A&P FINAL studyguide
About this set
Created by:
ashleyyoungcourt on August 9, 2011
Subjects:
anatomy, physiology, biology, 2010
Classes:
BSC 2085 - Anatomy and Physiology
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443 terms
Terms | Definitions |
|---|---|
 Which of the following can contribute to receptor specificity | Tissue location of the receptor cell |
| Thermoreceptors | Scattered immediately beneath the surface of the skin |
| A receptor that contains many mechanically gated ion channels would function best as a | Tactile Receptor |
| Receptors that monitor the position of joints belong to the category called | Proprioceptors |
| Mechanoreceptors that respond to changes in blood pressure are called | Baroreceptors |
| Tactile receptors composed of capsules that surround a core of collagen fibers intertwined with dendrites are called | Ruffini Corpuscles |
| Chemoreceptors are located in all of the following, except | At the level of the Larynx |
| Mechanoreceptors might detect which of the following sensations | Muscle length, Pressure, Vibration, Touch |
| Gustatory receptors are sensitive to dissolved chemicals but insensitive to light. This is due to | Receptor Specifity |
| Pain is to ________ as cold is to ________. | Nociceptors; Thermoceptors; |
| . ________ are receptors in the aorta that monitor the blood pressure | Baroreceptors |
| . The ________ division of the autonomic nervous system is said to function during "rest and digest" | Parasympathetic |
| Sweat glands contain ________ receptors | Cholinergic |
| Nicotinic receptors | Use acetylcholine as the neurotransmitter |
| Muscarinic receptors | Slow G protein, coupled responses, parasympathetic |
| Parasympathetic stimulation | Increase gastric mobility |
| Dual innervation refers to an organ receiving | An organ recieving both sympatheic and parasympathetic nerves |
| Which of the following is an example of a visceral reflex | Pupillary reflex, Defacation reflex, Vomitting, Ejaculation |
| Conversion of a short-term memory to a long-term memory is called | Memory consolidation |
| The conscious state is maintained by the | Reticular Activating System |
| An age-related decline in mental function characterized by difficulties with spatial orientation, memory, language, and personality is called | Senile Dementia |
| The brain waves produced by normal adults while resting with their eyes closed are ________ waves | Alpha |
| In deep sleep | Delta waves, breathing slows down, body temp decreases, no eye movement, bed wett, sleep walking, night tremors |
| Alzheimer disease is characterized by all of the following, except that it | Has a clear genetic basis |
| The parasympathetic nervous system is especially active during which physiological state(s) | Trauma |
| . The sympathetic division of the ANS is also known as which of the following | Thorocolumnar division |
| Sympathetic nerves | Regulate body temperature |
| During sympathetic activation, ________ occurs | Elevated BP, HR, blood glucose, & sweating |
| Parasympathetic functions include all of the following, except | Decreased HR |
| Damage to the ventral roots of the first five thoracic spinal nerves on the right side of the body would interfere with the ability to | Dilate the right pupil |
| Injury to the cervical sympathetic ganglia would affect the function of the | ... |
| Drugs that have effects similar to those of sympathetic activation are called sympathomimetic drugs. Which of the following would you not expect to observe in a person who has taken a sympathomimetic drug | Decreased BP |
| Most sympathetic effector junctions release norepinephrine but a significant number release acetylcholine instead. Which of these is an example of an organ of the cholinergic type | ... |
| A certain drug decreases heart rate by blocking a receptor on cardiac pacemaker cells. This drug probably binds to ________ receptors | ... |
| Which of the following would lead to increased heart rate | Increased sympathetic input, decreased parasympathetic input |
| Drugs known as beta-blockers may be useful for treating | High BP |
| Drugs that stimulate alpha receptors, causing constriction of peripheral vessels, are | Sympathomimetric |
| Drugs that block nicotinic receptors would be | Autonomic blocking agents |
| Parasympathetic blocking agents can be useful in treating | Urinary Inconsistence |
| A doctor places drops in the eyes to dilate the pupils for an examination. The type of drug that is used is | Adrengic activating drug, muscannic blocking drug, sympathetic drug |
| As the result of an accident, the white rami of spinal nerves T1 and T2 on the left side of Brad's body are severed. What organ(s) would you expect might be affected by this injury | Left pupil & heart |
| A person is confronted by a dangerous dog. His heart begins to race and beat strongly, his pupils dilate, and his hairs stand up. These signs are the result of | Increased levels of epinepherine, increased activity of autonomic centers, sympathetic activation |
| Mary accidentally ate poison mushrooms that contain muscarine. What symptoms would you expect to observe | Salivation, sweating, very low HR, diarrhea |
| Hallucinogenic drugs, such as LSD, function by | Stimulating serotonin receptors |
| The inherited brain disorder Huntington disease is caused by the destruction of basal nuclei that use different neurotransmitters. One neurotransmitter is ________ and the other is ________. | Acetylcholine; Serotonin; |
| The regulation of awake-asleep cycles appears to involve an interplay between brain stem nuclei that use different neurotransmitters. The one that favors alertness is ________ and the other promoting deep sleep is ________. | Nonrepinepherine & serotonin |
