytes

D) Lymphocytes

What is the function of the Fc portion of the antibody?

A) The Fc portion binds to specific antigen.
B) The Fc portion creates the hinge region of the antibody.
C) The Fc portion consists of light chains.
D) The Fc portion interacts with inflammatory cells.

D) The Fc portion interacts with inflammatory cells.

CD4 receptors that bind to the surface of macrophages are found on:

A) helper T cells.
B) cytotoxic T cells.
C) plasma cells.
D) viruses

A) helper T cells.

What methods do cytotoxic T (Tc) cells use to destroy infected cells?

A) Producing antibodies
B) Producing toxins and stimulating apoptosis
C) Activating the complement and kinin systems
D) All of the above

B) Producing toxins and stimulating apoptosis

Which of the following cells are phagocytes?

A) Macrophages
B) Lymphocytes
C) Mast cells
D) Basophils

A) Macrophages

A differential rise in which white blood cells is typically seen with acute bacterial infections?

A) Neutrophils
B) Eosinophils
C) Monocytes
D) Lymphocytes

A) Neutrophils

The process of covering bacteria with antibodies to promote phagocytosis of the microorganism is called:

A) neutralization.
B) precipitation.
C) margination.
D) opsonization.

D) opsonization.

The precursor cell to the macrophage is the:

A) neutrophil.
B) eosinophil.
C) fibrocyte.
D) monocyte.

D) monocyte.

After degranulation, the mast cells release prostaglandins and leukotrienes that perform which of the following functions?

A) Vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
B) Attraction of neutrophils and eosinophils
C) Activation of the complement cascade
D) Opsonization of bacteria

A) Vasodilation and increased vascular permeability

Which of the following immune responses is directly responsible for activating inflammation?

A) T helper cell activation
B) Antigen presentation
C) Formation of immune (antigen-antibody) complexes
D) All of the above

C) Formation of immune (antigen-antibody) complexes

Which of the following inflammatory chemicals is capable of activating all three plasma protein systems?

A) Hageman factor (factor XII)
B) Interleukin 2
C) Factor X
D) Fibrin

A) Hageman factor (factor XII)

What is the function of H1 receptors for histamine on white blood cells?

A) Activating neutrophils and macrophages
B) Reducing phagocytosis
C) Inhibiting degranulation
D) Stimulating the immune response

A) Activating neutrophils and macrophages

Which of the following hypersensitivity reactions involves the formation of antibodies against tissue-specific antigen?

A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV

B) Type II

Which of the following hypersensitivity reactions is mediated by Tc and Td cells?

A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV

D) Type IV

When a person has an allergic reaction to a bee sting, which type of hypersensitivity response is occurring?

A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV

A) Type I

Which of the following hypersensitivity reactions involves the formation of antigen-antibody (immune) complexes that get deposited on vessel walls or in extravascular tissue?

A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV

C) Type III

A positive tuberculin skin test for detecting the presence of tuberculosis is indicative of which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV

D) Type IV

Which cells are stimulated by the presence of antibodies in a type I hypersensitivity reaction?

A) Mast cells
B) Macrophages
C) B lymphocytes
D) T lymphocytes

A) Mast cells

Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following antibodies?

A) IgG
B) IgD
C) IgM
D) IgE

D) IgE

What is the effect of repeated exposure to an allergen in an atopic individual?

A) The allergic response gets worse.
B) Antibody production is suppressed.
C) Antibody formation remains constant.
D) Tc cell activity increases significantly.

A) The allergic response gets worse.

Which of the following clusters of symptoms would likely indicate the presence of atopic (allergic) disease from pollen exposure?

A) Chest pain, shortness of breath, and abdominal cramping
B) Weight loss, anxiety, and tremors
C) Rhinorrhea, watery eyes, and headache
D) Jaundice, fatigue, and decreased urine output

C) Rhinorrhea, watery eyes, and headache

Which of the following receptors, when bound to histamine, stimulates gastric acid secretion in the stomach?

A) H1
B) H2
C) H3
D) H4

B) H2

What is the effect of H1 receptors for histamine on smooth muscle tissue?

A) Bronchodilation
B) Endothelial cell retraction
C) Prolonged vasoconstriction
D) All of the above

B) Endothelial cell retraction

The most severe type I hypersensitivity response is:

A) eczema.
B) allergic rhinitis.
C) serous otitis.
D) anaphylaxis.

