A&P1 Exam 1 Review, Chapters 1-8

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Histology would be best defined as a study of ________.
A) cells
B) tissues
C) cell chemistry
D) the gross structures of the body

B) tissues

The study of the heart may incorporate many aspects of anatomy but as a whole you would say it is __________ anatomy.
A) microscopic
B) gross
C) developmental
D) systemic

B) gross

An increased rate of breathing as a result of an increased buildup of carbon dioxide in the bloodstream would be best described as an example of ________.
A) maintaining boundaries
B) excretion of metabolic waste
C) responsiveness
D) metabolism

B) excretion of metabolic waste

Average body temperature is ________ degrees centigrade.
A) 98
B) 68
C) 47
D) 37

D) 37

If you consider your home air conditioner in terms of homeostasis, then the wall thermostat would be the ________.
A) control center
B) receptor
C) effector
D) variable

A) control center

What is the main, general purpose of negative feedback?
A) to control all body system tissues
B) to maintain homeostasis
C) to keep the body's sugar high
D) to regulate excretion

B) to maintain homeostasis

What is the specific name for the hip region?
A) manus
B) inguinal
C) pedal
D) coxal

D) coxal

An oblique cut is one that is cut ________.
A) horizontal right and left
B) diagonally between the vertical and horizontal
C) vertical right and left
D) perpendicular to vertical and horizontal

B) diagonally between the vertical and horizontal

The heart lies in the ________ cavity.
A) superior mediastinal
B) pleural
C) dorsal
D) pericardial

D) pericardial

The cavities housing the eyes are called __________ cavities.
A) frontal
B) cranial
C) nasal
D) orbital

D) orbital

A structure that is composed of two or more tissues would be a(n) ________.
A) complex tissue
B) organ system
C) organ
D) complex cell

C) organ

________ cavities are spaces within joints.
A) Nasal
B) Synovial
C) Orbital
D) Oral

B) Synovial

Which of the following would not be a functional characteristic of life?
A) movement
B) responsiveness to external stimuli
C) maintenance of boundaries
D) decay

D) decay

Which term means toward or at the back of the body, behind?
A) anterior
B) lateral
C) distal
D) dorsal

D) dorsal

The single most abundant chemical substance of the body, accounting for 60% to 80% of body weight, is ________.
A) oxygen
B) protein
C) water
D) hydrogen,

C) water

What is the posterior side of the patella called?
A) sural
B) crural
C) antecubital
D) popliteal

D) popliteal

Which of the following statements is true concerning feedback mechanisms?
A) Positive feedback mechanisms always result in excessive damage to the host.
B) Negative feedback mechanisms tend to increase the original stimulus.
C) Negative feedback mechanisms work to prevent sudden severe changes within the body.
D) Blood glucose levels are regulated by positive feedback mechanisms.

C) Negative feedback mechanisms work to prevent sudden severe changes within the body.

The anatomical position is characterized by all of the following except ________.
A) body erect
B) arms at sides
C) palms turned posteriorly
D) thumbs pointed laterally

C) palms turned posteriorly

A good example of a positive feedback mechanism would be ________.
A) body temperature regulation
B) regulating glucose levels in the blood
C) enhancement of labor contractions
D) blood calcium level regulation

C) enhancement of labor contractions

Which of the following describes a parasagittal plane?
A) a transverse cut just above the knees
B) two cuts dividing the body into left and right halves
C) any sagittal plane except the median
D) any cut dividing the body into anterior and posterior

C) any sagittal plane except the median

Which of the following organs or structures would be found in the left iliac region?
A) appendix
B) stomach
C) liver
D) intestines

D) intestines

The parietal pleural would represent a serous membrane ________.
A) covering individual lungs
B) lining the thoracic cavity
C) covering the heart
D) lining the abdominal cavity

B) lining the thoracic cavity

Which one of the following systems responds to environmental stimuli?
A) muscular
B) lymphatic
C) immune
D) nervous

D) nervous

Choose the anatomical topic and definition that is not correctly matched.
A) Gross anatomy: study of structures visible to the eye.
B) Microscopic anatomy: study of structures too small to be seen by the naked eye.
C) Cytology: study of the structures in a particular region.
D) Embryology: study of the changes in an individual from conception to birth.