| . Olfactory glands | Coat the olfactory epithelium with a pigmented mucus |
| The mucus that covers the olfactory epithelium does all of the following, except that it | Dissolves unwanted chemicals and washes them away |
| Before an olfactory receptor can detect an odorant, it has to | ... |
| All of the following are true of olfactory pathways, except | Decussate at the level of mamillary bodys |
| Some neural tissues retain stem cells and thus the capacity to divide and replace lost neurons. Which of these special senses can replace its damaged neural receptors | ... |
| Gustatory receptors are located | On the surface of the tongue |
| The function of gustatory receptors parallels that of | Olfactory receptors |
| Olfactory receptors send axons through the cribriform plate. They synapse on neurons in the | Olfactory bulb |
| The largest numbers of taste buds in adults are associated with the | Circumvallate Pappillae |
| Taste buds are monitored by cranial nerves | VII, IX, X |
| All of the following are true of the fibrous tunic of the eye, except that it | Contains pain receptors |
| The vitreous body | Helps stabelize eye & gives support to the retina |
| The ________ covers most of the exposed surface of the eye | Bulbar (ocular) conjunctiva |
| The transparent portion of the fibrous tunic is the | Cornea |
| The part of the eye that determines eye color is the | Iris |
| The opening in the iris through which light passes is the | Pupil |
| The space between the cornea and the iris is the | Anterior Chamber |
| The space between the iris and ciliary body and the lens is the | Anterior chamber (fluid filled space) |
| What structure changes the shape of the lens for far and near vision | INS |
| The neural tunic | includes a pigment layer & an inner retina that lines the viterous body |
| The human lens focuses light on the photoreceptor cells by | changing shape |
| The shape of the lens is controlled by the | Vascular tunic |
| In the human eye, most refraction occurs when light passes through the | Cornea |
| The ciliary muscle contracts to | Adjust shape of the lens for nerve vision |
| There are three different types of cones, each one sensitive to different light energies. These cones are designated | red/green; blue/yellow; black/white; |
| An area of the retina that contains only cones and is the site of sharpest vision is the | Fovea |
| The first step in the process of photoreception is | Ospin Activation |
| Visual pigments are derivatives of the compound | Rhodopsin |
| A pigment synthesized from vitamin A is | Visual pigments |
| The external ear ends at the | Tympanic membrane |
| The auditory ossicles connect the | Tympanic membrane to the oval window |
| The vibrations received by the tympanic membrane are transferred to the oval window by the | Auditory ossicles |
| The senses of equilibrium and hearing are provided by receptors of the | Inner ear |
| . The structure that overlies the organ of Corti is the | Tectonal membrane |
| The structure that supports the organ of Corti is the | Flexible membrane in the cochlea |
| Gravity and linear acceleration are sensed in the | Utricle & Saccule |
| The sensory receptors of the semicircular canals are located in the | Ampullae |
| . Movement of the endolymph in the semicircular canals | Capolcis |
| The hair cells of the utricle and saccule are clustered in | Maculae & statoconia |
| Perception of gravity and linear acceleration depends on | ... |
| Sound waves are converted into mechanical movements by the | Auditory Ossicles |
| The frequency of a perceived sound depends on | Which part of the cochlear duct is stimulated |
| Taste receptors are distributed in which of the following places | Portions of the larynx, pharnyx, & surface of the tongue |
| Taste buds are monitored by which cranial nerve(s) | Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX) & facial nerve (VII) |
| A patient who experienced head trauma has lost the ability to taste spicy food. You should expect damage to cranial nerve ________. | Glossopharyngeal |
| Olfactory information is first received by which part of the brain | Cerebrum |
| A ray of light entering the eye will encounter these structures in which order | conjunctiva, cornea, aqueous, tumor lens, vetreous body, retina, choroid |
| A sty ________ | results from blocked glands |
| Which of the following is a function of tears | Provide oxygen, wash away debris, lubricate eye, nourish the cornea and conjuctiva |
| The ________ ear collects sounds waves and transmits them to the ________ ear, which contains auditory ossicles | Outer; Middle; |
| The external acoustic meatus ends at | Tympanic membrane |
| The ________ conveys information about head position with respect to gravity | Vestibular system |
| The cornea is part of the | outer fibrous part of the eye |
| The gelatinous material that gives the eyeball its basic shape is the | Vitreous humur |
| If your vision is 20/15, this means that you can | Stand 20ft away from an object and see it as a person stand 15 ft away from the object can. |
| A sound with a frequency of 12,000 hertz would | be high pitched |
| A sudden rise of room brightness would cause | rapid dialation of pupils |
| Why do things look blurry underwater without dive goggles or mask | light is refracted different under water |
| In which of the following cases would the focal distance be greater | ... |
| When a rod is stimulated by light | ... |
| Stimulation of nociceptive receptors within the trigeminal nerve might produce a perception of | Tooth ache; Motor commands the jaw to deliver pain in the face |
| Which of the following is not a function of the nervous system | Direct long term functions such as growth |