D) anaphylaxis.

Desensitization therapy improves allergies by which of the following mechanisms?

A) Producing antibodies that prevent the allergen from binding to IgE
B) Decreasing the amount of IgE in the body
C) Decreasing the amount of antigen in the bloodstream
D) Decreasing the responsiveness of the bronchi and blood vessels to histamine

A) Producing antibodies that prevent the allergen from binding to IgE

In type II hypersensitivity, tissue injury is caused by:

A) autoantibody activation of complement and subsequent destruction of target cells.
B) autoantibody stimulation of NK cells that destroy target cells.
C) autoantibody opsonization of target cells and subsequent phagocytosis.
D) all of the above.

D) all of the above.

Which of the following features is characteristic of a type IV hypersensitivity?

A) Antibody-dependent cell-mediated toxicity
B) Delayed response
C) Usually life-threatening
D) Mediated by the complement system

B) Delayed response

Type IV hypersensitivities, such as poison ivy reactions, are initiated by:

A) B cells that release IgD 24 to 48 hours after exposure.
B) the release of neutrophil chemotactic factor.
C) the stimulation of cytotoxic T cells.
D) the release of large quantities of IgE.

C) the stimulation of cytotoxic T cells.

Raynaud phenomenon is an example of a:

A) type I hypersensitivity.
B) type II hypersensitivity.
C) type III hypersensitivity.
D) type IV hypersensitivity.

C) type III hypersensitivity.

When the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus, what type of immune reaction occurs?

A) Autoimmune
B) Anaphylaxis
C) Alloimmune
D) Allergic

C) Alloimmune

Graves' disease is an autoimmune disease caused by autoantibodies that:

A) stimulate the production of thyroid hormone.
B) block the effects of thyroid hormone.
C) destroy the thyroid gland.
D) destroy cells that normally respond to thyroid hormone.

A) stimulate the production of thyroid hormone.

What type of reaction occurs when the body mounts an aggressive response against an organ transplanted from another person?

A) Type I hypersensitivity
B) Autoimmune
C) Alloimmune
D) Immunosuppressive

C) Alloimmune

Autoimmunity can result from all of the following hypersensitivities except:

A) type I.
B) type II.
C) type III.
D) type IV.

A) type I.

Which of the following is not a known mechanism for the development of an autoimmune disease?

A) The development of a neoantigen that often involves binding a hapten to a cell in the body
B) Alterations in regulatory T-cell function and the loss of self-tolerance
C) Spontaneous alteration of the self-antigen of a mature cell
D) Complication of a viral infection in which the antibody to the virus cross-reacts with the body's own cells

C) Spontaneous alteration of the self-antigen of a mature cell

Which of the following factors are known triggers for those who have a genetic predisposition for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?

A) Alcohol and intravenous drug use
B) Viral infections and UV light
C) Pollens and food allergens
D) Stress and anxiety

B) Viral infections and UV light

Disease characteristics of SLE include:

A) Tc cell destruction of lung tissue and the gastrointestinal lining.
B) deposition of immune complexes in the kidneys, brain, and heart.
C) autoantibody destruction of the thyroid gland.
D) Tc cell damage to the liver.

B) deposition of immune complexes in the kidneys, brain, and heart.

Manifestations of the autoimmune disease SLE include:

A) wheezing, eczema, and itching.
B) pulmonary edema, leg swelling, and vein distention.
C) arthritic joint pain, pleuritic chest pain, and rash.
D) nasal polyps, headache, and rhinorrhea.

C) arthritic joint pain, pleuritic chest pain, and rash.

Hyperacute allograft rejection is caused by:

A) cytokines and growth factors produced by trauma to vascular endothelial cells.
B) preformed antibodies that react immediately with the graft.
C) Tc and NK cell destruction of the graft.
D) production of antibodies to the new graft by B lymphocytes.

B) preformed antibodies that react immediately with the graft.

A person with type O blood has which of the following antigens present on their red blood cells?

A) A and B
B) Rh
C) O
D) None of the above

D) None of the above

If a person has type AB blood, she is likely to have:

A) high titers (levels) of anti-A antibodies.
B) high titers (levels) of anti-B antibodies.
C) no antibodies against A or B antigen.
D) high titers (levels) of anti-A antibodies and anti-B antibodies.

C) no antibodies against A or B antigen.

Transfusion of A-negative blood to an O-positive individual will have which of the following results?