C) Cytology: study of the structures in a particular region.

Homeostasis is the condition in which the body maintains ________.
A) the lowest possible energy usage
B) a relatively stable internal environment, within limits
C) a static state with no deviation from preset points
D) a dynamic state within an unlimited range

B) a relatively stable internal environment, within limits

In which cavities are the lungs located?
A) pleural ventral, and thoracic
B) mediastinum, thoracic, and ventral
C) pleural, dorsal, and abdominal
D) pericardial, ventral, and thoracic

A) pleural, ventral, and thoracic

Choose the following statement that is not completely correct regarding serous membranes.
A) Serosa are very thin, double-layered structures.
B) Serous membranes are divided into parietal and visceral membranes with a potential space between the two.
C) Visceral pericardium covers the surface of the heart, and parietal pericardium lines the walls of the heart.
D) Serous membranes secrete a watery lubricating fluid.,

C) Visceral pericardium covers the surface of the heart, and parietal pericardium lines the walls of the heart.

Place the following in correct sequence from simplest to most complex:
1. molecules
2. atoms
3. tissues
4. cells
5. organ

A) 1-2-3-4-5
B) 2-1-4-3-5
C) 2-1-3-4-5
D) 1-2-4-3-5

B) 2-1-4-3-5

Which of the following imaging devices would best localize a tumor in a person's brain?
A) X ray
B) DSA
C) PET
D) MRI

D) MRI

Which of these is not part of the dorsal cavity?
A) cranial cavity
B) thoracic cavity
C) spinal cord
D) vertebral cavity

B) thoracic cavity

In which abdominopelvic cavity is the stomach located?
A) right upper
B) right lower
C) left upper
D) left lower

C) left upper

Which of the following statements is the most correct regarding homeostatic imbalance?
A) It is considered the cause of most diseases.
B) The internal environment is becoming more stable.
C) Positive feedback mechanisms are overwhelmed.
D) Negative feedback mechanisms are functioning normally.

A) It is considered the cause of most diseases.

Subdivisions of anatomy include which of the following?
A) gross, macroscopic, visual, and microscopic
B) gross, regional, dissection, and surface
C) regional, surface, visual, and microscopic
D) gross, regional, systemic, and surface

D) gross, regional, systemic, and surface

The term pollex refers to the ________.
A) great toe
B) calf
C) fingers
D) thumb

D) thumb

The dorsal body cavity is the site of which of the following?
A) intestines
B) brain
C) lungs
D) liver

B) brain

Select the most correct statement.
A) The immune system is closely associated with the lymphatic system.
B) Organ systems operate independently of each other to maintain life.
C) The endocrine system is not a true structural organ system.
D) Organ systems can be composed of cells or tissues, but not both.

A) The immune system is closely associated with the lymphatic system.

One of the functional characteristics of life is irritability. This refers to ________.
A) indigestible food residues stimulating the excretory system
B) sensing changes in the environment and then reacting or responding to them
C) the nervous system causing all living things to sometimes experience anger
D) the necessity for all organisms to reproduce

B) sensing changes in the environment and then reacting or responding to them

Which of the following are survival needs of the body?
A) nutrients

water, movement, and reproduction
B) nutrients, water, growth, and reproduction
C) water, atmospheric pressure, growth, and movement
D) nutrients, water, atmospheric pressure, and oxygen, D) nutrients, water, atmospheric pressure, and oxygen

The anatomical position is used ________.
A) rarely

because people don't usually assume this position
B) as a standard reference point for directional terms regardless of the actual position of the body
C) only when a body is lying down
D) as the most comfortable way to stand when dissecting a specimen, B) as a standard reference point for directional terms regardless of the actual position of the body

What is a vertical section through the body

dividing it into left and right, called?
A) frontal
B) regional
C) sagittal
D) transverse, C) sagittal

What is a vertical section through the body

dividing it into anterior and posterior regions called?
A) frontal
B) median
C) sagittal
D) transverse, A) frontal

Which body cavity protects the nervous system?
A) cranial
B) dorsal
C) vertebral
D) thoracic

