A&P1 Exam 2 Review, Chapters 9-16

Created by amy_may 

Upgrade to
remove ads

373 terms

Gluconeogenesis occurs in the liver due to the action of ________.
A) aldosterone
B) insulin
C) secretin
D) cortisol

D) cortisol

Normal development of the immune response is due in part to hormones produced by the ________.
A) adrenal medulla
B) pancreas
C) thyroid gland
D) thymus gland

D) thymus gland

Virtually all of the protein or amino acid-based hormones exert their effects through intracellular ________.
A) ions
B) deactivators
C) nucleotides
D) second messengers

D) second messengers

Which of the following is not a category of endocrine gland stimulus?
A) enzyme
B) humoral
C) neural
D) hormonal

A) enzyme

Chemical substances secreted by cells into the extracellular fluids and that regulate the metabolic function of other cells in the body are called ________.
A) enzymes
B) antibodies
C) proteins
D) hormones

D) hormones

The hypothalamic-hypophyseal tract ________.
A) connects the hypophysis to the pituitary gland
B) is partly contained within the infundibulum
C) conducts aldosterone to the hypophysis
D) is the site of prolactin synthesis

B) is partly contained within the infundibulum

Which of the following is not a cardinal sign of diabetes mellitus?
A) polyuria
B) polydipsia
C) polyphagia
D) All of these are signs.

D) All of these are signs.

Which of the choices below is not a factor required for target cell activation by hormone receptor interaction?
A) blood levels of hormone
B) type of hormone
C) number of receptors for that hormone
D) strength of the bond between the receptor and hormone

B) type of hormone

Oxytocin ________.
A) release is an example of a positive feedback control mechanism
B) is an adenohypophyseal secretion
C) exerts its most important effects during menstruation
D) controls milk production

A) release is an example of a positive feedback control mechanism

ADH ________.
A) increases urine production
B) promotes dehydration
C) is produced in the adenohypophysis
D) is inhibited by alcohol

D) is inhibited by alcohol

Thyroid hormone exerts its influence by ________.
A) entering some cells and binding to intracellular receptors within the nuclei
B) exerting only a minor effect on body metabolism
C) causing a reduction in the number of blood vessel adrenergic receptors, and therefore decreasing blood pressure
D) acting to decrease basal metabolic rate

A) entering some cells and binding to intracellular receptors within the nuclei

Gonadocorticoid(s) ________.
A) synthesized by the adrenal medulla are primarily androgens
B) production by the adrenal gland is insignificant compared with sex hormone release from the gonads during late puberty
C) secretion inhibition is highly dependent on a negative feedback loop involving ACTH
D) hypersecretion can result in adrenogenital syndrome, also called feminization

B) production by the adrenal gland is insignificant compared with sex hormone release from the gonads during late puberty

Sometimes prolonged excessive exposure to high hormone concentrations causes a phenomenon known as ________.
A) diabetes mellitus
B) cellular inhibition
C) down-regulation
D) metabolism of protein kinases

C) down-regulation

Which of the following is not a change that may be caused by hormonal stimulus?
A) a change in membrane potential
B) the stimulation of a genetic event resulting in protein synthesis
C) an increase in enzymatic activity
D) direct control of the nervous system

D) direct control of the nervous system

The ability of a specific tissue or organ to respond to the presence of a hormone is dependent on ________.
A) the location of the tissue or organ with respect to the circulatory path
B) the membrane potential of the cells of the target organ
C) the presence of the appropriate receptors on the cells of the target tissue or organ
D) nothingall hormones of the human body are able to stimulate any and all cell types because hormones are powerful and nonspecific

C) the presence of the appropriate receptors on the cells of the target tissue or organ

Several hormones are synthesized in the hypothalamus and transported to the anterior pituitary gland. The mechanism of transportation from hypothalamus to anterior pituitary gland is through the ________.
A) hepatic portal system
B) general circulatory system
C) hypophyseal portal system
D) feedback loop

C) hypophyseal portal system

The neurohypophysis or posterior lobe of the pituitary gland is not a true endocrine gland because ________.
A) it is strictly a part of the neural system and has little or nothing to do with hormonal release
B) embryonically it was an endocrine tissue, but in the adult human it is no longer functional
C) it is unable to function as an endocrine tissue because it is actually part of the neural system due to its location
D) it is only a hormone storage area that receives hormones from the hypothalamus for release