| The ________ nervous system is composed of the brain and spinal cord | Central |
| Functions of astrocytes include all of the following, except | Functioning in action potential transmision |
| Small, wandering cells that engulf cell debris and pathogens in the CNS are called | Microglia |
| Glial cells that surround the neurons in ganglia are | Satellite cells |
| Which of the following is not a recognized structural classification for neurons | Pseudopolar |
| Axons terminate in a series of fine extensions known as | Terminal aborization |
| The site of intercellular communication between neurons is the | Synapse |
| The rabies virus travels to the CNS via | Retrograte axoplasmic transport |
| Sensory neurons of the PNS are | Unipolar sensory neurons |
| . Ion channels that are always open are called ________ channels | leakage |
| The following are the main steps in the generation of an action potential. 1. Sodium channels are inactivated. 2. Voltage-gated potassium channels open and potassium moves out of the cell, initiating repolarization. 3. Sodium channels regain their normal properties. 4. A graded depolarization brings an area of an excitable membrane to threshold. 5. A temporary hyperpolarization occurs. 6. Sodium channel activation occurs. 7. Sodium ions enter the cell and depolarization occurs. The proper sequence of these events is | 4,6,7,1,2,3,5 |
| Which type of synapse is most common in the nervous system | chemical |
| The ion that triggers the release of acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft is | Calcium |
| The following are the steps involved in transmission at a cholinergic synapse. The correct sequence for these events is | 4,2,6,7,1,8,3,5 |
| If the chemically gated sodium channels in the postsynaptic membrane were completely blocked | Synaptic transmission would fail |
| IPSPs (inhibitory postsynaptic potentials) | A grate hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane |
| Summation that results from the cumulative effect of multiple synapses at multiple places on the neuron is designated | Spatial summation |
| The efferent division of the peripheral nervous system innervates | A muscle of gland |
| Integral membrane proteins that connect electrical synapses are called | Connexons |
| The same ________ can have different effects depending on the properties of the ________. | Neurotransmitter; receptor; |
| Deteriorating changes in the distal segment of an axon as a result of a break between it and the soma is called ________ degeneration | Wallerion |
| The cytoskeleton of the perikaryon contains which of the following | Neurofilaments, neurotubules, neurofibrils |
| The axoplasm of the axon contains which of the following | Neurofibrils, neurotubules, small vessicles, lysosomes, mitochondria |
| ________ neurons are short, with a cell body between dendrite and axon, and occur in special sense organs | Bipolar |
| . ________ neurons are the most common class in the CNS | multipolar |
| ________ account for roughly half of the volume of the nervous system | Neuroglia |
| Ion channels that are always open are known as | Leakage channels |
| . ________ open or close in response to binding specific molecules | Chemically gated channels |
| Any stimulus that opens ________ ion channel will produce a graded potential | Gated |
| Which of the following statements about the action potential is false | The rapid depolarization phase is caused by the entry of potassium ions |
| . For which of the following functions do active neurons require a supply of ATP | Active neurons |
| When pressure is applied to neural tissue, all these effects are possible, except | Glial calls degenerate |
| In the peripheral nervous system, Schwann cells participate in the repair of damaged nerves by | Wallerion Degeneration |
| Most CNS neurons lack centrioles. This observation explains | Neurons loose their centrioles during differentiation and they become incapable of cell division |
| . Each of the following is an example of a neuroeffector junction, except the junction between a neuron and a(n) | ... |
| Extensive damage to oligodendrocytes in the CNS could result in | ... |
| Damage to ependymal cells would most likely affect the | Formation of the cerebralspinal fluid |
| . If the permeability of a resting axon to sodium ion increases | Inward movement of sodium will increase |
| Graded potentials | ... |
| If the potassium permeability of a resting neuron increases above the resting permeability, what effect will this have on the transmembrane potential | Inside of the membrane will become more negative |
| How would the absolute refractory period be affected if voltage-regulated sodium channels failed to inactivate | Larger than normal |
| Presynaptic facilitation by serotonin is caused by | calcium channels in the presynaptic membrane remaining open longer |
| After a stroke, what type of glial cell accumulates within the affected brain region | Microglia |
| Opioids relieve pain by blocking the release of | Substance D |
| . Enlargements of the spinal cord occur | In the spinal sements that control limbs |
| The ________ is a strand of fibrous tissue that provides longitudinal support as a component of the coccygeal ligament | Filum terminate |
| The spinal cord continues to elongate until about age | 4 |
| Blood vessels that supply the spinal cord run along the surface of the | Pia mater |
| The outward projections from the central gray matter of the spinal cord are called | ... |
| Axons crossing from one side of the spinal cord to the other within the gray matter are found in the | ... |
| The outermost connective-tissue covering of nerves is the | Epineurium |
