Pharm I questions

Created by paulegan 

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The BEST antidote for atropine poisoning is

physostigmine

Which of the following drugs is favored in treatment of glaucoma?
a. pilocarpine
b. bethanechol
c. neostigmine
d. muscarine
e. carbachol

pilocarpine

Atropine may cause all of the following except
a. constipation
b. tachycardia
c. urine retention
d. decrease in intraocular pressure
e. decrease in gastric secretion

decrease in intraocular pressure

Which of the following is the drug of choice in the immediate treatment of acute anaphylactic shock?
a. atropine
b. epinephrine
c. norepinephrine
d. neostigmine
e. isoproterenol

epinephrine

Epinephrine is CONTRAINDICATED with phenothiazine derivatives mainly because it

will cause severe hypotension

Which of the following drugs is the drug of choice for treatment of acute bronchial asthma?
a. isoproterenol
b. epinephrine
c. ephedrine
d. albuterol
e. ipratropium

albuterol

All of the following are therapeutic uses of beta-blockers EXCEPT
a. hypertension
b. hyperthyroidism
c. ventricular tachyarrhythmias
d. glaucoma
e. urinary incontinence

urinary incontinence

A dog poisoned with chocolate would show signs of which of the following effects?
a. oliguria, shock, CNS depression
b. hyperglycemia, hemolysis, shock
c. tachycardia, convulsive seizures, urination
d. bronchoconstriction, pulmonary edema, hypertension
e. bradycardia, urine retention, constipation

tachycardia, convulsive seizures, urination

All of the following agents can be given orally to decrease absorption of strychnine EXCEPT
a. diluted potassium permanganate solution
b. diluted tincture of iodine
c. diluted tannic acid solution
d. activated charcoal
e. sodium bicarbonate

sodium bicarbonate

Xanthine derivatives stimulate the CNS MAINLY by
a. blocking glycine receptors
b. blocking GABA receptors
c. inhibiting reuptake of norepinephrine
d. blocking α2-adrenergic receptors
e. blocking adenosine receptors

blocking adenosine receptors

Which of the following drugs is used as antidote for diazepam?
a. propranolol
b. atropine
c. yohimbine
d. flumazenil
e. misoprostol

flumazenil

Which of the following is LEAST likely a therapeutic use of phenothiazine derivatives
a. preanesthetic
b. chemical restraint
c. bronchial asthma
d. motion sickness
e. antiemetics

bronchial asthma

Benzodiazepines cause CNS depression by

enhancing GABA

Which of the following CNS depressant drugs are used to stimulate appetite in cats and dogs?
a. phenothiazines
b. butyrophenones
c. benzodiazepines
d. α2-adrenergic agonists
e. opioid agonists

benzodiazepines

The BEST antagonist for droperidol-fentanyl combination is

4-AP/naloxone combination

Bradycardia due to xylazine in the horse is BEST treated with
a. yohimbine
b. isoproterenol
c. atropine
d. epinephrine
e. bethanechol

atropine

Which of the following drugs is MOST effective in reversing the sedative, analgesic, and physiological changes in dogs receiving medetomidine?
a. atropine
b. epinephrine
c. prazosin
d. atipamezole
e. naloxone

atipamezole

Opioid antidiarrheals have all of the following actions EXCEPT
a. inhibition of propulsive motility
b. inhibition of intestinal secretion
c. inhibition of segmental motility
d. prolonging the transit time
e. inhibition of the defecation reflex

inhibition of segmental motility

Which of the following drugs would you choose as antitussive to contol severe cough in a dog with infectious tracheobronchitis?
a. meperidine
b. hydrocodone
c. loperamide
d. atropine
e. xylazine

hydrocodone

Buprenorphine is used in dogs and cats as

analgesic

Propofol is preferred over thiobarbiturates as an injectable anesthetic because

it has less cardiovascular effects

All of the following statements with dissociative anesthetics are true EXCEPT
a. they produce only stage I and stage II
b. induction is usually within 5 minutes depending on route of administration
c. duration of anesthesia is about 20-45 min in small animals
d. recovery is within 10-15 minutes
e. reflexes are maintained during anesthesia