B) dorsal

Which of the following describes the operation of the heart and blood vessels?
A) systemic anatomy
B) cardiovascular anatomy
C) systemic physiology
D) cardiovascular physiology

B) cardiovascular anatomy

Which of the following elements is necessary for proper conduction of nervous impulses?
A) Fe
B) I
C) P
D) Na

D) Na

Choose the statement that is false or incorrect.
A) In chemical reactions, breaking old bonds requires energy and forming new bonds releases energy.
B) Exergonic reactions release more energy than they absorb.
C) Endergonic reactions absorb more energy than they release.
D) A key feature of the body's metabolism is the almost exclusive use of exergonic reactions by the body.

D) A key feature of the body's metabolism is the almost exclusive use of exergonic reactions by the body.

In general, the lipids that we refer to as oils have ________.
A) a high water content
B) long fatty acid chains
C) a high degree of saturated bonds
D) a high degree of unsaturated bonds

D) a high degree of unsaturated bonds

The genetic information is coded in DNA by the ________.
A) regular alteration of sugar and phosphate molecules
B) sequence of the nucleotides
C) three-dimensional structure of the double helix
D) arrangement of the histones

B) sequence of the nucleotides

Which of the following is not true of proteins?
A) They may be denatured or coagulated by heat or acidity.
B) Some types are called enzymes.
C) They appear to be the molecular carriers of the coded hereditary information.
D) Their function depends on the three-dimensional shape.

C) They appear to be the molecular carriers of the coded hereditary information.

The single most abundant protein in the body is ________.
A) DNA
B) hemoglobin
C) collagen
D) glucose

C) collagen

Carbohydrates are stored in the liver and muscles in the form of ________.
A) glucose
B) triglycerides
C) glycogen
D) cholesterol

C) glycogen

Which of the following describes coenzymes?
A) organic molecules derived from vitamins
B) two enzymes that perform the same function
C) metal ions
D) enzymes that work together

A) organic molecules derived from vitamins

Which of the following is not a role of molecular chaperonins?
A) prevent accidental, premature, or incorrect folding of polypeptide chains
B) aid the desired folding and association process of polypeptides
C) help to translocate proteins and certain metal ions across cell membranes
D) promote the breakdown of damaged or denatured proteins
E) act as a biological catalyst

E) act as a biological catalyst

A chemical reaction in which bonds are broken is usually associated with ________.
A) the release of energy
B) the consumption of energy
C) a synthesis
D) forming a larger molecule

A) the release of energy

Salts are always ________.
A) ionic compounds
B) single covalent compounds
C) double covalent compounds
D) hydrogen bonded

A) ionic compounds

The numbers listed represent the number of electrons in the first, second, and third energy levels, respectively. On this basis, which of the following is an unstable or reactive atom?
A) 2, 8, 8
B) 2, 8
C) 2
D) 2, 8, 1

D) 2, 8, 1

A solution that has a pH of 2 could best be described as being ________.
A) acidic
B) basic
C) neutral
D) slightly acidic

A) acidic

Which of the following is the major positive ion outside cells?
A) nitrogen
B) hydrogen
C) potassium
D) sodium

D) sodium

Which of the following would be regarded as an organic molecule?
A) H2O
B) NaCl
C) NaOH
D) CH4

D) CH4

What is a chain of 25 amino acids called?
A) polypeptide
B) nucleotide
C) protein
D) starch

A) polypeptide

Which of the following constitutes a long chain of simple sugars?
A) monosaccharide
B) polysaccharide
C) protein
D) nucleic acid

B) polysaccharide

What level of protein synthesis is represented by the coiling of the protein chain backbone into an alpha helix?
A) primary structure
B) secondary structure
C) tertiary structure
D) quaternary structure

B) secondary structure

Carbohydrates and proteins are built up from their basic building blocks by the ________.
A) addition of a water molecule between each two units
B) addition of a carbon atom between each two units
C) removal of a water molecule between each two units
D) removal of a nitrogen atom between each two units

C) removal of a water molecule between each two units

Which statement about enzymes is false?
A) Enzymes raise the activation energy needed to start a reaction.
B) Enzymes are composed mostly of protein.
C) Enzymes are organic catalysts.
D) Enzymes may be damaged by high temperature.

