rad 5

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If the exposure rate to a body standing 3 feet from a radiation source is 12 mR/min, what will be the exposure rate to that body at a distance of 7 feet from the source?
A. 2.2 mR/min
B. 5.1 mR/min
C. 28 mR/min
D. 36 mR/min

A.
2.2 mR/min

The term latitude describes
1.emulsion's ability to record range densities.
2.degree of error tolerated with given exposure factors.
3. the conversion efficiency of a given intensifying screen.

1,2

The developer temperature in a 90-second automatic processor is usually about
A. 75° to 80°F.
B. 80° to 85°F.
C. 85° to 90°F.
D. 90° to 95°F

D.
90° to 95°F

The correct way(s) to check for cracks in lead aprons (are)
1. to fluoroscope them once a year.
2. to radiograph them at low kilovoltage twice a year.
3. by visual inspection.

1. to fluoroscope them once a year

OID is related to recorded detail in which of the following ways?
A. Radiographic detail is directly related to OID.
B. Radiographic detail inversely related to OID.
C. As OID increases, so does radiographic detail.
D. OID is unrelated to radiographic detail

B.
Radiographic detail is inversely related to OID

In digital imaging, as the size of the image matrix increases:
1. FOV increases
2. pixel size decreases
3. spatial resolution increases

2. pixel size decreases
3. spatial resolution increases

The ARRT Rules of Ethics are
1. aspirational.
2. mandatory.
3. minimally acceptable standards.

2. mandatory.
3. minimally acceptable standards

The advantages of digital subtraction angiography over film angiography include
1. greater sensitivity to contrast medium.
2. immediately available images.
3. increased resolution.

1. greater sensitivity to contrast medium.
2. immediately available images.

Which of the following is (are) required for a lateral projection of the skull?
1. The IOML is parallel to the IR.
2. The MSP is perpendicular to the IR.
3. The CR enters 2 inches superior to the external auditory meatus (EAM)

B.
1 and 3 only

Which of the following is (are) accurate positioning or evaluation criteria for an anteroposterior projection of the normal knee?
1.Femorotibial interspaces equal bilaterally
2.Patella superimposed on distal tibia
3.CR enters 1/2 in distal to base of patella

A.
1 only

Which of the following procedures will best demonstrate the cephalic, basilic, and subclavian veins?
A. Aortofemoral arteriogram
B. Upper-limb venogram
C. Lower-limb venogram
D. Renal venogram

B. Upper-limb venogram

Which combination of exposure factors will most likely contribute to producing the longest-scale contrast?
Film-Screen Grid Field
mAs kVp System Ratio Size
(A) 10 70 400 5:1 14 x 17 inches
(B) 12 90 200 8:1 14 x 17 inches
(C) 15 90 200 12:1 8 x 10 inches
(D) 20 80 400 10:1 11 x 14 inches

B.
Group B. Review the groups of factors. First, because mAs has no effect on the scale of contrast produced, eliminate mAs from consideration by drawing a line through the column. Then, check the two entries in each column that are most likely to produce long-scale contrast. For example, in the kVp column, because higher kVp will produce longer-scale contrast, place check marks next to each 90 kVp. In the film-screen column, the slower screens (200) will produce lower (longer scale) contrast than the faster screens; place a check mark next to each. Because lower ratio grids permit a larger quantity of scattered radiation to reach the IR, the 5:1 and 8:1 grids will produce a longer scale of contrast than the higher ratio grids; check them. As the volume of irradiated tissue increases, so does the amount of scattered radiation produced and, consequently, the longer the scale of radiographic contrast; therefore, check the 14 x 17-inch field sizes. An overview shows that the factors in groups A and C have two check marks, whereas the factors in group B have four check marks, indicating that group B will produce the longest-scale contrast.

Disadvantages of moving grids over stationary grids include which of the following?
1.They can prohibit the use of very short exposure times.
2.They increase patient radiation dose.
3.They can cause phantom images when anatomic parts parallel their motion.

1,2

In which of the following procedures is quiet, shallow breathing recommended during the exposure to obliterate prominent pulmonary vascular markings?
1. RAO sternum
2. Lateral thoracic spine
3. AP scapula

1,2,3

Which of the following projections of the calcaneus is obtained with the leg extended, the plantar surface of the foot vertical and perpendicular to the IR, and the central ray directed 40° caudad?
A. Axial plantodorsal projection
B. Axial dorsoplantar projection
C. Lateral projection
D. Weight-bearing lateral projection

B.
Axial dorsoplantar projection

To demonstrate a profile view of the glenoid fossa, the patient is AP recumbent and obliqued 45°
A. toward the affected side.
B. away from the affected side.
C. with the arm at the side in the anatomic position.
D. with the arm in external rotation

A.
toward the affected side

All of the following statements regarding TLDs are true except
A. TLDs are reusable.
B. TLDs store energy.
C. The TLD's response is proportional to the quantity of radiation received.
D. Following x-ray exposure, TLDs are exposed to light and emit a quantity of heat in response.