D) it is only a hormone storage area that receives hormones from the hypothalamus for release

Steroid hormones exert their action by ________.
A) entering the nucleus of a cell and initiating or altering the expression of a gene
B) finding an appropriate cell receptor and initiating cAMP activity
C) stimulating the synthesis of a glycogen
D) increasing blood pressure

A) entering the nucleus of a cell and initiating or altering the expression of a gene

The second-messenger mechanism of hormone action operates by ________.
A) synthesizing more of the hormone than is actually needed
B) increasing the basal metabolic rate in the target organ
C) not responding to a feedback mechanism
D) binding to specific receptors and employing the services of G proteins and cAMP

D) binding to specific receptors and employing the services of G proteins and cAMP

Hormones often cause a cell to elicit multiple responses; this is because ________.
A) there are thousands of receptors on the cell membrane
B) the receptors bind to several hormones at the same time
C) the protein kinases are rapidly metabolized
D) during protein kinase activation, enzymes phosphorylate many other enzymes

D) during protein kinase activation, enzymes phosphorylate many other enzymes

Cells that respond to peptide hormones usually do so through a sequence of biochemical reactions involving receptor and kinase activation. In order for cells to respond, it is necessary for first and second messengers to communicate. This is possible because ________.
A) peptide hormones always enter the cell membrane and elicit a response without assistance from other messengers
B) hormones alter cellular operations through stimulation of a gene directly
C) G protein acts as the link between first and second messengers
D) the hormone receptor complex moves into the cytoplasm as a unit

C) G protein acts as the link between first and second messengers

Thyroid hormone (a small iodinated amine) enters target cells in a manner similar to ________.
A) insulin, because insulin is a small peptide
B) steroid hormones, because both diffuse easily into target cells
C) growth hormone, because the thyroid works synergistically with thyroid hormone
D) glucagon, because the structure of glucagon is similar to that of thyroid hormone

B) steroid hormones, because both diffuse easily into target cells

When it becomes necessary to enlist the fight-or-flight response, a hormone that is released during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome is ________.
A) estrogen
B) epinephrine
C) angiotensinogen
D) renin

B) epinephrine

One of the least complicated of the endocrine control systems directly responds to changing blood levels of ions and nutrients. Which of the following describes this mechanism?
A) the rapid oxidation of carbohydrates
B) catabolic inhibition
C) protein synthesis
D) humoral stimulation

D) humoral stimulation

The major targets of growth hormone are ________.
A) the blood vessels
B) the adrenal glands
C) the liver
D) bones and skeletal muscles

D) bones and skeletal muscles

The parathyroid glands maintain adequate levels of blood calcium. This is accomplished through ________.
A) blocking the action of growth hormone
B) targeting the bone and activating osteoclasts so that calcium will be released
C) antagonizing the synthesis of calcitonin
D) slowing the activity of tissues that require calcium for activity

B) targeting the bone and activating osteoclasts so that calcium will be released

Which organ is responsible for synthesizing ANP?
A) the heart
B) the kidney
C) the skin
D) the spleen

A) the heart

Mineralocorticoid is to aldosterone as glucocorticoid is to ________.
A) testosterone
B) estrogen
C) cortisol
D) epinephrine

C) cortisol

Leptin is secreted by ________.
A) lymphocytes
B) adipocytes
C) goblet cells
D) fibroblasts

B) adipocytes

The most important regulator of electrolyte concentrations in extracellular fluids is ________.
A) insulin
B) aldosterone
C) glucagon
D) cortisol

B) aldosterone

Which of the following is not a steroid-based hormone?
A) estrogen
B) aldosterone
C) epinephrine
D) cortisone

C) epinephrine

Which of the following would be associated with the action of steroids on cells?
A) extracellular receptors with a specificity for only a single amino acid sequence on the hormone
B) an enzyme that catalyzes the formation of cyclic AMP
C) second-messenger systems
D) a hormone-receptor complex that interacts directly with the cell's DNA

D) a hormone-receptor complex that interacts directly with the cell's DNA

Cellular responses to hormones that initiate second-messenger systems include ________.
A) possible activation of several different second-messenger systems
B) cyclic AMP phosphodiesterase formation of an active second messenger
C) formation of a specific protein kinase that acts on a series of extracellular intermediates
D) hormone binding to intracellular receptors