recovery is within 10-15 minutes

All of the following injectible anesthetics cause cardiovascular depression EXCEPT
a. thiopental
b. ketamine
c. propofol
d. etamidate
e. thiamylal

ketamine

Isoflurane is preferred over halothane because of all of the following effects EXEPT
a. it has faster induction and recovery
b. it has greater precision on the depth of anesthesia
c. it has less ability to sensitize the myocardium to catecholamines
d. it does not cause organ toxicity
e. it causes less respiratory depression

it causes less respiratory depression

Which of the following inhalation anesthetics has the fastest induction?
a. halothane
b. methoxyflurane
c. isoflurane
d. desflurane
e. sevoflurane

desflurane

All of the following statements about nitrous oxide are true EXCEPT
a. it is used as anesthetic adjuvant with other anesthetcis
b. it may increase intracranial pressure
c. it is a potent muscle relaxant
d. it produces fair to good analgesia
e. it does not affect liver or kidney functions

it is a potent muscle relaxant

All of the following drugs may aggravate epinephrine-induced cardia arrhythmias during inhalation anesthesia EXCEPT
a. thiopental
b. lidocaine
c. xylazine
d. norepinephrine
e. succinylcholine

lidocaine

Which of the following muscle relaxants is MOST likely to be associated with hypotension?
a. succinylcholine
b. pancuronium
c. vecuronium
d. d-tubocurarine

d-tubocurarine

Which of the following muscle relaxants has the SHORTEST duration of action in the horse?
a. tubocurarine
b. pancuronium
c. vecuronium
d. atacurium
e. succinylcholine

succinylcholine

Which of the following is PREFERRED as an antidote for nondepolarizing muscle relaxants overdose?
a. physostigmine
b. pyridostigmine
c. atropine
d. epinephrine
e. neostigmine

neostigmine

Which of the following NSAIDs used in dogs is a selective COX-2 inhibitor?
a. acetylsalicylic acid
b. phenylbutazone
c. meclofenamic acid
d. etodolac
e. flunixin

etodolac

The antithrombotic effect of aspirin is MAINLY due to
a. vasoconstriction
b. inhibition of prostacyclin production
c. competitive antagonism of vitamin K
d. antithrombin effect
e. inhibition of platelet aggregation

inhibition of platelet aggregation

An opioid drug mainly used in the symptomatic treatment of diarrhea is
a. buprenorphine
b. meperidine
c. loperamide
d. naltrexone
e. oxymorphone

loperamide

Which of the following opioid analgesics has minimal cardiovascular effects?
a. morphine
b. butorphanol
c. pentazocine
d. fentanyl
e. carfentanil

butorphanol

The drug of choice for maintenance therapy of epilepsy in dogs and cats is
a. diazepam
b. phenytoin
c. phenobarbital
d. primidone
e. potassium bromide

phenobarbital

Which of the following anticonvulsant drugs is LEAST likely to cause hepatotoxicity?
a. phenobarbital
b. primidone
c. phenytoin
d. potassium bromide
e. diazepam

potassium bromide

An anticonvulsant that is contraindicated in cats because of its neurotoxicity is

primidone

A weak basic drug is expected to
a. be readily absorbed from the stomach
b. have a low volume of distribution (Vd)
c. be rapidly excreted in urine in cattle
d. be excreted in milk in large quantities
e. cross the blood-brain barrier poorly

be excreted in milk in large quantities

Which of the following statements about idiosyncratic drug reactions is LEAST accurate?
a. they are genetically determined reactions
b. they are unpredictable
c. they are dose-dependent
d. they are usually caused by reactive drug metabolites (RDMs)
e. they usually involve the immune system

they are dose-dependent

You want to administer a drug orally to a dog weighing 10 kg for 2 weeks. How many tablets approximately do you need if each tablet contains 1/130gr. active ingredient and the dosage is 0.1 mg/lb?
a. 16 tablets
b. 31 tablets
c. 62 tablets
d. 124 tablets
e. 248 tablets