| The dorsal root of a spinal nerve contains | Sensory neurons (afferent) |
| The ventral root of a spinal nerve contains | Motor neurons (efferent) |
| Spinal nerves are | Both sensory and motor |
| The preganglionic fibers that connect a spinal nerve with an autonomic ganglion in the thoracic and lumbar region of the spinal cord form the | ... |
| Postganglionic fibers of the autonomic nervous system that innervate internal organs do not rejoin the spinal nerve but form | Autonomic nerves |
| Which of the following associations is incorrect | ... |
| The ________ of each spinal nerve innervates the skin and muscles of the back | ... |
| The complex, interwoven network formed by contributions from the ventral rami of neighboring spinal nerves is termed a | plexus |
| In which plexus does the ulnar nerve arise | Brachial |
| Reflexes based on synapses formed during development are ________ reflexes | Innate |
| The flexor reflex | moves a limb away from a painful stimulus |
| The ________ reflex complements the flexor reflex by activating contralateral muscles | Crossed extensor |
| Spinal interneurons inhibit antagonist motor neurons in a process called | ... |
| The tough, fibrous, outermost covering of the spinal cord is the | Dura mater |
| The white matter of the spinal cord is mainly | Myelinated axons |
| The layer of connective tissue that surrounds a fascicle within a peripheral nerve is the | Endoneurium |
| In the condition ________, a virus infects dorsal root ganglia, causing a painful rash whose distribution corresponds to that of the affected sensory nerves as seen in their dermatomes | Shingles |
| . Each peripheral nerve provides ________ innervation to peripheral structures | Sensory & motor |
| The ventral rami form four major plexuses, including all of the following, except the ________ plexus | Nuchal |
| If a person has a crush injury to the C3-C5 spinal segments, you would expect that he | Might be unable to breathe on his own |
| As the ________ nerve approaches the knee, it divides into two branches, the fibular nerve and the tibial nerve | ... |
| The obturator nerve is distributed to the | ... |
| Cerebrospinal fluid flows within the | ... |
| The epidural space contains | Connective tissue & blood vessels |
| The layer of the meninges in direct contact with the spinal cord is the | Pia mater |
| The posterior horns of the spinal cord contain mainly | ... |
| If the dorsal root of a spinal nerve is severed | ... |
| Samples of CSF for diagnostic purposes are normally obtained by placing the tip of a needle in the | ... |
| . In which of the following would the delay between stimulus and response be greater | ... |
| In an adult, the conus medullaris is found at about | ... |
| The tracts that connect the cerebellum to the brain stem are located in the | pons |
| Autonomic centers that control blood pressure, heart rate, and digestion are located in the | ... |
| A neural cortex is found on the surface of the | ... |
| The thin partition that separates the first and second ventricles is the | ... |
| Each lateral ventricle communicates with the third ventricle through a | ... |
| The dural sinuses are located in the | dural folds |
| The dural fold that projects into the longitudinal fissure between cerebral hemispheres is called the | Falx cerebri |
| Absorption at the arachnoid granulations returns CSF to the | Venous circulation |
| The pons contains | sensory and motor nuclei for cranial nerve, nuclei for breathing tracts that link the cerebellum with the brain stem |
| The regions of the mesencephalon that issue subconscious motor commands that affect upper limb position and background muscle tone are the | Red nucleus |
| Which of the following is a property of the mamillary bodies | All of the above |
| Stimulation of the reticular formation results in | Increased conciousness |
| Which of the following is (are) true of the epithalamus | contains the choroid plexus & pineal gland, & forms the roof of the diencephalon |
| The ventral nuclei of the thalamus | recieve input from basal ganglia, cerebellum, recieve general sensory input |
| The mamillary bodies of the hypothalamus | Control feeding reflexes |
| Which of the following is not a property of the limbic system | Functions in maintaining homeostasis in cold water |
| A tract of white matter that connects the hippocampus with the hypothalamus is the | Fornix |
| Divisions of the cerebral hemispheres that are named after the overlying skull bones are | Lobes |
| The cerebral area posterior to the central sulcus is the | Parietal lobe |
| The region of the cerebral cortex that is medial and deep to the temporal lobe is the | ... |
| The primary motor cortex is the surface of the | Precerebra |
| The auditory cortex is located in the | Temporal lobe |
| The corpus callosum is composed of | Comm fibers |
| The internal capsule of the cerebrum is composed of | Projection fibers |
| The putamen and globus pallidus are frequently considered to be subdivisions of the | Lentiform nucleus |
| Higher-order functions | Involve complex interactions among areas of the cortex, can be adjusted overtime based on experience, combine both concious and unconcious information processing |
| The basal nuclei | provide general pattern and rythm for movements such as walking |
| Male brains are typically ________ compared to female brains | Larger |
| . The medulla oblongata regulates | BP & respiration |
| . The ________ filters and relays sensory information to cerebral cortex | thalamus |
| Specialized ________ cells form the secretory component of the choroid plexus | Ependymal |
| Which of the following help to protect the brain | All of the above |