A) possible activation of several different second-messenger systems

Regulating hormones from the hypothalamus ________.
A) enter venous circulation and travel to the heart, which pumps the hormone-containing blood to the pituitary
B) enter the hepatic portal system, which feeds the pituitary
C) travel by arteries to the pituitary
D) first enter into the hypophyseal portal system

D) first enter into the hypophyseal portal system

ACTH ________.
A) is secreted by the posterior pituitary
B) secretion is regulated by a hypothalamic secretion
C) causes the release of hormones from the adrenal medulla
D) is not a tropic hormone

B) secretion is regulated by a hypothalamic secretion

Which of the following is true about calcium homeostasis?
A) Increased calcitonin levels will cause increased blood calcium levels.
B) High calcium levels cause bone resorption.
C) Parathyroid hormone causes an increase in osteoblast activity.
D) Parathyroid hormone is the single most important regulator of calcium levels in the blood.

D) Parathyroid hormone is the single most important regulator of calcium levels in the blood.

Aldosterone ________.
A) is secreted by the neurohypophysis
B) functions to increase sodium reabsorption
C) presence increases potassium concentration in the blood
D) production is greatly influenced by ACTH

B) functions to increase sodium reabsorption

The only amine hormone to act like a steroid is ________.
A) TH
B) ACTH
C) GH
D) ADH

A) TH

Which organ does not have hormone production?
A) heart
B) kidney
C) liver
D) skin

C) liver

In circumstances where the body requires prolonged or increased levels of a hormone the DNA of target cells will specify the synthesis of more receptors on the surface of the cells of the target organ. This is known as ________.
A) the cell's sensitivity reaction
B) cellular affinity
C) up-regulation
D) a reaction to a stressor

C) up-regulation

Eicosanoids do not include ________.
A) paracrines
B) leukotrienes
C) hydrocortisones
D) prostaglandins

C) hydrocortisones

A man has been told that he is not synthesizing enough follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and for this reason he may be unable to father a child. Choose the correct statement to explain this problem.
A) FSH stimulates estrogen secretion by ovarian cells, therefore it is not synthesized by males.
B) The physician is wronga hormone made in the adenohypophysis could not influence fertility.
C) FSH stimulates sperm production in the testes.
D) The man must be producing progesterone, which inhibits the synthesis of FSH.

C) FSH stimulates sperm production in the testes.

Which of the following organs is affected by thyroid hormone in adults?
A) liver
B) spleen
C) thyroid gland
D) brain

A) liver

Thyroxine is a peptide hormone, but its mechanism is different from other peptide hormones. Which of the following statements is true concerning this difference?
A) It causes positive feedback.
B) It does not require a second messenger to effect a response.
C) It is very specific in the cell type it targets.
D) It is a stimulant of cellular metabolism and targets all cells.

B) It does not require a second messenger to effect a response.

How do glucocorticoids enable the body to deal appropriately with stress?
A) by increasing blood glucose, fatty acid, and amino acid levels and enhancing blood pressure
B) by decreasing the heart rate, thus decreasing blood pressure
C) by stimulating the pancreas to release insulin
D) by blocking the neurotransmitters that prepare the body for the stress response

A) by increasing blood glucose, fatty acid, and amino acid levels and enhancing blood pressure

What ion is sometimes used as a second messenger of amino acidbased hormones?
A) iron
B) calcium
C) sodium
D) chlorine

B) calcium

The secretions of the adrenal medulla act to supplement the effects of ________.
A) parasympathetic innervation
B) sympathetic stimulation
C) vagus nerve activity
D) neurosecretory substances

B) sympathetic stimulation

Which of the following does not describe the ANS?
A) a system of motor neurons that innervates smooth and cardiac muscle and glands
B) a system of motor neurons that innervates all muscle cells
C) involuntary nervous system
D) general visceral motor system

B) a system of motor neurons that innervates all muscle cells

Preparing the body for the "fight-or-flight" response is the role of the ________.
A) sympathetic nervous system
B) cerebrum
C) parasympathetic nervous system
D) somatic nervous system

A) sympathetic nervous system

The somatic and autonomic nervous systems differ in all of the following except ________.
A) their effectors
B) their efferent pathways
C) to some degree in target responses to their neurotransmitters
D) all of the neurotransmitters