62 tablets

Which of the following agents can be used to enhance renal excretion of aspirin in cats?
a. atropine
b. ammonium chloride
c. epinephrine
d. sodium bicarbonate
e. methionine

sodium bicarbonate

You wish to administer a drug to a dog weighing 44 lb. How much approximately would you need if the dosage were 5mg/kg and the available solution is 2%?
a. 1 mL
b. 3 mL
c. 5 mL
d. 7 mL
e. 10 mL

5 mL

You want to make half a gallon of an antiseptic solution at a ratio of 1:20. How many fluid ounces would you need from a stock at a ratio of 1:5 to add to water to make half a gallon of 1:20?
a. 8.7 fluid ounces
b. 12.7 fluid ounces
c. 16.7 fluid ounces
d. 20.7 fluid ounces
3. 24.7 fluid ounces

16.7 fluid ounces

Which of the following anesthetics is MOST likely to cause catecholamine-induced cardiac arrhythmias?
a. halothane
b. isoflurane
c. mexthoxyflurane
d. desflurane
e. sevoflurane

halothane

Facilitated diffusion of drugs is a carrier-mediated transport that requires energy? T/F

False

Generally, drugs that bind extensively to plasma protein tend to have short half-lives. T/F

False

The rate of biotransformation of drugs by the hepatic microsomal enzyme system depends MAINLY on their lipid solubility. T/F

True

The MOST common biotransformation reaction is oxidation. T/F

True

A partial agonist is a drug that produces a maximal response by occupying a fraction of the receptors. T/F

False

If the intravenous infusion rate is doubled, the plasma concentration ultimately achieved at the steady-state is doubled. T/F

True

Which of the following is the MOST common cause of acute death in cholinesterase inhibitor toxicity?
a. hypertension
b. congestive heart failure
c. cardiac arrhythmias
d. respiratory failure
e. dehydration and shock

respiratory failure

Which of the following cholinesterase inhibitors may have less systemic adverse effects because of a shorter duration of action?
a. physostigmine
b. neostigmine
c. edrophonium
d. pyridostigmine
e. organophosphate

edrophonium

Which of the following muscle relaxants is MOST likely to cross the placental barrier?
a. d-tubocurarine
b. gauifenesin
c. pancuronium
d. atracurium
e. vecuronium

guaifenesin

Methylxanthine derivatives cause CNS stimulation mainly by
a. inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine
b. stimulating glutamic acid
c. blocking glycine receptors
d. blocking adenosine receptors
e. blocking GABA recpetors

blocking adenosine receptors

All of the following can be used for convulsive seizures in a dog poisoned with strychnine EXCEPT
a. diazpam
b. pentobarbital
c. acepromazine
d. xylazine
e. methocarbamol

acepromazine

All of the following are therapeutic uses of phenothiazine derivatives EXCEPT
a. antimotion sickness
b. antihistamines
c. preanesthetics
d. analgesics
e. antiemetics

analgesics

Which of the following CNS depressant drugs has clinically significant analgesia?
a. chloral hydrate
b. pentobarbital
c. medetomidine
d. acepromazine
e. diazepam

medetomidine

Duration of analgesia by xylazine is about

15-30 minutes

Which of the following drugs is LEAST likely to be used to treat toxicity of opioid analgesics?
a. naloxone
b. levallorphan
c. buprenorphine
d. diprenorphine
e. nalorphine

buprenorphine

Which of the following anticonvulsant drugs is MOST effective in the long-term treatment of heredtary siezures in dogs and cats an is relatively safe?
a. phenytoin
b. diazepam
c. potassium bromide
d. phenobarbital
e. primidone