| Ependymal cells work to | secrete CSF in the ventricles, remove waste products from CSF, surround the capillaries of the choroid process |
| The choroid plexus produces CSF at a rate of about | 500 ml/day |
| As CSF circulates, ________ between it and the interstitial fluid of the CNS is unrestricted between and across the ependyma | diffusion |
| The respiratory rhythmicity center is located in | the cerebellum |
| . ________ centers receive information from many association areas and direct extremely complex motor activities such as speech | Integrative |
| You suspect your friend has damage to cranial nerve I when he is unable to | Smell his food |
| ________ is a condition resulting from an inflammation of a facial nerve | Bell palsy |
| The control of heart rate and blood pressure is based in the | Medulla Oblongata |
| A person with a damaged visual association area may be | able to see letters quite clearly but unable to recognize or interpret them |
| Sensory innervation of the lower teeth and gums is by the ________ nerve | Mandibular branch of the trigeminal |
| Difficulty in swallowing may be a sign of damage to which cranial nerve(s) | Vagus & Glossopharyngeal |
| The tympanic reflex | Restrict movement of the auditory ossicles |
| Excitation of neurons in the basal nuclei would lead to | Increased muscle tone |
| Tic douloureux is | All of the above |
| . Damage to the superior colliculi would interfere with the reflex ability to | React to bright light |
| . Which of the following symptoms would you associate with damage to the spinal accessory nerve | Weakness of the sternocleidomastoid muscle |
| After suffering a stroke, Mary finds that she cannot move her right arm. This would suggest that the stroke damage is in the area of the ________ lobe | Left frontal |
| At the optic chiasm | Axons from the nasal halves of each retina cross |
| Joe begins to experience mood swings and disturbed thirst and hunger. Imaging studies indicate that a brain tumor is the likely cause of these disorders. In what part of the brain is the tumor most likely located | hypothalamus |
| After suffering a blow to the back of the head, Phil loses his vision. The blow probably caused damage to the | Occipital lobe |
| The general interpretive area | Allow us to interpret what is read or heard |
| Difficulties in estimating temporal relationships between events may stem from damage to | Prefrontal cortex |
| Examination of a tissue sample from the central nervous system reveals many darkly pigmented cells. This tissue probably came from the | Substantia Nigra |
| Increased production and release of acetylcholine by the neurons of the cerebral nuclei would result in | Spastic, uncontrollable muscle contractions |
| Bob is struck on the left side of the head and is knocked unconscious. When he recovers consciousness, he can hear individual words but cannot understand the meaning of phrases or sentences. This implies damage to his | General interpretive area |
| Jane suffers from chronic seizures and in order to control the problem undergoes surgery in which the fibers of the corpus callosum are cut. As a result of this surgery she would likely be unable to | Verbally identify an object placed in the left hand |
| Jean needs to have a tooth in her mandible filled. Her dentist injects a local anesthetic to block pain afferents in one of her cranial nerves. What cranial nerve does the dentist numb | Trigciminal |
| Which of the following is a recognized function of skeletal muscle | All of the above |
| The dense layer of connective tissue that surrounds an entire skeletal muscle is the | Epimyesium |
| The delicate connective tissue that surrounds the skeletal muscle fibers and ties adjacent muscle fibers together is the | Endomysium |
| Muscle fibers differ from "typical cells" in that muscle fibers | have many nuclei |
| Skeletal muscle fibers are formed from embryonic cells called | Myoblasts |
| Which of the following best describes the term sarcomere | Repeating unit of striated myofibrils |
| Which of the following best describes the term sarcoplasmic reticulum | Storage & release site for calcium ions |
| The repeating unit of a skeletal muscle fiber is the | Sacrolemma |
| Interactions between actin and myosin filaments of the sarcomere are responsible for | Muscle contraction |
| In a sarcomere, thick filaments are linked laterally by proteins of the | M line |
| Which of the following best describes the term Z line | Thin filaments are anchored here |
| The region of the sarcomere that always contains thin filaments is the | I band |
| . Which of the following best describes the term titin | Protein that accounts for elasticity or resting muscle |
| At rest, the tropomyosin molecule is held in place by | Troponin molecules |
| Receptors for acetylcholine are located on the | Motor end plate |
| The action potential is conducted into a skeletal muscle fiber by | Transverse tubules |
| Active sites on the actin become available for binding after | Calcium binds to troponin |
| In response to action potentials arriving along the transverse tubules, the sarcoplasmic reticulum releases | calcium ions |
| Which of the following acts as an ATPase during the contraction cycle of muscle | Troponin molecules |
| The most important factor in decreasing the intracellular concentration of calcium ion after contraction is | Active transport of calcium into the sacroplasmic reticulum |
| Which of the following become connected by myosin cross-bridges during muscle contraction | Thin filaments & thick filaments |
| Calcium ions are binding to troponin during the ________ of a muscle twitch | Latent period & contraction period |
| When a muscle is stimulated repeatedly at a high rate, the amount of tension gradually increases to a steady maximum tension. This is called | Complete tetanus |