D) all of the neurotransmitters

A drug that might be used specifically to reduce heart rate in cardiac patients could be ________.
A) anticholinesterase
B) epinephrine
C) norepinephrine
D) a beta-blocker

D) a beta-blocker

The parasympathetic ganglion that serves the eye is the ________.
A) ciliary ganglion
B) pterygopalatine ganglion
C) submandibular ganglion
D) otic ganglion

A) ciliary ganglion

Cardiovascular effects of the sympathetic division include all except ________.
A) constriction of most blood vessels
B) dilation of the vessels serving the skeletal muscles
C) increase of heart rate and force
D) dilation of the blood vessels serving the skin and digestive viscera

D) dilation of the blood vessels serving the skin and digestive viscera

Over 90% of all parasympathetic fibers are derived from cranial nerve number ________.
A) V
B) VII
C) X
D) XII

C) X

The "resting and digesting" division of the autonomic nervous system is the ________.
A) parasympathetic division
B) sympathetic division
C) somatic division
D) peripheral nervous system

A) parasympathetic division

Control of temperature, endocrine activity, and thirst are functions associated with the ________.
A) medulla
B) cerebellum
C) hypothalamus
D) thalamus

C) hypothalamus

Which of these effectors is not directly controlled by the autonomic nervous system?
A) smooth muscle
B) cardiac muscle
C) skeletal muscle
D) most glands

C) skeletal muscle

Which of the following is not a result of parasympathetic stimulation?
A) salivation
B) dilation of the pupils
C) increased peristalsis of the digestive viscera
D) elimination of urine

B) dilation of the pupils

Which of the following statements is not true?
A) Sympathetic origin is craniosacral, parasympathetic is thoracolumbar.
B) Sympathetic ganglia are within a few centimeters of the CNS, parasympathetic are close to visceral organs served.
C) Sympathetic division has short preganglionic and long postganglionic fibers, parasympathetic has long preganglionic and short postganglionic fibers.
D) Sympathetic has extensive branching of preganglionic fibers, parasympathetic has minimal branching of preganglionic fibers.

A) Sympathetic origin is craniosacral, parasympathetic is thoracolumbar.

Sympathetic responses generally are widespread because ________.
A) inactivation of ACh is fairly slow
B) NE and epinephrine are secreted into the blood as part of the sympathetic response
C) preganglionic fibers are short
D) preganglionic fibers are long

B) NE and epinephrine are secreted into the blood as part of the sympathetic response

Sympathetic nerves may leave the spinal cord at which vertebra?
A) second cervical
B) third lumbar
C) first coccyx
D) first thoracic

D) first thoracic

Autonomic ganglia contain ________.
A) an outer connective tissue capsule around the cell bodies of preganglionic motor neurons
B) synapses between postganglionic fibers and their effectors
C) the cell bodies of motor neurons
D) both somatic afferent and efferent neurons

C) the cell bodies of motor neurons

The parasympathetic fibers of the ________ nerves innervate smooth muscles of the eye that cause the lenses to bulge to accommodate close vision.
A) optic
B) oculomotor
C) trochlear
D) abducens

B) oculomotor

Fibers that enter and leave the sympathetic chain without synapsing form structures called ________.
A) white rami communicantes
B) gray rami communicantes
C) spinal nerves
D) splanchnic nerves

D) splanchnic nerves

Which of the following is not a plexus of the vagus nerve?
A) cardiac
B) pulmonary
C) celiac
D) esophageal

C) celiac

Visceral reflex arcs differ from somatic in that ________.
A) visceral arcs contain two sensory neurons
B) somatic arcs contain one additional component that visceral arcs do not possess
C) visceral arcs involve two motor neurons
D) visceral arcs do not use integration centers

C) visceral arcs involve two motor neurons

The parasympathetic tone ________.
A) prevents unnecessary heart deceleration
B) accelerates activity of the digestive tract
C) determines normal activity of the urinary tract
D) causes blood pressure to rise

C) determines normal activity of the urinary tract

Once a sympathetic preganglionic axon reaches a trunk ganglion, it can do all but which one of the following?
A) synapse with a parasympathetic neuron in the same trunk ganglion
B) synapase with a ganglionic neuron in the same trunk ganglion
C) ascend or descend the trunk to synapse in another trunk ganglion
D) pass through the trunk ganglion without synapsing with another neuron