phenobarbital

Which of the following is LEAST likely to precipitate seizures in a dog suffering from eipilepsy?
a. corticosteroids
b. fluoroquinolones
c. xylazine
d. metoclopramide
e. succinylcholine

succinylcholine

Which of the following anesthetic agents would you NOT use in an animal with a known history of kidney disease?
a. halothane
b. methoxyflurane
c. isoflurane
d. nitrous oxide
e. desflurane

methoxyflurane

All of the following drugs may increase epinephrine-induced cardiac arrhythmias during inhalation anesthesia EXCEPT
a. xylazine
b. thiopental
c. isoproterenol
d. ephedrine
e. droperidol-fentanyl combination

droperidol-fentanyl combination

Which of the following statements concerning thiamylal is LEAST accurate?
a. it may aggravate epinephrine-induced cardiac arrhythmias during inhalation anesthesia
b. redistribution from the brain to other tissues is responsible for termination of it CNS effects
c. it has a duration of action of about 10 minutes
d. it is used as a preanesthetic to shorten induction period
e. it increases intracranial pressure

it increases intracranial pressure

Anesthesia by dissociative anesthetics has the following characteristics EXCEPT
a. the eyes are open
b. no loss of consciousness
c. increased intracranial pressure
d. duration of anesthesia is 30-45 minutes
e. fast induction and recovery

fast induction and recovery

Propofol is preferred over thiobarbiturates as an injectable anesthetic because
a. it is a more potent analgesic
b. it has a longer duration of action
c. it is injected IM
d. it is a more potent muscle relaxant
e. it has less cardiovascular effects

it has less cardiovascular effects

A dog weighing 66 lb. is treated with a drug at a dosage of 10mg/kg b.i.d. for 2 weeks. How much of 7% solution approximately would be required?
a. 1 fl oz
b. 2 fl oz
c. 4 fl oz
d. 6 fl oz
e. 10 fl oz

4 fl oz

You want to make 2 quarts of an insecticide at 0.5%. How many fluid ounces would you need from a stock of the insecticide at 1:20 ratio to add to water to make a 0.5% solution?
a. 2.2 fl ounces
b. 3.3 fl ounces
c. 6.6 fl ounces
d. 8.8 fl ounces
e. 9.9 fl ounces

6.6 fl ounces

The dosage of thiamine supplement in the horse is 50 mg per 100 lbs. body weight. How much would you administer to a horse weighing 300 kg? Each mL contains Thiamine HCl (200mg), Disodium edetate (0.01% w/v), Benzyl Alcohol (1.5% v/v), water for injection (q.s.)
a. 0.7 mL
b. 1.7 mL
c. 2.7 mL
d. 3.7 mL
e. 4.7 mL

1.7 mL

Which of the following drugs is a selective α1-blocker?
a. Pirenzepine
b. Phenylpropanolamine
c. Prazosin
d. Bretylium
e. Atenolol

Prazosin

Which of the following drugs is used to stimulate appetite in small animals?
a. oxymorphone
b. chlorpromazine
c. oxazepam
d. droperidol
e. scopolamine

oxazepam

Which of the following opioids is the MOST potent analgesic?
a. fentanyl
b. morphine
c. oxymorphone
d. butorphanol
e. meperidine

fentanyl

(meperidne < morphine (1x) < butorphanol (5x) < oxymorphone (10x) < fentanyl (50-100x))