A) Improved red blood cell count
B) Clumping and lysis of red blood cells
C) Production of anti-B antibodies
D) An Rh incompatibility reaction

B) Clumping and lysis of red blood cells

A person with type AB blood is a universal:

A) bone marrow transplant donor.
B) bone marrow transplant recipient.
C) blood donor.
D) blood recipient.

D) blood recipient.

Hemolytic disease of the newborn is a lethal condition caused by the destruction of fetal blood by maternal antibodies. This condition involves an immune reaction against which of the following antigens on the fetal red blood cell?

A) A
B) B
C) O
D) Rh D

D) Rh D

Individuals with immunodeficiencies are at risk for:

A) hypersensitivity reactions.
B) fungal infections only
C) opportunistic infections.
D) autoimmune diseases.

C) opportunistic infections.

Which of the following immunodeficiency disorders is an X-linked recessive disease characterized by decreased IgM production?

A) Severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID)
B) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
C) DiGeorge syndrome
D) Bare lymphocyte syndrome

B) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

A child who has a history of many allergies, recurrent respiratory tract infections, and chronic yeast infections of the gastrointestinal tract may have an underlying immune disease called:

A) severe combined immunodeficiency.
B) IgA deficiency.
C) Bruton agammaglobulinemia.
D) autoimmunity.

B) IgA deficiency.

The microorganism that causes acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is a:

A) gram-negative bacterium.
B) gram-positive bacterium.
C) retrovirus.
D) protozoan.

C) retrovirus.

The microorganism that causes AIDS can be transmitted through:

A) heterosexual intercourse.
B) breast milk.
C) blood transfusions.
D) all of the above.

D) all of the above.

HIV inserts its genetic material by binding to the _____ on the helper T cell.

A) gp 120 receptor
B) CD8 receptor
C) CD4 receptor
D) phospholipids

C) CD4 receptor

After initial infection with the HIV, most individuals:

A) experience severe symptoms of AIDS.
B) have mild flu-like symptoms.
C) have low levels of circulating antibodies against HIV.
D) manifest with central nervous system symptoms.

B) have mild flu-like symptoms.

If blood cell counts from an individual with AIDS were analyzed, you would expect to see very low quantities of:

A) Th cells.
B) mast cells.
C) red blood cells.
D) neutrophils.

A) Th cells.

Skin prick, radioimmunosorbent testing (RIST), and radioallergosorbent testing (RAST) are used to screen for:

A) compatibility of donor tissue.
B) type I hypersensitivities.
C) all forms of congenital hypersensitivities.
D) autoimmune diseases.

B) type I hypersensitivities.

Commensal bacteria are considered to be:

A) pathogenic.
B) normal flora in the body.
C) resistant to antimicrobial agents.
D) bacteria that behave like viruses.

B) normal flora in the body.

Functions of the normal gastrointestinal flora include:

A) producing vitamins.
B) digesting dietary molecules.
C) keeping harmful microorganisms from proliferating.
D) all of the above.

D) all of the above.

Which of the following statements about viruses is true?

A) Viruses are intracellular parasites that take over the metabolic machinery of host cells.
B) Viruses are prokaryocytes.
C) Viruses can be classified as gram-positive or gram-negative.
D) Viruses do not contain their own DNA or RNA.

A) Viruses are intracellular parasites that take over the metabolic machinery of host cells.

Which of the following microorganisms is not a form of bacteria?

A) Bacilli
B) Spirochetes
C) Yeasts
D) Cocci

C) Yeasts

Examples of parasitic helminthic organisms include:

A) influenza virus and cytomegalovirus
B) protozoa and arthropods.
C) yeasts and molds.
D) tapeworms and hookworms.

D) tapeworms and hookworms.

What is the outcome of genetic drift in antigenic variation in pathogenic microorganisms?

A) Switching genes on and off allows a pathogen to alter its production of surface molecules.
B) Two different strains of a pathogen combine and become a new pathogen.
C) The antigenicity of the pathogen changes to create a new strain of the microorganism.
D) A pathogen that infects one species develops the ability to infect another species.

C) The antigenicity of the pathogen changes to create a new strain of the microorganism.

Which of the following statements is not a current public health concern about the H5N1 avian flu virus?