D. Following x-ray exposure, TLDs are exposed to light and emit a quantity of heat in response.

Examples of nasogastric tubes include
1. Swan-Ganz.
2. Salem-sump.
3. Levin

C.
2 and 3 only

A radiograph made with a parallel grid demonstrates decreased density on its lateral edges. This is most likely due to
A. static electrical discharge.
B. the grid being off-centered.
C. improper tube angle.
D. decreased SID.

D.
decreased SID.

To obtain an exact axial projection of the clavicle, place the patient
A. supine and angle the central ray 30° caudally.
B. prone and angle the central ray 30° cephalad.
C. supine and angle the central ray 15° cephalad.
D. in a lordotic position and direct the central ray at right angles to the coronal plane of the clavicle.

D. in a lordotic position and direct the central ray at right angles to the coronal plane of the clavicle.

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding lower-extremity venography?
1.The patient is often examined in the semierect position.
2.Contrast medium is injected through a vein in the foot.
3.Imaging begins at the hip and proceeds inferiorly.

1,2

If the exposure rate at 2.0 meters from a source of radiation is 18 mR/min, what will be the exposure rate at 5 meters from the source?
A. 2.8 mR/min
B. 4.5 mR/min
C. 18 mR/min
D. 85 mR/min

A. 2.8 mR/min

The exposure factors of 300 mA, 0.07 second, and 95 kVp were used to produce a particular radiographic density and contrast. A similar radiograph can be produced using 500 mA, 80 kVp, and
A. 0.01 second.
B. 0.04 second.
C. 0.08 second.
D. 0.16 second

C. 0.08 second

How does filtration affect the primary beam?
A. It increases the average energy of the primary beam.
B. It decreases the average energy of the primary beam.
C. it makes the primary beam more penetrating.
D. It increases the intensity of the primary beam.

A. It increases the average energy of the primary beam

What angle is formed by the median sagittal plane and the IR in the parieto-orbital projection (Rhese method) of the optic canal?
A. 90°
B. 37°
C. 53°
D. 45°

C. 53°

With the patient PA, MSP centered to the grid, the OML forming a 37° angle with the IR, and the central ray perpendicular and exiting the acanthion, which of the following is best demonstrated?
A. Occipital bone
B. Frontal bone
C. Facial bones
D. Basal foramina

C. Facial bones

During atrial systole, blood flows into the right ventricle by way of what valve?
A. Pulmonary semilunar
B. Aortic
C. Mitral
D. Tricuspid

D. Tricuspid

Which of the following are demonstrated in the lateral projection of the thoracic spine?
1. Intervertebral spaces
2. Apophyseal joints
3. Intervertebral foramina

1,3

To radiograph an infant for suspected free air within the abdominal cavity, which of the following projections of the abdomen will demonstrate the condition with the least patient exposure?
A. PA erect with grid
B. Right lateral decubitus with grid
C. Right lateral decubitus without grid
D. Recumbent AP without grid

C. Right lateral decubitus without grid

Which type of personnel radiation monitor can provide an immediate reading?
A. TLD
B. OSL
C. film badge
D. ionization chamber

D. ionization chamber

What is the minimum requirement for lead aprons, according to CFR 20?
A. 0.05 mm Pb
B. 0.50 mm Pb
C. 0.25 mm Pb
D. 1.0 mm Pb

C. 0.25 mm Pb

The photoelectric effect is the interaction between x-ray photons and matter that is largely responsible for patient dose. The photoelectric effect is likely to occur under which of the following conditions?
1. With absorbers of high atomic number
2. With low-energy incident photons
3. With the use of positive contrast media

1,2,3

To "excuse" suboptimal images, a radiographer makes a note on the exam requisition claiming that the patient "was uncooperative." That radiographer can legally be found guilty of
A. malpractice.
B. slander.
C. libel.
D. tort

C. libel.

Which of the following radiologic examinations requires preparation consisting of a low-residue diet, cathartics, and enemas?
A. Upper GI series
B. Small-bowel series
C. Barium enema
D. IV cystogram

C. Barium enema

An esophagogram might be requested for patients with which of the following esophageal disorders/symptoms?
1. Varices
2. Achalasia
3. Dysphasia

1,2

When examining a patient whose elbow is in partial flexion, how should an AP projection be obtained?
1. With humerus parallel to IR, central ray perpendicular
2. With forearm parallel to IR, central ray perpendicular
3. Through the partially flexed elbow, resting on the olecranon process, central ray perpendicular

1,2

Symptoms associated with a respiratory reaction to contrast media include
1. sneezing.
2. dyspnea.
3. asthma attack.