An inhalation anesthetic which has a blood/gas partition coefficient of 0.4 and oil/gas partition of 19 and is not metabolized by the body would be expected to have the following effects EXCEPT
a. greater precision of control over the maintenance of anesthesia
b. no hepatotoxicity
c. fast induction
d. relatively low MAC
e. fast recovery

relatively low MAC

Which of the following drugs is used in arthritis and acts by increasing synovial fluid viscosity and inhibits proteolytic enzymes and degradation of cartilage matrix?
a. ketoprofen
b. DMSO
c. orgtein
d. hyaluronic acid
e. polysulfated glycosaminoglycan

polysulfated glycosaminoglycan

Histamine causes bronchoconstriction by stimulating H1-receptors and albuterol causes bronchodilation by stimulating α2-adrenergic receptors, therefore, albuterol is probably
a. a chemical antagonist
b. a noncompetetive antagonist
c. an competitive antagonist
d. a physiological antagonist
e. a partial agonist

a physiological antagonist

Following systemic administration, aminoglycoside antibiotics have a high affinity to be sequestered by which of the following tissues?
a. skin
b. brain
c. fat
d. kidney
e. bone

kidney

Facilitated diffusion
a. is energy-dependent process
b. moves substances against concentration gradient
c. is slower than simple diffusion
d. involves penetration through pores
e. is a carrier-mediated transport

is a carrier-mediated transport

Dissolution is the rate-limiting step that determines the rate of absorption of a solid drug formulation given orally. T/F

True

The MOST common phase II metabolic reaction is conjugation to glucuronic acid. T/F

True

For most drugs the half-life depends on the dose of drug administered. T/F

False

A partial agonist is a drug that produces a maximal response by occupying a fraction or the receptors. T/F

False

Neostigmine can be used in all of the following EXCEPT
a. treatment of myasthenia gravis
b. diagnosis of myasthenia gravis
c. urinary tract obstruction
d. rumen atony
e. antagonizing nondepolarizing muscle relaxants (such as tubocurarine) toxicity

urinary tract obstruction

The following drugs may cause hyperglycemia EXCEPT
a. norepinephrine
b. epinephrine
c. propanolol
d. isoproterenol
e. terbutaline

propanolol

Which of the following is LEAST likely an adverse effect of atropine?
a. blurring of vision
b. dry mouth
c. urinary retention
d. colic in horses
e. hypotension

hypotension

Which of the following agents cause(s) convulsive seizures mainly due to inhibition of glycine in the spinal cord?
a. doxapram
b. physostimine
c. strychnine
d. amphetamine
e. xanthine derivatives

strychnine

Which of the following statements about theophylline is LEAST accurate?
a. it is available in rapid and slow release forms for oral administration
b. aminophylline is the soluble salt of theophylline given parenterally
c. bronchodilation is the most important therapeutic action
d. duration of action is several hours
e. its cardiac toxicity can be antagonized with atropine

its cardiac toxicity can be antagonized with atropine

A specific antagonist to benzodiazepines is

flumazenil

Atipamezole is
a. an α1-adrenoceptor agonist
b. an α2-adrenoceptor agonist
c. antimuscarinic
d. central α2-adrenergic agonist
e. central α2-adrenergic antagonist

central α2-adrenergic antagonist

Which of the following drugs does NOT aggravate epinephrine-induced cardiac arrythmias during inhalation anesthesia?
a. xylazine
b. thiamylal
c. succinylcholine
d. isoproterenol
e. acepromazine

acepromazine

The most important adverse effect due to parenteral administration of phenothiazines is
a. direct tachycardia
b. nephrotoxicity
c. histamine release
d. hypotension
e. diarrhea

hypotension

Xylazine produces all of the following effects EXCEPT
a. analgesia
b. muscle relaxation
c. emesis
d. bradycardia
e. hypoglycemia

hypoglycemia

In preanesthetic medication, glycopyrrolate is preferred to atropine because it
a. decreases the MAC of the inhalation anesthetic
b.causes stronger block of reflex bradycardia
c. possesses analgesic properties
d. does not cross the placenta
e. causes greater inhibition of salivary and bronchial secretions

causes greater inhibition of salivary and bronchial secretions

An anticonvulsant drug that is safer to use to prevent seizures in epileptic dogs with liver disease is
a. phenobarbital
b. clorazepate
c. primidone
d. phenytoin
e. potassium bromide