A) synapse with a parasympathetic neuron in the same trunk ganglion

The white rami communicantes ________.
A) are found only in the - cord segments
B) are unmyelinated
C) carry preganglionic axons to the sympathetic chain
D) carry postganglionic fibers to the periphery

C) carry preganglionic axons to the sympathetic chain

Beta-blockers ________.
A) increase a dangerously low heart rate
B) decrease heart rate and blood pressure
C) have widespread sympathetic effects
D) are potent antidepressants

B) decrease heart rate and blood pressure

Erection of the penis or clitoris ________.
A) is primarily under sympathetic control
B) is primarily under parasympathetic control
C) is the result of coordinated activation by both sympathetic and parasympathetic input
D) depends very little on autonomic activation

B) is primarily under parasympathetic control

Which is a uniquely sympathetic function?
A) regulation of pupil size
B) regulation of cardiac rate
C) regulation of respiratory rate
D) regulation of body temperature

D) regulation of body temperature

Raynaud's disease ________.
A) is characterized by exaggerated vasoconstriction in the extremities
B) is induced by heat stress
C) occurs primarily in association with injury to the spinal cord
D) is frequently life threatening

A) is characterized by exaggerated vasoconstriction in the extremities

Autonomic dysreflexia ________.
A) is also known as autonomic areflexia
B) involves uncontrolled activation of autonomic neurons
C) usually precedes spinal shock
D) results from overexcitatory input from the cortex

B) involves uncontrolled activation of autonomic neurons

Which sympathetic fibers form the splanchnic nerve?
A) those that synapse with parasympathetic fibers
B) those that synapse in the same trunk ganglion they entered
C) those that synapse with somatic fibers
D) those that pass through the trunk ganglion to synapse in collateral or prevertebral ganglia

D) those that pass through the trunk ganglion to synapse in collateral or prevertebral ganglia

In aging, autonomic inefficiency is often due to ________.
A) clogging of preganglionic axon terminals with filaments
B) cerebral hemorrhage
C) major loss of axons
D) peripheral vascular changes

A) clogging of preganglionic axon terminals with filaments

Where would you not find an autonomic ganglion?
A) in the head
B) in the cervical region
C) close to the visceral effectors they serve
D) in the armpit

D) in the armpit

Sympathetic division stimulation causes ________.
A) decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure
B) increased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure
C) increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure
D) decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure

C) increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure

The smooth muscle of the digestive viscera is served largely by the ________.
A) lumbar splanchnic nerves
B) cephalic plexus
C) pelvic nerves
D) tenth cranial nerve

D) tenth cranial nerve

The route of major parasympathetic outflow from the head is via the ________.
A) sympathetic trunk
B) phrenic nerve
C) vagus nerve
D) sacral nerve

C) vagus nerve

Parasympathetic functions include ________.
A) a stimulation of heart rate and force of contraction
B) allowing the body to cope with an external threat
C) lens accommodation for close vision
D) mobilizing storage energy sources

C) lens accommodation for close vision

Emotions influence autonomic reactions primarily through integration in the ________.
A) lateral horn of the spinal cord
B) hypothalamus
C) lateral geniculate of the thalamus
D) inferior colliculus

B) hypothalamus

The possibility of some control over autonomic responses is demonstrated by ________.
A) split brain studies
B) stress-induced hypertension
C) biofeedback
D) nightmares

C) biofeedback

The vagus nerve does not innervate the ________.
A) pancreas
B) kidneys
C) parotid gland
D) gallbladder

C) parotid gland

The patellar "knee jerk" reflex is an example of a(n) ________.
A) extensor thrust reflex
B) stress reflex
C) crossed-extensor reflex
D) stretch reflex

D) stretch reflex

The ________ nerve is not a branch of the trigeminal nerve.
A) ophthalmic
B) maxillary
C) cervical
D) mandibular

C) cervical

Which of the following nerves does not arise from the brachial plexus?
A) median
B) phrenic
C) radial
D) ulnar

B) phrenic

Which of the following is not an example of an exteroceptor?
A) touch
B) pressure
C) pain
D) temperature
E) baroreceptor

E) baroreceptor

Which of the following is not a main level of neural integration in the somatosensory system?
A) receptor
B) circuit
C) segmental
D) perceptual

C) segmental

The posterior side of the thigh, leg, and foot is served by the ________ nerve.
A) obturator
B) common fibular
C) tibial
D) femoral