A) Enzymes raise the activation energy needed to start a reaction.

Which of the following statements is false?
A) Chemical reactions proceed more quickly at higher temperatures.
B) Chemical reactions progress at a faster rate when the reacting particles are present in higher numbers.
C) Larger particles move faster than smaller ones and thus collide more frequently and more forcefully.
D) Catalysts increase the rate of chemical reactions.

C) Larger particles move faster than smaller ones and thus collide more frequently and more forcefully.

Which of the following is true regarding the concentration of solutions?
A) Percent solutions are parts per 1000 parts.
B) Molarity is one mole of solute per 1000 ml of solution.
C) To calculate molarity, one must know the atomic number of the solute.
D) To calculate molarity, one must know the atomic weight of the solvent.

B) Molarity is one mole of solute per 1000 ml of solution.

Select the statement about mixtures that is correct.
A) A solution contains solvent in large amounts and solute in smaller quantities.
B) Solutions contain particles that settle out in time.
C) Suspensions can change reversibly from liquid to solid.
D) Suspensions are homogeneous mixtures of two or more components.

A) A solution contains solvent in large amounts and solute in smaller quantities.

Choose the answer that best describes HCO3-.
A) a bicarbonate ion
B) common in the liver
C) a weak acid
D) a proton donor

A) a bicarbonate ion

Select which reactions will usually be irreversible regarding chemical equilibrium in living systems.
A) glucose to CO2 and H2O
B) ADP + Pi to make ATP
C) H2O + CO2 to make H2CO3
D) glucose molecules joined to make glycogen

A) glucose to CO2 and H2O

What happens in redox reactions?
A) both decomposition and electron exchange occur
B) the electron acceptor is oxidized
C) the electron donor is reduced
D) the reaction is always easily reversible

A) both decomposition and electron exchange occur

Choose the answer that best describes fibrous proteins.
A) rarely exhibit secondary structure
B) are very stable and insoluble in water
C) are usually called enzymes
D) are cellular catalysts

B) are very stable and insoluble in water

Which of the following does not describe the ATP molecule?
A) chemical work
B) mechanical work
C) transport
D) pigments

D) pigments

Select the most correct statement regarding nucleic acids.
A) Three forms exist: DNA, RNA, and tDNA.
B) DNA is a long, double-stranded molecule made up of A, T, G, and C bases.
C) RNA is a long, single-stranded molecule made up of the bases A, T, G, and C.
D) TDNA is considered a molecular slave of DNA.

B) DNA is a long, double-stranded molecule made up of A, T, G, and C bases.

Which of the following is an example of a suspension?
A) cytoplasm
B) salt water
C) rubbing alcohol
D) blood

D) blood

Select the correct statement about isotopes.
A) Isotopes of the same element have the same atomic number but differ in their atomic masses.
B) All the isotopes of an element have the same number of neutrons.
C) All the isotopes of an element are radioactive.
D) Isotopes occur only in the heavier elements.

A) Isotopes of the same element have the same atomic number but differ in their atomic masses.

The four elements that make up about 96% of body matter are ________.
A) carbon, oxygen, phosphorus, calcium
B) nitrogen, hydrogen, calcium, sodium
C) carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen
D) sodium, potassium, hydrogen, oxygen

C) carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen

An example of a coenzyme is ________.
A) copper
B) riboflavin (vitamin B2)
C) iron
D) zinc

B) riboflavin (vitamin B2)

________ is fat soluble, produced in the skin on exposure to UV radiation, and necessary for normal bone growth and function.
A) Vitamin K
B) Cortisol
C) Vitamin A
D) Vitamin D

D) Vitamin D

In liquid XYZ, you notice that light is scattered as it passes through. There is no precipitant in the bottom of the beaker, though it has been sitting for several days. What type of liquid is this?
A) solution
B) suspension
C) colloid
D) mixture

C) colloid

Atom X has 17 protons. How many electrons are in its valence shell?
A) 3
B) 5
C) 7
D) 10