| A muscle producing tension that peaks and falls at intermediate stimulus rates is said to be in | Incomplete tetanus |
| If a second stimulus arrives before the relaxation phase has ended, a second, more powerful contraction occurs. This is called | Wave summation |
| A single motor neuron together with all the muscle fibers it innervates is called | Motor unit |
| The type of contraction in which the muscle fibers do not shorten is called | Isometric |
| During anaerobic glycolysis | Pyruvic acid is produced, ATP is produced, oxygen is not consumed |
| At peak levels of muscle exertion the mitochondria can supply | Only about 1/3 of the energy required by the muscle. |
| After heavy exercise, if energy reserves in a muscle are depleted, ________ occurs | Oxygen debt |
| During the Cori cycle, in the liver | Glucose is produced from lactic acid |
| During the recovery period the body's need for oxygen is increased because | Additional oxygen is required to restore energy reserves consumed during exercise |
| Fast fibers | Have low resistance to fatigue & have twitches with a very brief contraction phase |
| The type of muscle fiber that is most resistant to fatigue is the ________ fiber | Slow |
| . Fast muscle fibers can adapt to aerobic metabolism by generating more mitochondria in response to | Prolonged periods of inactivity |
| Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding human muscles | All of the above |
| Which of the following statements is false | Cardiac muscle stimulation is neural |
| Which of the following is not characteristic of smooth muscle | Smooth muscle connective tissue forms tendons & aponeuroses |
| Which of the following is not a function of smooth muscle tissue | Forcing blood from the heart into the major arteries |
| Muscle tissue, one of the four basic tissue groups, consists chiefly of cells that are highly specialized for | Contraction |
| The types of muscle tissue include all of the following, except | Skeletal muscle |
| At each end of the muscle, the collagen fibers of the epimysium, and each perimysium and endomysium, come together to form a | Tendon |
| Which of the following is not a type of motor unit | White-slow twitch |
| The thin filaments of striated muscle are made of which protein | All of the above |
| Each skeletal muscle fiber contains ________ myofibrils | Hundreds to thousands |
| When a skeletal muscle fiber contracts | All of the above |
| Which statement about the microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle fibers is true | All are true |
| The cytoplasm of the neuromuscular terminal contains vesicles filled with molecules of the neurotransmitter | Acetylcholine |
| Which statement about excitation-contraction coupling is incorrect | Calcium ion is released from the transverse tubule |
| Aerobic metabolism normally provides ________ percent of the ATP demands of a resting muscle cell | 95 |
| In an isotonic contraction | Muscle tension exceeds the load & the muscle lift the load |
| Large-diameter, densely packed myofibrils, large glycogen reserves, and few mitochondria are characteristics of | Fast fibers |
| Which of the following hormones directly stimulates growth of muscle tissue, leading to increased muscle mass | Testosterone |
| Because skeletal muscle contractions demand large quantities of ATP, skeletal muscles have | A rich blood supply & abundant mitochondria |
| In rigor mortis | All of the above |
| Physical evidence that supports the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction includes | Decreased width of the H band during contraction |
| Which of the following is greater | Concentration of calcium ion in the sarcoplasmic reticulum of a resting muscle |
| The following is a list of the events that occur during a muscle contraction. The correct sequence of these events is | 3,5,1,4,6,2 |
| How would the loss of acetylcholinesterase from the motor end plate affect skeletal muscle | Cause spastic paralysis (muscles contracted, unable to relax) |
| When acetylcholine binds to receptors at the motor end plate, the end plate membrane becomes | More permeable to sodium ions |
| Triggering of the muscle action potential occurs after | Acetylcholine binds to chemicallt gated channels in the end plate membrane |
| In which of the following would the motor units have the fewest muscle fibers | Muscles that control the eyes |
| Decreased blood flow to a muscle could result in all of the following, except | An increase in intracellular lactate |
| How would an elevated level of thyroid hormone in the body affect skeletal muscles | It would stimulate energy use & heat production |
| Muscles that guard entrances and exits of internal passageways are ________ muscles | Sphinter circular |
| The type of muscle whose functional characteristics most closely resemble those of its muscle fibers is the ________ muscles | Parallel |
| Skeletal muscles in which the fascicles form a common angle with the tendon are ________ muscles | Pennate |
| The most common lever systems in the body are those that have the applied force between the fulcrum and the load. These are called ________ levers | 3rd class |
| A muscle that inserts on the body of the mandible is probably involved in | Chewing |
| The pectoralis major muscle inserts on the greater tubercle of the humerus. When it contracts, it produces | Flexion at the shoulder joint |
| Muscles that insert on the olecranon process of the ulna can act to | Extend the forearm |
| Which of the following muscles does not have an action that is antagonistic to the action of the brachialis muscle | Brachioradialis |