C) tibial

Starting at the spinal cord, the subdivisions of the brachial plexus are (in order):
A) roots, trunks, divisions, and cords
B) roots, divisions, cords, and trunks
C) divisions, roots, trunks, and cords
D) trunks, divisions, cords, and roots

A) roots, trunks, divisions, and cords

The cranial nerve with a dual origin (brain and spinal cord) is the ________.
A) hypoglossal
B) accessory
C) vagus
D) glossopharyngeal

B) accessory

Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding the occurrence of a sensation?
A) The stimulus energy must match the specificity of the receptor.
B) The stimulus energy must occur within the receptor's receptive field.
C) The stimulus energy must be converted into the energy of a graded potential called a transduction potential.
D) A generator potential in the associated sensory neuron must reach threshold.

C) The stimulus energy must be converted into the energy of a graded potential called a transduction potential.

A major nerve of the lumbar plexus is the ________.
A) femoral
B) iliohypogastric
C) sciatic
D) ilioinguinal

A) femoral

Spinal nerves exiting the cord from the level of L4 to S4 form the ________.
A) lumbar plexus
B) femoral plexus
C) sacral plexus
D) thoracic plexus

C) sacral plexus

The abducens nerve ________.
A) supplies innervation to the lateral rectus muscle of the eye
B) relays sensory information from taste buds on the tongue
C) exits from the medulla
D) if paralyzed, exhibits Bell's palsy

A) supplies innervation to the lateral rectus muscle of the eye

Inborn or intristic reflexes are ________.
A) rapid, predictable, learned responses
B) involuntary, yet may be modified by learned behavior
C) autonomic only
D) always mediated by the brain

B) involuntary, yet may be modified by learned behavior

Which of the following is not an aspect of sensory perception?
A) magnitude estimation
B) spatial discrimination
C) feature attraction
D) quality estimation
E) pattern recognition

D) quality estimation

Striking the "funny bone" is actually stimulation of (or injury to) the ________.
A) radial nerve
B) sciatic nerve
C) ulnar nerve
D) median nerve

C) ulnar nerve

A reflex that causes muscle relaxation and lengthening in response to muscle tension is called a ________.
A) Golgi tendon reflex
B) flexor reflex
C) crossed-extensor reflex
D) plantar reflex

A) Golgi tendon reflex

Pressure, pain, and temperature receptors in the skin are ________.
A) interoceptors
B) exteroceptors
C) proprioceptors
D) mechanoreceptors

B) exteroceptors

Potentially damaging stimuli that result in pain are selectively detected by ________.
A) interoceptors
B) photoreceptors
C) nociceptors
D) proprioceptors

C) nociceptors

Which receptors adapt most slowly?
A) smell receptors
B) pressure receptors
C) nociceptors
D) touch receptors

C) nociceptors

The trochlear nerve conveys proprioceptor impulses from the ________ to the brain.
A) medial rectus muscle
B) lateral rectus muscle
C) superior rectus muscle
D) inferior rectus muscle

C) superior rectus muscle

Nerves that carry impulses toward the CNS only are ________.
A) afferent nerves
B) efferent nerves
C) motor nerves
D) mixed nerves

A) afferent nerves

After axonal injury, regeneration in peripheral nerves is guided by ________.
A) Wallerian cells
B) Schwann cells
C) dendrites
D) Golgi organs

B) Schwann cells

Regeneration within the CNS ________.
A) is more successful than with the PNS
B) typically allows axonal sprouting of 20 mm
C) is prevented due to growth-inhibiting proteins of oligodendrocytes
D) is promoted by growth inhibitors and glial scars

C) is prevented due to growth-inhibiting proteins of oligodendrocytes

In a crossed-extensor reflex, if the right arm was grabbed it would flex and the left arm would ________.
A) also flex
B) extend
C) abduct
D) adduct

B) extend

Select the correct definition.
A) Magnitude estimation is the simplest level of sensation.
B) Perceptual detection is the ability to detect how much stimulus is applied to the body.
C) Pattern recognition allows us to see a familiar face.
D) Spatial discrimination allows us to recognize textures.

C) Pattern recognition allows us to see a familiar face.