potassium bromide

Which of the following drugs is LEAST likely to precipitate seizures in an epileptic dogs?
a. morphine
b. corticosteroids
c. metoclopramide
d. glycopyrrolate
e. fluoroquinolones

glycopyrrolate

Which of the following antitussive drugs is LEAST likely to cause sedation?
a. codeine
b. butorphanol
c. hydrocodone
d. dextromethorphan
e. noscapine

dextromethorphan

Prazosin acts as an

α1-adrenergic antagonist

The ratio of the rate of elimination of a drug to its concentration in plasma is called

clearance

If the dosage of atropine sulfate, as an antidote for organophosphate poisoning is 0.5 mg/kg, how many mL of 2.5% solution is required to treat an 1100-pound cow?
a. 5 mL
b. 10 mL
c. 15 mL
d. 20 mL
e. 25 mL

10 mL

You want to use dexpanthenol injection for intestinal atony in a dog weighing 10 kg at a dosage of 25 mg per 5 lbs body weight intramuscularly. How much approximately would you need? Each mL contains Dexpanthenol (3.85 gr), Chlorobutanol (0.5%), water (q.s.)
a. 0.1 mL
b. 0.2 mL
c. 0.4 mL
d. 0.8 mL
e. 1.2 mL

0.4 mL

An inhalation anesthetic with a low oil/gas partition coeffeicient

has a relatively high MAC

Assuming that most drugs have small molecular size, diffusion of free drugs across most capillaries is MAINLY limited by lipid solubility. T/F

False

A drug's volume of distribution (Vd) is a good indication of the ability of the drug to diffuse across membranes. T/F

True

If the IV infusion rate is doubled, the time needed to achieve a steady-state plasma concentration is doubled. T/F

False

Methlyxanthines cause CNS stimulation by
a. interfering with reuptake of norepinephrine
b. blocking presynaptic α-adrenergic receptors
c. blocking glycine receptors
d. blocking adenosine receptors
e. stimulating release of glutamate

blocking adenosine receptors

Which of the following is NOT a therapeutic use of barbiturates?
a. sedatives
b. preanesthetics
c. euthanetics
d. anticonvulsants
e. analgesics

analgesics

Which of the following is LEAST likely a therapeutic use of phenothiazine derivatives
a. preanesthetic
b. chemical restraint
c. bronchial asthma
d. motion sickness
e. antiemetic

bronchial asthma

All of the following are therapeutic uses of xylazine EXCEPT
a. preanesthetic
b. combined with ketamine as anesthetic in dogs and cats
c. muscle relaxant
d. emetic
e. antiepileptic

antiepileptic

Atipamezole acts as

an α2-antagonist

Buprenorphine is used in dogs and cats as

an analgesic

Which of the following injectable anesthetics is CONTRAINDICATED in head injuries and cerebral hemorrhage?
a. thiamylal
b. thiopental
c. propofol
d. ketamine
e. etomidate

ketamine

A quaternary ammonium compound is expected to
a. be rapidly absorbed following oral administration
b. have a relatively large volume of distribution
c. act intracellularly
d. be rapidly excreted in milk
e. be excreted in urine relatively unchanged

be excreted in urine relatively unchanged

You wish to prepare one gallon of insecticide at a concentration of 0.2%. How much approximately would you need from a stock at a 1:20 ratio?
a. 1.3 fl oz
b. 3.3 fl oz
c. 5.3 fl oz
d. 7.3 fl oz
e. 9.3 fl oz

5.3 fl oz

Nonselective β-adrenergic blockers may be associated with the following adverse effects EXCEPT
a. bradycardia
b. sedation
c. bronchoconstriction is asthmatic patients
d. AV-block
e. hypertension

hypertension

The drug of choice for treatment of drug-induced sinus bradycardia is
a. lidocaine
b. dopamine
c. digitalis
d. atropine
e. epinephrine

atropine

Which of the following muscle relaxants is MOST likely to be associated with hypotension?
a. succinylcholine
b. pancuronium
c. vecuronium
d. d-tubocurarine

d-tubocurarine

Prescription orders for schedule II drugs must be limited to a 14-day supply and cannot be refilled. T/F