C) 7

Which protein types are vitally important to cell function in all types of stressful circumstances?
A) structural proteins
B) molecular chaperones
C) catalytic proteins
D) regulatory proteins

B) molecular chaperones

If atom X has an atomic number of 74 it would have which of the following?
A) 37 protons and 37 neutrons
B) 37 electrons
C) 74 protons
D) 37 protons and 37 electrons

D) 37 protons and 37 electrons

What does the formula C6H12O6 mean?
A) There are 6 calcium, 12 hydrogen, and 6 oxygen atoms.
B) There are 12 hydrogen, 6 carbon, and 6 oxygen atoms.
C) The molecular weight is 24.
D) The substance is a colloid.

B) There are 12 hydrogen, 6 carbon, and 6 oxygen atoms.

Two good examples of a colloid would be Jell-O® and ________.
A) blood
B) toenails
C) urine
D) cytosol

D) cytosol

An atom with a valence of 3 may have a total of ________ electrons.
A) 3
B) 8
C) 13
D) 17

C) 13

Which of the following is a neutralization reaction?
A) HCl → H+ + Cl-
B) NaOH → Na+ + OH-
C) NH3 + H+ → NH4+2
D) HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O

D) HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O

The chemical symbol OO means ________.
A) zero equals zero
B) both atoms are bonded and have zero electrons in the outer orbit
C) the atoms are double bonded
D) this is an ionic bond with two shared electrons

C) the atoms are double bonded

What is a dipole?
A) a type of bond
B) a polar molecule
C) a type of reaction
D) an organic molecule

B) a polar molecule

What does CH4 mean?
A) There is one carbon and four hydrogen atoms.
B) There are four carbon and four hydrogen atoms.
C) This is an inorganic molecule.
D) This was involved in a redox reaction.

A) There is one carbon and four hydrogen atoms.

Amino acids joining together to make a peptide is a good example of a(n) ________ reaction.
A) synthesis
B) decomposition
C) exchange
D) reversible

A) synthesis

Which of the following is not considered a factor in influencing a reaction?
A) temperature
B) concentration
C) particle size
D) time

D) time

Which of the following is not an electrolyte?
A) HCl
B) Ca2CO3
C) H2O
D) NaOH

C) H2O

Which property of water is demonstrated when we sweat?
A) high heat capacity
B) high heat of vaporization
C) polar solvent properties
D) reactivity
E) cushioning

B) high heat of vaporization

Sucrose is a ________.
A) monosaccharide
B) disaccharide
C) polysaccharide
D) triglyceride

B) disaccharide

What is the ratio of fatty acids to glycerol in neutral fats?
A) 1:1
B) 2:1
C) 3:1
D) 4:1

C) 3:1

In a DNA molecule, the phosphate serves ________.
A) as a code
B) to hold the molecular backbone together
C) to bind the sugars to their bases
D) as nucleotides

B) to hold the molecular backbone together

Heat shock proteins (hsp) are a type of protein called ________.
A) coenzymes
B) cofactors
C) eicosanoids
D) chaperonins

D) chaperonins

Which bonds often bind different parts of a molecule into a specific three-dimensional shape?
A) Carbon
B) Hydrogen
C) Oxygen
D) Amino acid

B) Hydrogen

Which of the following is true regarding the generation of a membrane potential?
A) Both potassium and sodium ions can "leak" through the cell membrane due to diffusion.
B) In the polarized state, sodium and potassium ion concentrations are in static equilibrium.
C) The maintenance of the potential is based exclusively on diffusion processes.
D) When the sodium-potassium pump is activated, potassium is pumped into the cell twice as fast as the sodium is pumped out, thus causing the membrane potential.

A) Both potassium and sodium ions can "leak" through the cell membrane due to diffusion.