All processing at the circuit level going up to the perceptual level must synapse in the ________.
A) pons
B) thalamus
C) reticular formation
D) medulla

B) thalamus

The sciatic nerve is a combination of which two nerves?
A) pudendal and posterior femoral cutaneous
B) posterior femoral cutaneous and tibial
C) pudendal and common fibular
D) common fibular and tibial

D) common fibular and tibial

Irritation of a major nerve of this plexus may cause hiccups.
A) cervical plexus
B) lumbar plexus
C) sacral plexus
D) thoracic plexus

A) cervical plexus

Bell's palsy is ________.
A) characterized by partial paralysis of diaphragm muscles
B) characterized by loss of vision
C) often caused by inflammation of the trigeminal nerve
D) characterized by paralysis of facial muscles

D) characterized by paralysis of facial muscles

Which of the following is the correct simple spinal reflex arc?
A) effector, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, receptor
B) receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector
C) effector, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, receptor
D) receptor, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, effector

B) receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector

Mixed cranial nerves containing both motor and sensory fibers include all except which of the following?
A) oculomotor
B) olfactory
C) trigeminal
D) facial

B) olfactory

Transduction refers to conversion of ________.
A) presynaptic nerve impulses to postsynaptic nerve impulses
B) stimulus information to nerve impulses
C) receptor energy to stimulus energy
D) afferent impulses to efferent impulses

B) stimulus information to nerve impulses

The flexor muscles in the anterior arm (biceps brachii and brachialis) are innervated by what nerve?
A) radial
B) median
C) ulnar
D) musculocutaneous

D) musculocutaneous

The cranial nerves that have neural connections with the tongue include all except the ________.
A) trigeminal
B) facial
C) glossopharyngeal
D) trochlear

D) trochlear

Problems in balance may follow trauma to which nerve?
A) abducens
B) vestibulocochlear
C) trigeminal
D) accessory

B) vestibulocochlear

A fracture of the ethmoid bone could result in damage to which cranial nerve?
A) glossopharyngeal
B) vagus
C) olfactory
D) accessory

C) olfactory

Select the statement that is most correct.
A) Ganglia are collections of neuron cell bodies in the spinal cord that are associated with efferent fibers.
B) Ganglia associated with afferent nerve fibers contain cell bodies of sensory neurons.
C) The dorsal root ganglion is a motor-only structure.
D) The cell bodies of afferent ganglia are located in the spinal cord.

B) Ganglia associated with afferent nerve fibers contain cell bodies of sensory neurons.

A fall or an improperly delivered gluteal injection could result in ________.
A) neurofibromatosis
B) postpoliomyelitis muscular atrophy
C) paresthesia
D) sciatica

D) sciatica

Feeling a gentle caress on your arm would likely involve all of the following except ________.
A) Meissner's corpuscles
B) tactile discs
C) Pacinian corpuscles
D) hair follicle receptors

C) Pacinian corpuscles

A patient who received a blow to the side of the skull exhibits the following signs and symptoms on that side of the face: he is unable to close his eye, and the corner of his mouth droops. Which cranial nerve has been damaged?
A) facial
B) glossopharyngeal
C) hypoglossal
D) accessory

A) facial

If the ventral root of a spinal nerve were cut, what would be the result in the tissue or region that nerve supplies?
A) complete loss of sensation
B) a complete loss of voluntary movement
C) loss of neither sensation nor movement but only of autonomic control
D) a complete loss of sensation and movement

B) a complete loss of voluntary movement

The anteriolateral pathways ________.
A) are evolutionarily newer than the specific pathways
B) receive inputs from a single type of sensory receptor
C) are involved in the emotional aspects of perception
D) are also called the lemniscal system

C) are involved in the emotional aspects of perception

The suprachiasmatic nucleus is found in the ________.
A) pons
B) thalamus
C) hypothalamus
D) medulla

C) hypothalamus

Nuclei of cranial nerves V, VI, and VII are found in the ________.
A) midbrain
B) medulla
C) pons
D) cerebrum

C) pons

The arbor vitae refers to ________.
A) cerebellar gray matter
B) cerebellar white matter
C) the pleatlike convolutions of the cerebellum
D) flocculonodular nodes

B) cerebellar white matter

The brain stem consists of the ________.
A) cerebrum, pons, midbrain, and medulla
B) midbrain, medulla, and pons
C) pons, medulla, cerebellum, and midbrain
D) midbrain only

B) midbrain, medulla, and pons

The primary auditory cortex is located in the ________.
A) prefrontal lobe
B) frontal lobe
C) temporal lobe
D) parietal lobe