A) H5N1 may undergo antigenic shifts and can be spread among humans.
B) H5N1 may cause a pandemic in humans.
C) H5N1 would be highly virulent in humans.
D) H5N1 infection is a highly communicable disease among humans

D) H5N1 infection is a highly communicable disease among humans

The number of microorganisms required to kill a host is known as:

A) pathogenicity.
B) virulence.
C) antigenicity.
D) toxigenicity.

B) virulence.

Which of the following is not a method that a virus can use to cause host cell injury?

A) Damages lysosomal membranes
B) Stimulates apoptosis
C) Releases toxins from a host cell that damages other cells in the tissue
D) Causes cancerous mutations

C) Releases toxins from a host cell that damages other cells in the tissue

Why are fungal infections resistant to most antibiotic therapies?

A) Fungi release toxins that neutralize most antibiotics.
B) Fungi have thick polysaccharide walls that resist antibiotics.
C) Fungi can mutate quickly to avoid the effects of antibiotics.
D) All fungi are anaerobes.

B) Fungi have thick polysaccharide walls that resist antibiotics.

Serious systemic fungal infections and parasitic infections usually only develop in individuals who are:

A) immunocompromised.
B) young.
C) virally infected.
D) allergic.

A) immunocompromised.

A systemic manifestation of infection is:

A) purulent exudate.
B) pain.
C) fever.
D) swelling.

C) fever.

Which method is used by pathogens to avoid immune or inflammatory destruction?

A) Production of toxins that kill white blood cells
B) Rapid proliferation
C) Hiding within host cells
D) All of the above

Which method is used by pathogens to avoid immune or inflammatory destruction?
A) Production of toxins that kill white blood cells
Feedback: INCORRECT
Certain organisms produce toxins that kill white blood cells; however, some pathogens are able to proliferate faster than the developing immune response and some viruses bypass body defense mechanisms by developing intracellularly.

B) Rapid proliferation
Feedback: INCORRECT
Some pathogens are able to proliferate faster than the developing immune response; however, some viruses bypass body defense mechanisms by developing intracellularly and other organisms produce toxins that kill white blood cells.

C) Hiding within host cells
Feedback: INCORRECT
Many viruses bypass body defense mechanisms by developing intracellularly; however, certain organisms produce toxins that kill white blood cells or proliferate faster than the developing immune response.

D) All of the above

Which of the following microorganisms often resist phagocytosis because of their extremely small size, but induce a strong antibody response that usually results in neutralization of the pathogen?

A) Gram-positive bacteria
B) Gram-negative bacteria
C) Fungi
D) Viruses

D) Viruses

Endotoxin is formed from:

A) viral secretions.
B) fragments of cell membranes from lysed gram-negative bacteria.
C) lysosomal enzymes released by fungi.
D) poisons released by gram-positive bacteria.

B) fragments of cell membranes from lysed gram-negative bacteria.

Through what mechanism do bacteria cause injury to the host?

A) Phagocytosis
B) Capsule formation
C) Production of free radicals
D) Release of bacterial toxins

D) Release of bacterial toxins

Vaccines help protect individuals against disease by inducing which of the following immune responses?

A) Alloimmune
B) Passive immune
C) Primary immune
D) Secondary immune

C) Primary immune

Vaccines have been developed to protect against pathogens. For which types of organisms have vaccines been developed?

A) Viruses
B) Bacteria
C) Fungi
D) Both A and B

D) Both A and B

Vaccine can be formed from all of the following agents except:

A) a live, infectious antigen.
B) an attenuated antigen.
C) a dead antigen.
D) a detoxified toxin.

A) a live, infectious antigen.

Which of the following individuals may have difficulty developing immunity from vaccines?

A) A child with a genetic predisposition to allergies
B) Individuals taking drugs that suppress the immune system
C) Teenagers who have had too many vaccinations
D) School-age children

B) Individuals taking drugs that suppress the immune system

Which of the following infections can be treated with antibiotics?

A) Bacterial
B) Viral
C) Fungal
D) All of the above

A) Bacterial

Of the following, the most serious challenge to the effective control of infectious disease is:

A) creating antimicrobials that can penetrate bacterial capsules.
B) microbial drug resistance.
C) the unavailability of antimicrobial agents for many bacterial infections.
D) the fact that fungi are taking over as the major source of infection.

B) microbial drug resistance.

Which pair of relatives has the highest chance of sharing both HLA haplotypes, making them a good match for an organ transplant from one to the other?

A) Mother and daughter
B) Father and son
C) Siblings
D) Mother and father

C) Siblings

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