Which statement best describes transcytosis?
A) combining an endosome with a lysosome and degrading or releasing the contents
B) transporting an endosome from one side of a cell to the other and releasing the contents by exocytosis
C) recycling the contents of the endosome back to the surface of the cell
D) storing the contents of the endosome

B) transporting an endosome from one side of a cell to the other and releasing the contents by exocytosis

In certain kinds of muscle cells, calcium ions are stored in ________.
A) the smooth ER
B) the rough ER
C) both smooth and rough ER
D) the cytoplasm

A) the smooth ER

The RNA responsible for bringing the amino acids to the "factory" site for protein formation is ________.
A) rRNA
B) mRNA
C) tRNA
D) ssRNA

C) tRNA

A red blood cell placed in pure water would ________.
A) shrink
B) swell initially, then shrink as equilibrium is reached
C) neither shrink nor swell
D) swell and burst

D) swell and burst

Which of the following describes the plasma membrane?
A) a single-layered membrane that surrounds the nucleus of the cell
B) a double layer of protein enclosing the plasma
C) the phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell
D) a membrane composed of tiny shelves or cristae

C) the phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell

Which of these is not a function of the plasma membrane?
A) It is selectively permeable.
B) It prevents potassium ions from leaking out and sodium ions from crossing into the cell.
C) It acts as a site of cell-to-cell interaction and recognition.
D) It encloses the cell contents.

B) It prevents potassium ions from leaking out and sodium ions from crossing into the cell.

Which structures are fingerlike projections that greatly increase the absorbing surface of cells?
A) stereocilia
B) microvilli
C) cilia
D) flagella

B) microvilli

Which of the following statements is correct regarding diffusion?
A) The rate of diffusion is independent of temperature.
B) The greater the concentration of gradient, the faster the rate of diffusion.
C) Molecular weight of a substance does not affect the rate of diffusion.
D) The lower the temperature, the faster the diffusion rate.

B) The greater the concentration of gradient, the faster the rate of diffusion.

Cell junctions that promote the coordinated activity of cells by physically binding them together into a cell community include all of the following except ________.
A) gap junctions
B) desmosomes
C) peroxisomes
D) tight junctions

C) peroxisomes

If cells are placed in a hypertonic solution containing a solute to which the membrane is impermeable, what could happen?
A) The cells will swell and ultimately burst.
B) The cells will lose water and shrink.
C) The cells will shrink at first, but will later reach equilibrium with the surrounding solution and return to their original condition.
D) The cells will show no change due to diffusion of both solute and solvent.

B) The cells will lose water and shrink.

Which of the following is not a subcellular structure?
A) intercellular material
B) membranes
C) cytoplasm
D) organelles

A) intercellular material

Once solid material is phagocytized and taken into a vacuole, which of the following statements best describes what happens?
A) A ribosome enters the vacuole and uses the amino acids in the "invader" to form new protein.
B) A lysosome combines with the vacuole and digests the enclosed solid material.
C) The vacuole remains separated from the cytoplasm and the solid material persists unchanged.
D) Nitrogen enters the vacuole and "burns" the enclosed solid material.

B) A lysosome combines with the vacuole and digests the enclosed solid material.

Riboswitches are folded RNAs that act as switches to turn protein synthesis on or off in response to _________.
A) changes in the environment
B) specific tRNAs
C) specific codes from the DNA
D) the presence or absence of ubiquitins

A) changes in the environment

Which of the following is a function of a plasma membrane protein?
A) circulating antibody
B) molecular transport through the membrane
C) forms a lipid bilayer
D) oxygen transport

B) molecular transport through the membrane

Which of the following statements is correct regarding RNA?
A) Messenger RNA, transfer RNA, and ribosomal RNA play a role in protein synthesis.
B) If the base sequence of DNA is ATTGCA, the messenger RNA template will be UCCAGU.
C) There is exactly one specific type of mRNA for each amino acid.
D) rRNA is always attached to the rough ER.

A) Messenger RNA, transfer RNA, and ribosomal RNA play a role in protein synthesis.