C) temporal lobe

Spinocerebellar tracts ________.
A) terminate in the spinal cord
B) carry proprioceptive inputs to the cerebellum
C) give rise to conscious experience of perception
D) are found in the dorsal columns of the spinal cord

B) carry proprioceptive inputs to the cerebellum

What cells line the ventricles of the brain?
A) ependymal cells
B) neurons
C) epithelial cells
D) astrocytes

A) ependymal cells

The subarachnoid space lies between what two layers of meninges?
A) arachnoid and epidura
B) arachnoid and pia
C) arachnoid and dura
D) dura and epidura

B) arachnoid and pia

The vital centers for the control of heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure are located in the ________.
A) pons
B) medulla
C) midbrain
D) cerebrum

B) medulla

Cell bodies of the sensory neurons of the spinal nerves are located in ________.
A) the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord
B) the ventral root ganglia of the spinal cord
C) the thalamus
D) sympathetic ganglia

A) the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord

Which fissure separates the cerebral hemispheres?
A) central fissure
B) longitudinal fissure
C) parieto-occipital fissure
D) lateral fissure

B) longitudinal fissure

Which of the following best describes the cerebrum?
A) motor command center
B) visceral command center
C) executive suite
D) decussation center

C) executive suite

A shallow groove on the surface of the cortex is called a ________.
A) sulcus
B) fissure
C) gyrus
D) furrow

A) sulcus

Which of the following generalizations does not describe the cerebral cortex?
A) The cerebral cortex contains three kinds of functional areas.
B) Each hemisphere is chiefly concerned with sensory and motor functions of the contralateral side of the body.
C) The hemispheres are exactly equal in function.
D) No functional area of the cortex works alone.

C) The hemispheres are exactly equal in function.

If the posterior portion of the neural tube failed to develop properly the ________.
A) spinal cord may be affected
B) cranial nerves would not form
C) hindbrain would not be present
D) telencephalon would cease development

A) spinal cord may be affected

The central sulcus separates which lobes?
A) frontal from parietal
B) parietal from occipital
C) temporal from parietal
D) frontal from temporal

A) frontal from parietal

Neural tracts that convey life-saving information to the brain concerning burning pain would be ________.
A) anterior spinothalamic
B) reticulospinal
C) lateral spinothalamic
D) posterior spinothalamic

C) lateral spinothalamic

Which of these would you not find in the cerebral cortex?
A) cell bodies
B) dendrites
C) unmyelinated axons
D) fiber tracts

D) fiber tracts

The hypothalamus ________.
A) is the thermostat of the body because it regulates temperature
B) is an important auditory and visual relay center
C) has the Pulvinar body as part of its structure
D) mediates sensations

A) is the thermostat of the body because it regulates temperature

The white matter of the spinal cord contains ________.
A) myelinated nerve fibers only
B) unmyelinated nerve fibers only
C) myelinated and unmyelinated nerve fibers
D) soma that have both myelinated and unmyelinated nerve fibers

C) myelinated and unmyelinated nerve fibers

Which of the following is not a role of the basal nuclei?
A) regulating attention and cognition
B) controlling starting and stopping movements
C) inhibiting unnecessary or antagonistic movements
D) initiating protective reflex actions

D) initiating protective reflex actions

An individual accidentally transected the spinal cord between T1 and L1. This would result in ________.
A) paraplegia
B) hemiplegia
C) quadriplegia
D) spinal shock only

A) paraplegia

Spastic paralysis suggests involvement of the ________.
A) upper motor neurons
B) lower motor neurons
C) spinal nerve roots
D) neuromotor junction

A) upper motor neurons

See More

Please allow access to your computer’s microphone to use Voice Recording.

Having trouble? Click here for help.

We can’t access your microphone!

Click the icon above to update your browser permissions above and try again

Example:

Reload the page to try again!

Reload

Press Cmd-0 to reset your zoom

Press Ctrl-0 to reset your zoom

It looks like your browser might be zoomed in or out. Your browser needs to be zoomed to a normal size to record audio.

Please upgrade Flash or install Chrome
to use Voice Recording.

For more help, see our troubleshooting page.

Your microphone is muted

For help fixing this issue, see this FAQ.

Star this term

You can study starred terms together

NEW! Voice Recording

Create Set