| A muscle that assists the muscle that is primarily responsible for a given action is a | Synergist |
| The names of the muscles can indicate all of the following, except | Collagen content of the muscles |
| Muscles with fibers that run parallel to the long axis of the body are called | Rectus |
| Each of the following terms is a descriptive term for a muscle's action, except | Sartorius |
| Which of the following terms could be used with a muscle that is associated with the chin | Genio- |
| Each of the following terms is used to describe the shape of a muscle, except | Hallucis |
| A muscle whose name ends in the suffix -glossus would be found within or attached to the | Tongue |
| Muscles including the term capitis would be found within or attached to the | Head |
| Which of the following is not primarily a muscle of facial expression | Masseter |
| The "kissing muscle" that purses the lips is the | Obicularis |
| . All of the following are innervated by the facial nerve (N VII), except for the ________ muscle | Levator |
| The origin of the frontalis muscle is the | Galea Aponeurotica |
| The temporalis muscle passes through the | Zygomatic Arch |
| The auricularis muscle acts to | Move the external ear |
| The mentalis muscle inserts on the | Skin of the chin |
| Which of the following describes the action of the corrugator supercilii | Wrinkles the brow |
| The procerus inserts on the | Lateral nasal cartilages |
| Which of the following describes the action of the digastric muscle | Depresses & retracts the tongue |
| Which of the following is not an extrinsic eye muscle | Rectus Abdominis |
| The anterior muscle that inserts widely on the periosteum of the mandible is the | playtsma |
| The muscle that elevates the tongue is the | Palatoglossus |
| Which of the following does not originate or insert on the hyoid bone | Sternothyroid |
| Which of the following muscles has its origin on the hyoid and inserts on the tongue | Styloglossus |
| Which of the following is a spinal flexor | Longus capitas, longus colli, quadratus lumborum |
| The iliac crest is the origin of the | Lumborum |
| The sternocleidomastoid inserts on the | Superior nuchal line |
| The scalenes have their origin on the | Transverse process of the cervical vertebrae |
| Which of the following muscles has its origin on the sternum | Rectus abdominis |
| The muscle that inserts on the superior surface of the pubis around the symphysis is the | Rectus Abdominis |
| Which of the following muscles compresses the abdomen | External, rectus, transverse |
| Which of the following is the origin of the bulbospongiosus | Collagen sheath at the base of the clitoris |
| Which of the following muscles is found within the pelvic floor | All of the above |
| The levator ani inserts on the | Coccyx |
| The spinous processes of the upper thoracic vertebrae are the origin of the | Rhomboid & trapezius |
| Which of the following is the insertion of the pectoralis major | Greater tubercle of the humerus |
| Which of the following describes the action of the serratus anterior | Protracts the shoulder |
| Which of the following does not move the shoulder girdle | Deltoid |
| The muscle that adducts and rotates the scapula laterally is the | Rhomboid |
| The muscle that inserts on the acromion and scapular spine is the | Trapezius |
| All of the following originate on the scapula, except the | Pectoralis major |
| The powerful abductor muscle of the upper arm is the | Deltoid |
| Which of the following is not a muscle of the rotator cuff | Subclavicus |
| A muscle that adducts the humerus is the | Coracoid & Latissimus |
| The infraspinatus has its insertion on the | Greater tubercle |
| Which of the following does not originate on the humerus | Biceps Brachii |
| The muscle that extends the arm while doing push-ups is the | Triceps |
| Which of the following is the insertion of the triceps brachialis | Olecranon Process |
| Which of the following originates on the medial epicondyle of the humerus | All of the above |
| The muscle that pronates the forearm and opposes biceps brachii is the | Pronator Quad. |
| When opposing the thumb, which muscle is active | Flexor Pollius Longus |
| The muscle that adducts the thumb is the | Adductor Pollius |
| The adductor brevis has its origin on the | Pubis |
| The muscle that inserts on the iliotibial tract and gluteal tuberosity of the femur is the | Gluteus maximus |
| The band of collagen fibers that laterally braces the knee is the | Illiotribial tract |
| Muscles that laterally rotate the thigh include all of the following, except the | Tensor fasciae latae |
| . Which of the following is a member of the hamstring group | semimembraneous, semitendinous, biceps femoris |
| Which of the following muscles pulls on the iliotibial tract | Gluteus maximus |
| The only knee flexor that originates superior to the acetabulum is the | Sartorius |
| The inferior ramus of the pubis is the origin and the medial tibia is the insertion of the ________ muscle | Gracilis |
| A muscle that originates along the linea aspera of the femur is | Vas-lat; Med; Int. |
| The muscle that unlocks the knee joint is the | Popliteus |
| A sesamoid bone occasionally found within the lateral head of the gastrocnemius is | Fabella |
| Which of these muscles is a member of the quadriceps group | All of the above |
| The insertion of the flexor hallucis longus is | Inferior surface of distal phalanx |
| An antagonist to the gastrocnemius is the | Tibialis Anterior |
| A muscle that dorsiflexes the foot is the | Tibialis Anterior |
| The freedom of movement is relatively greater in the | Pectoral Girdle |
| Which of these phrases most aptly describes "muscle insertion" | Tendon attatchment |