Which of the following would not be a constituent of a plasma membrane?
A) glycolipids
B) messenger RNA
C) glycoproteins
D) phospholipids

B) messenger RNA

Mitosis ________.
A) is the formation of sex cells
B) produces nucleus replication
C) creates diversity in genetic potential
D) always results in division of a cell

B) produces nucleus replication

The electron microscope has revealed that one of the components within the cell consists of microtubules arranged to form a hollow tube. This structure is a ________.
A) centrosome
B) centriole
C) chromosome
D) ribosome

B) centriole

Which of these is an inclusion, not an organelle?
A) melanin
B) lysosome
C) microtubule
D) cilia

A) melanin

Which of the following is not a factor that binds cells together?
A) glycoproteins in the glycocalyx
B) glycolipids in the glycocalyx
C) wavy contours of the membranes of adjacent cells
D) special membrane junctions

B) glycolipids in the glycocalyx

If the nucleotide or base sequence of the DNA strand used as a template for messenger RNA synthesis is ACGTT, then what would be the sequence of bases in the corresponding mRNA?
A) TGCAA
B) ACGTT
C) UGCAA
D) GUACC

C) UGCAA

Which transport process is the main mechanism for the movement of most macromolecules by body cells?
A) phagocytosis
B) pinocytosis
C) receptor-mediated endocytosis
D) secondary active transport

C) receptor-mediated endocytosis

Caveolae are closely associated with all but which of the following?
A) lipid rafts
B) receptors for hormones
C) enzymes involved in cell regulation
D) enzymes involved in cell metabolism

D) enzymes involved in cell metabolism

Passive membrane transport processes include ________.
A) movement of a substance down its concentration gradient
B) movement of water from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration
C) consumption of ATP
D) the use of transport proteins when moving substances from areas of low to high concentration

A) movement of a substance down its concentration gradient

Enzymes called _________ destroy the cell's DNA and cytoskeleton, producing a quick death of the cell.
A) ubiquitins
B) cyclins
C) caspases
D) DNA polymerase III

C) caspases

Mitochondria ________.
A) are always the same shape
B) are single-membrane structures involved in the breakdown of ATP
C) contain some of the DNA and RNA code necessary for their own function
D) synthesize proteins for use outside the cell

C) contain some of the DNA and RNA code necessary for their own function

Ribosomes, endoplasmic reticulum, and the Golgi apparatus functionally act in sequence to synthesize and modify proteins for secretory use (export) only, never for use by the cell. This statement is ________.
A) false, proteins thus manufactured are for use inside the cell only
B) false, integral cell membrane proteins are also synthesized this way
C) false, lipids, not proteins, are synthesized this way
D) true

B) false integral cell membrane proteins are also synthesized this way

Peroxisomes ________.
A) are also called microbodies, and contain acid hydrolases
B) are able to detoxify substances by enzymatic action
C) function to digest particles ingested by endocytosis
D) sometimes function as secretory vesicles

B) are able to detoxify substances by enzymatic action

DNA replication ________.
A) can also be called mitosis
B) is spontaneous, not requiring enzyme action
C) takes place during interphase of the cell cycle
D) occurs only in translationally active areas

C) takes place during interphase of the cell cycle

Which statement is the most correct regarding transcription/translation?
A) The nucleotide sequence in a mRNA codon is an exact copy of the DNA triplet that coded for it.
B) The nucleotide sequence in a mRNA codon is an exact copy of the DNA triplet that coded for it except that uracil is substituted for thymine.
C) The nucleotide sequence in a tRNA anticodon is an exact copy of the DNA triplet that coded for it.
D) The nucleotide sequence in a tRNA anticodon is an exact copy of the DNA triplet that coded for it except that uracil is substituted for thymine.

D) The nucleotide sequence in a tRNA anticodon is an exact copy of the DNA triplet that coded for it except that uracil is substituted for thymine.

In the maintenance of the cell resting membrane potential ________.
A) extracellular sodium levels are high
B) cells are more permeable to Na+ than K+
C) the steady state involves only passive processes in all cells
D) the inside of the cell is positive relative to its outside

A) extracellular sodium levels are high

Which of the following is a concept of the cell theory?
A) Simple cells can arise spontaneously from rotting vegetation.
B) A cell is the basic structural and functional unit of living organisms.
C) The subcellular organelle is the basic unit of life.
D) Only higher organisms are composed of cells.

B) A cell is the basic structural and functional unit of living organisms.