False

Which of the following is LEAST likely a therapeutic use for anticholinergic drugs?
a. antispasmodic in colic
b. cycloplegic in opthamology
c. antimotion sickness
d. antihypertensives
e. antidote for organophosphate poisoning

antihypertensives

What is the drug of choice in the immediate treatment of anaphylactic shock?

epinephrine

Which of the following muscle relaxants can increase intraocular pressure?
a. tubocurarine
b. succinylcholine
c. pancuronium
d. vecuronium
e. atracurium

succinylcholine

The MOST common adverse effect due to injection of phenothiazine derivatives is

hypotension

Opioid analgesics have the following uses EXCEPT
a. preanesthetics
b. antitussives
c. antiemetics
d. antidiarrheals
e. epidural analgesics

antiemetics

All of the following drugs are clinically used as opioid antagonists EXCEPT
a. naloxone
b. buprenorphine
c. natrexone
d. diprenorphine
e. nalorphine

buprenorphine

Which of the following drugs is MOST likely to be used to limit or prevent NSAID-induced gastrointestinal tract mucosal inury?
a. atropine
b. glycopyrrolate
c. chlorpromazine
d. misoprostol
e. acetylcysteine

misoprostol

Treatment of organophosphate poisoning includes all of the following EXCEPT
a. atropine
b. 2-PAM
c. succinylcholine
d. activated charcoal
e. artificial respiration

succinylcholine

Which of the following mydriatic anticholinergic drugs has the SHORTEST duration of action?
a. atropine
b. cyclopentolate
c. scopolamine
d. tropicamide
e. homatropine

tropicamide

Phenothiazine derivatives cause CNS depression mainly by

blocking dopamine excitatory receptors

You want to administer triamcinolone acetonide (Cortalone tablets) orally to a cat weighing 10 lbs for 2 weeks. How many tablets do you need if the daily dosage is 0.1 mg/lb and each tablet contains 1/130 gr. triacinolone acetonide?
a. 7 tablets
b. 14 tablets
c. 28 tablets
d. 42 tablets
e. 56 tablets

28 tablets

You wish to prepare chlorhexidine disinfectant solution at 0.015%. How much approximately do you need from chlorhexidine disinfectant solution 2% to add it to water to make 1 gallon of 0.015% chlorhexidine solution?
a. 0.25 fl oz
b. 0.5 fl oz
c. 1 fl oz
d. 2 fl oz
e. 4 fl oz

1 fl oz

Drug conjugates are usually water soluble and inactive. T/F

True

Which of the following is LEAST likely a therapeutic use of flunixin in the horse?
a. analgesic for musculoskeletal pain
b. antipyretic
c. analgesic for colic
d. endotoxic and septic shock
e. bronchodilator for obstructive airway disease

bronchodilator for obstructive airway disease

At therapeutic doses, which of the following CNS depressants are LEAST likely to cause cardiovascular and respiratory depression?
a. barbiturates
b. opioid analgesics
c. phenothiazines
d. benzodiazepines
e. butyrophenones

benzodiazepines

Which of the following drugs is LEAST likely to be used to treat toxicity of opioid analgesics?
a. naloxone
b. levallorphan
c. buprenorphine
d. diprenorphine
e. nalorphine

buprenorphine

Anesthesia by dissociative anesthetics is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT
a. rapid induction and slow recovery
b. duration of anesthesia about 20-45 min
c. catalepsy
d. CNS stimulation
e. complete loss of reflexes

complete loss of reflexes

You want to make 2 quarts of an insecticide at 0.5%. How many fl oz would you need from a stock of the insecticide at 1:20 ratio to add to water to make 0.5% insecticide solution?
a. 2.2 fl oz
b. 3.3 fl oz
c. 6.6 fl oz
d. 8.8 fl oz
e. 9.9 fl oz