| The bones, which serve as levers in the body, change | All of the above |
| Muscles located close to the midline of the body may be called | Medialis |
| Reflection of the trapezius muscle exposes the | Infraspinatus |
| Muscles with fibers that run at an angle to the long axis of the body are called | Oblique |
| Most of the skeletal muscles in the body are | Parallel Muscles |
| A skeletal muscle fiber can contract until it has shortened by about | 30% |
| In a 6.45-cm2 (1-inch2) cross section, a parallel muscle can exert approximately ________ of isometric tension | 23 kg |
| ________ muscle fibers pull in different directions, permitting different actions depending on stimulation | Convergent |
| Muscles with fibers that run perpendicular to the long axis of the body are called | Transversus |
| In a ________ muscle, the fascicles are concentrically arranged around an opening | Circular |
| A lever consists of | Rigid structure & pivot point |
| A(n) ________ is a muscle whose contraction is chiefly responsible for producing a particular movement | Prime mover/agonist |
| Muscles visible at the body surface are often called | Superficialis |
| Superficial muscles that position or stabilize an organ are called | Extrinsic |
| Muscles located entirely within an organ are called | Intrinsic |
| Deep muscles are called | Profundus |
| Muscles that are long and round in cross section are termed | Teres |
| The axial muscles of the head and neck are assigned to one of the following functional groups, except | Vocal expressions |
| The ________ covers the anterior surface of the neck | Platysma |
| The eye muscles include which of the following muscles | All of the above |
| Which eye muscle sends its tendon of origin through a pulley or trochlea before inserting on the globe? | Superior oblique |
| The ________ muscle allows you to look down | Inferior rectus |
| The ________ allows you to look up | Superior rectus |
| The ________ muscle is the strongest jaw muscle | Masseter |
| In assessing a stroke patient, you ask her to stick out (protract) her tongue. You note that it deviates to one side. You suspect that damage to the neural control of the ________ muscle has occurred | Genioglossus |
| The ________ extends the neck | Spinalis Cervicis |
| Contracting the gastrocnemius muscles to elevate the body on the toes involves a ________ lever | 2nd |
| Ryan hears a loud noise and quickly turns his eyes sideways in the direction of the sound. To accomplish this action he must use his ________ muscles | Lateral & Medial |
| During abdominal surgery, the surgeon makes a cut lateral to the linea alba. The muscle that would be cut is the | Rectus Abdominis |
| Which of these is true about the muscle named levator palpebrae superioris | Elevates & Raises |
| The leverage of the biceps brachii applies its force six times closer to the fulcrum (elbow joint) than the resistance. This means it will need to exert ________ kg of force to support a load of 6 kg | 36 |
| Which of the following is not a pennate muscle | Pectoralis |
| Which of the following is not one of the forms of fascicle organization | Perpindicular |
| The muscles of the head and neck function in | All of the above |
| Muscular walls of the thorax and abdomen are composed of | Oblique & Rectus |
| Each of the following muscles is involved in the process of chewing or manipulating food in the mouth, except the | Omohyoid |
| Medial rotation of the eyeball is performed by the ________ muscle | Medial rectus |
| A muscle that flexes the spinal column is the | Rectus Abdominis |
| Damage to which of the following muscles would interfere most with the ability to breathe | Intercostals |
| Which of the following muscles functions to expel urine or semen in males | Bulbosp. |
| Muscles of the rotator cuff include all of the following, except the | Deltoid & Rhomboid |
| Which of these muscles produces lateral rotation at the hip | All of the above |
| Each of the following muscles acts to flex the leg, except the | Vastus Lat. |
| . The quadriceps group includes all of the following, except the | Biceps |
| Which of the following muscles belongs to the "hamstring" muscle group | Biceps femoris |
| Excessive abdominopelvic pressure can cause | Inguinial & Diap. |
| Damage to the pectoralis major would interfere with a person's ability to | Adduct the humerus |
| Individuals who are engaged in repetitive hand movements such as typing or playing the piano may suffer wrist pain, especially during palmar flexion. All of the following are true concerning this condition, except that it | Never causes muscle weakness |
| If you bruised your gluteus maximus, you would expect to experience discomfort when | Extending & Laterally |
| Tom is having difficulty plantar flexing and everting his foot. Which muscle is most likely involved in this problem | Soleus |
| The preferred site for intramuscular (IM) injections in infants is the | Vas. Lat. |
| If the anterior compartment of the lower limb was suffering from "compartment syndrome," which of these muscles would be at risk of injury | Ext. tib. & ext. |
| Tom, a trumpet player, asks you which muscles he should develop in order to be a better trumpeter. What would you tell him | Buccinator& obicularis |
| Pam's daughter is born cross-eyed. As she grows, the problem does not become any better. Her physician suggests cutting an eye muscle to bring the eyes into a more normal position. Which muscle will he cut | Medial rectus |
| Jill suffers a severe cut that severs the tendon that attaches the insertion of the flexor carpi ulnaris. As a result of this injury, what action is difficult for her to perform | Cant grasp things |
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