1,2,3

Which of the following groups of technical factors will produce the greatest radiographic density?
A. 400 mA, 0.010 second, 94 kVp, 100-speed screens
B. 500 mA, 0.008 second, 94 kVp, 200-speed screens
C. 200 mA, 0.040 second, 94 kVp, 50-speed screens
D. 100 mA, 0.020 second, 80 kVp, 200-speed screens

B. 500 mA, 0.008 second, 94 kVp, 200-speed screens

Resolution in computed radiography increases as
1. laser beam size decreases
2. monitor matrix size decreases
3. PSP crystal size decreases

C.
1 and 3 only

Which of the following defines the gonadal dose that, if received by every member of the population, would be expected to produce the same total genetic effect on that population as the actual doses received by each of the individuals?
A. Genetically significant dose
B. Somatically significant dose
C. Maximum permissible dose
D. Lethal dose

A. Genetically significant dose

Examples of COPD include
1. bronchitis.
2. pulmonary emphysema.
3. bronchiectasis

1,2,3

What minimum total amount of filtration (inherent plus added) is required in x-ray equipment operated above 70 kVp?

A.
2.5 mm Al equivalent

The line focus principle refers to the fact that
A. the actual focal spot is larger than the effective focal spot.
B. the effective focal spot is larger than the actual focal spot.
C. x-rays travel in straight lines.
D. x-rays cannot be focused.

A. the actual focal spot is larger than the effective focal spot.

Disadvantage(s) of using low kV technical factors include
1. insufficient penetration.
2. increased patient dose.
3. diminished latitude.

1,2,3

The medical term used to describe the expectoration of blood is
A. hematemesis.
B. hemoptysis.
C. hematuria.
D. epistaxis.

B. hemoptysis

As the image intensifier's FOV is reduced, how is the resulting image affected?
1. Magnification increases
2. Brightness decreases
3. Quality increases

1,2,3

Which of the following circuit devices operate(s) on the principle of self-induction?
1. Autotransformer
2. Choke coil
3. High-voltage transformer

1,2

What type of shock results from loss of blood?
A. Septic
B. Neurogenic
C. Cardiogenic
D. Hypovolemic

D. Hypovolemic

The use of which of the following devices helps reduce patient dose?
1. Grid
2. Collimator
3. Gonad shield

2,3

What percentage of x-ray attenuation does a 0.5-mm lead equivalent apron at 100 kVp provide?
A. 51%
B. 66%
C. 75%
D. 94%

C. 75%

The submentovertical (SMV) oblique axial projection of the zygomatic arches requires that the skull be rotated
A. 15° toward the affected side.
B. 15° away from the affected side.
C. 45° toward the affected side.
D. 45° away from the affected side

A. 15° toward the affected side.

If the patient's zygomatic arch has been traumatically depressed or the patient has flat cheekbones, the arch may be demonstrated by modifying the SMV projection and rotating the patient's head
A. 15° toward the side being examined.
B. 15° away from the side being examined.
C. 30° toward the side being examined.
D. 30° away from the side being examined

A. 15° toward the side being examined

The most commonly used types of AEC devices are the
1. ion chamber.
2. photomultiplier tube.
3. cathode ray tube.

1,2

improper spectral matching between rare earth intensifying screens and film emulsion results in
A. longer-scale contrast.
B. insufficient density.
C. decreased recorded detail.
D. excessive density.

B. insufficient density.

Which of the following materials may be used as grid interspace material?
1. Lead
2. Plastic
3. Aluminum

2,3

Synovial fluid is associated with the
A. brain.
B. spinal canal.
C. peritoneal cavity.
D. bony articulations.

D. bony articulations.

A satisfactory radiograph of the abdomen was made at a 42-inch SID using 300 mA, 0.06-second exposure, and 80 kVp. If the distance is changed to 38 inches, what new exposure time would be required?
A. 0.02 second
B. 0.05 second
C. 0.12 second
D. 0.15 second

The answer is B.
EXPLANATION: According to the inverse square law of radiation, as the distance between the radiation source and the IR decreases, the exposure rate increases. Therefore, a decrease in technical factors is indicated. The density maintenance formula is used to determine new mAs values when changing distance:
Then, to determine the new exposure time (mA x s = mAs),
300x = 14.7
x = 0.049 second at 300 mA

Which of the following sinus groups is demonstrated with the patient positioned as for a parietoacanthial projection (Waters' method) and the central ray directed through the patient's open mouth?
A. Frontal
B. Ethmoidal
C. Maxillary
D. Sphenoidal

D. Sphenoidal

Late or long-term effects of radiation exposure are generally represented by which of the following dose-response curves?
A. Linear threshold
B. Linear nonthreshold
C. Nonlinear threshold
D. Nonlinear nonthreshold

B. Linear nonthreshold

The infection streptococcal pharyngitis (strep throat) is caused by a
A. virus.
B. fungus.
C. protozoon.
D. bacterium

D. bacterium

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