6.6 fl oz

You wish to administer amoxicillin to a dog weighing 10 kg at a dose of 5 mg/lb of body weight orally twice daily for 7 days. How much approximately would you need if 15 mL bottle of amoxicillin suspension contains 0.75 g amoxicillin as trihydrate?
a. 0.25 fl oz
b. 0.5 fl oz
c. 1.0 fl oz
d. 2.0 fl oz
e. 4.o fl oz

1.0 fl oz

A highly ionized drug can achieve high concentrations in which of the following?
a. brain
b. fetus
c. intracellular
d. interstitial fluid
e. milk

interstitial fluid

All of the following are therapeutic uses of β-blockers EXCEPT
a. hypertension
b. hyperthyroidism
c. ventricular tachyarrhythmias
d. glaucoma
e. urinary incontinence

urinary incontinence

All of the following statements about codeine are true EXCEPT
a. it acts as an opioid agonist
b. it is more potent analgesic than morphine
c. it is used as an oral antitussive and analgesic in dogs
d. it may cause histamine release
e. it has a sedative effect

it is more potent than morphine

Adverse effects of phenothiazine derivatives include all of the following EXCEPT
a. bradycardia
b. hypotension
c. penile paralysis of the horse
d. sedation
e. GI hypermotility

GI hypermotility

Hyperprolactinemia is an adverse effect of

phenothiazines

A dog showing convulsive seizures following ingestion of a toxic amount of chocolate is BEST treated with
a. acepromazine
b. diazepam
c. ketamine
d. phenobarbital
e. pancuronium

phenobarbital

All of the following statements about pharmacokinetics of barbiturates are true EXCEPT
a. they are administered IV and orally
b. duration of action depends on redistribution and eliminiation
c. they are metabolized by hydroxylation in the liver
d. they are enzyme inducers
e. acidification of urine enhances renal excretion

acidification of urine enhances renal excretion

All of the following statements about succinylcholine are true EXCEPT
a. its actions on skeletal muscle are similar to the actions of ACh
b. it has a short duration of action
c. it does not cross the blood-brain barrier
d. it potentiates the actions of catecholamines on the heart during inhalation anesthesia
e. its toxicity can be antagonized with neostigmine

its toxicity can be antagonized with neostigmine

All of the following are useful effects of theophylline in the treatment of respiratory disease EXCEPT
a. bronchodilation
b. anti-inflammatory
c. inhibition of the cough center
d. stimulating mucociliary clearance
e. reducing pulmonary edema

inhibition of the cough center

All of the following statements about xylazine are true EXCEPT
a. it has sedative, analgesic, and muscle relaxant effects
b. it may induce vomiting in cats and dogs
c. as a preanesthetic, it may protect against epinephrine-induced cardiac arrhythmias
d. it depresses the CNS by activating α2-adrenergic receptors
e. it is antagonized by yohimbine

as a preanesthetic, it may protect against epinephrine-induced cardiac arrhythmias

All of the following statements about primidone are true EXCEPT
a. it is not a controlled drug
b. it is metabolized to phenobarbital and other metabolites
c. it is an enzyme inducer
d. it is used in maintenance therapy of epilepsy in dogs and cats
e. chronic use may cause hepatotoxicity

it is used in maintenance therapy of epilepsy in dogs and cats

Which of the following drugs provides mild analgesia without sedation?
a. xylazine
b. morphine
c. flunixin meglumine
d. detomidine
e. butorphanol

flunixin meglumine

All of the following are therapeutic uses of epinephrine EXCEPT
a. acute anaphylactic shock
b. bronchospasm
c. cardiac arrest
d. open-angle glaucoma
e. hemorrhagic shock

hemorrhagic shock

α2-selective agonists have all of the following effects EXCEPT
a. bronchodilation
b. hyperkalemia
c. tachycardia at large doses
d. skeletal muscle tremors
e. uterine relaxation

hyperkalemia

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