Which of the following does not serve as a signal for cell division?
A) repressor genes
B) joining of cyclins and Cdks
C) contact inhibition
D) surface-to-volume ratio

A) repressor genes

Which of the following is a principle of the fluid mosaic model of cell membrane structure?
A) Phospholipids form a bilayer that is largely impermeable to water-soluble molecules.
B) Phospholipids consist of a polar head and a nonpolar tail made of three fatty acid chains.
C) The lipid bilayer is a solid at body temperature, thus protecting the cell.
D) All proteins associated with the cell membrane are contained in a fluid layer on the outside of the cell.

A) Phospholipids form a bilayer that is largely impermeable to water-soluble molecules.

Which of the following statements is most correct regarding the intracellular chemical signals known as "second messengers"?
A) Second messengers act through receptors called K-proteins.
B) Second messengers usually inactivate protein kinase enzymes.
C) Cyclic AMP and calcium may be second messengers.
D) Second messengers usually act to remove nitric oxide (NO) from the cell.

C) Cyclic AMP and calcium may be second messengers.

The main component of the cytosol is ________.
A) proteins
B) sugars
C) salts
D) water

D) water

Lysosomes ________.
A) are always used for the cell to "commit suicide"
B) contain acid hydrolases that are potentially dangerous to the cell
C) maintain a highly alkaline internal environment
D) are the major site of protein synthesis

B) contain acid hydrolases that are potentially dangerous to the cell

The endomembrane system is ________.
A) a system by which cells are riveted together by desmosomes
B) an interactive system of organelles whose membranes are physically or functionally connected
C) the process by which bacteria took up residence in ancient cells
D) a system of hydrophilic lipid monolayers that surround many cell organelles

B) an interactive system of organelles whose membranes are physically or functionally connected

The functions of centrioles include ________.
A) organizing the mitotic spindle in cell division
B) providing a whiplike beating motion to move substances along cell surfaces
C) serving as the site for ribosomal RNA synthesis
D) producing ATP

A) organizing the mitotic spindle in cell division

A gene can best be defined as ________.
A) a three-base triplet that specifies a particular amino acid
B) noncoding segments of DNA up to 100,000 nucleotides long
C) a segment of DNA that carries the instructions for one polypeptide chain
D) an RNA messenger that codes for a particular polypeptide

C) a segment of DNA that carries the instructions for one polypeptide chain

Extracellular matrix is ________.
A) composed of strands of actin protein
B) the most abundant extracellular material
C) a type of impermeable cell junction found in epithelia
D) not present in connective tissue

B) the most abundant extracellular material

Crenation is likely to occur in blood cells in ________.
A) an isotonic solution
B) a hypotonic solution
C) a hypertonic solution
D) blood plasma

C) a hypertonic solution

Some hormones enter cells via ________.
A) exocytosis
B) endocytosis
C) pinocytosis
D) receptor-mediated endocytosis

D) receptor-mediated endocytosis

If a tRNA had an AGC anticodon, it could attach to a(n) ________ mRNA codon.
A) AUG
B) UCG
C) TCG
D) UGA

B) UCG

Which of the following is not found in the matrix of cartilage but is in bone?
A) live cells
B) lacunae
C) blood vessels
D) organic fibers

C) blood vessels

The reason that intervertebral discs exhibit a large amount of tensile strength to absorb shock is because they possess ________.
A) hydroxyapatite crystals
B) collagen fibers
C) reticular fibers
D) elastic fibers

B) collagen fibers

What tissue has lacunae, calcium salts, and blood vessels?
A) cartilage tissue
B) fibrocartilaginous tissue
C) osseous tissue
D) areolar tissue

C) osseous tissue

How is hyaline cartilage different from elastic or fibrocartilage?
A) It is more vascularized.
B) It contains more nuclei.
C) Fibers are not normally visible.
D) It has more elastic fibers.

C) Fibers are not normally visible.

Epithelial tissue ________.
A) is highly vascularized
B) has a basement membrane
C) is usually acellular
D) contains a number of neuron types

B) has a basement membrane

Which of the following would be of most importance to goblet cells and other glandular epithelium?
A) microvilli
B) Golgi bodies
C) lysosomes
D) multiple nuclei

B) Golgi bodies

Mammary glands exhibit a glandular type called ________.
A) simple tubular
B) compound tubular
C) simple alveolar
D) compound alveolar

D) compound alveolar

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