med 4 final

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swirlszz  on September 10, 2011

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med 4 final

1- A blood vessel that carries oxygen-poor blood from heart to lungs.
Pulmonary artery
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1- A blood vessel that carries oxygen-poor blood from heart to lungs. Pulmonary artery
2- Contraction phase of the heartbeat systole
3- Located between the left upper and lower chambers of the heart. Mitral valve
4- Saclike membrane surrounding the heart pericardium
5- Sensitive tissue in the right atrium wall that begins the heartbeat sinoatrial node
6- Blood vessels branching from the aorta to carry oxygen-rich blood to the heart muscle coronary arteries
7- Disease of heart muscle cardiomyopathy
8- Inflammation of a vein Phlebitis
9- Instrument to measure blood pressure sphygmomanometer
10- A local widening of an artery aneurysm
11- Bluish coloration of the skin Cyanosis
12- Can lead to myocardial infarction. Blood is held back from an area. Can be caused by thrombotic occlusion of a blood vessel. May be a result of coronary artery disease. Ischemia
13- Breakdown of recipient's red blood cells when incompatible bloods are mixed hemolysis
14- Sideropenia occurs, causing deficient production of hemoglobin. iron-deficiency anemia
15- Reduction in red cells due to excessive cell destruction. hemolytic anemia
16- Failure of blood cell production due to absence of formation of cells in the bone marrow. APLASTIC ANEMIA
17- Inherited defect in ability to produce hemoglobin. Thalassemia
18- Lack of mature red cells - due to - inability to absorb vitamin B12 into the body Pernicious Anemia
19- excessive deposits of iron throughout the body hemochromatosis
20- symptoms of pallor, shortness of breath, infection, bleeding gums, predominance of immature and abnormally functioning leukocytes, and low numbers of mature neutrophils in a young child may indicate a likely diagnosis of Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia
21- Excessive bleeding caused by congenital lack of factor VIII or IX Hemophilia
22- venous blood is clotted in a test tube to measure...? coagulation time
23- Sample of blood is spun in a test tube so that red cells fall to the bottom and percentage of RBCs is taken Hematocrit
24- blood smear is examined to determine the shape or form (morphology) of cells. Red blood cell morphology
25) Yellowish region in the retina; contains the fovea centralis Macula lutea
26) Place where optic nerve fibers cross in the brain Optic chiasma
27) Photosensitive receptor cells of the retina; make the perception of color possible Cones
28) The combining form for lens is? Cycl/o
29) An eye inflammation commonly calld "pinkeye is" Conjunctivitis
30) Myopia (is which form of sightedness?) Nearsightedness
31) Glaucoma is primarily diagnosed by Tonometry
32) Macular degeneration produces loss of central vision
33) Snail shaped, spirally wound tube in the inner ear is the cochlea
34) Myring/o means tympanic membrane (myears are myringing!)
35) Tinnitus ringing in the ears
36) nerve deafness occurring with aging presbycusis
37. Which term describes the spread of malignant tumors to a distant location? metastasis
38- Wis a description of a fungating tumor? mushrooming pattern of growth as tumor cells pile on top of each other
39- What term describes localized tumor growth? Carcinoma "in situ"
40- What does "staging" a tumor mean? Assessing the extent of tumor spread
41- What does the notation T1N2M0 mean? Tumor is present - with palpable lymph nodes - and no metastases
42- Which is an example of genetic material that causes cancer? ONCOGENES
43- What is the meaning of fulguration? destruction of tissue by electric sparks
44- What is a definition of modality? method of treatment
45- Which is a description ofcauterization? Treating tissue with heat
46- What term means assisting or aiding? adjuvant
47- Which is a description of an estrogen receptor assay? tests for the concentration of hormone receptor sites in cells of BREAST CANCER patients
48- What best describes interferon? biological response modifier
49- Which term means cancerous tumor derived from bone? Osteogenic Sarcoma
50- a side effect of chemotheraphy or radiotherapy (hair loss) alopecia
51- Hypoplasia of bone marrow Meylosuppression
52) What is the medical speciality that studies the characteristics and uses of radioactive substances in diagnosis of disease? Nuclear Medicine
53) What does a radiologist do? Specializes diagnostic techniques such as ultrasound, MRI, and CT scans
54) Which of the following is true of a radiopaque substance? Absorbs most of the x-rays it is exposed to.
55) Which best describes a barium enema? metallic powder is introduced to the large intestine and x-rays are taken.
56) X-Ray of the renal pelvis and urinary tract after injecting dye into a vein? IVP (Intravenous Pyelogram)
57) X-Ray of the spinal cord Myelogram
58) Arthrogram An x-ray of a joint
59) Tomography describes an x-ray to show an organ in depth
60) What best characterizes a CT scan? uses ionizing x-rays and a computer to produce a transverse image of the body organs
61) What best characterizes an MRI? sagittal, frontal, and cross-sectional images are produced using magnetic and radio waves
62) in which x-ray view is the patient upright with the back to the x-ray machineand the film to the chest? PA view
63) What is the meaning of adduction Moving the part of the body towards the midline of the body
64) What is a substance? that gives off high-energy particles or rays Radioisotope
In which test is a radiopharmaceutical injected intravenously and traced within the vessels of the lung? Perfusion study of the lung
66) What is an "in vivo" test? Experiments are performed in a LIVING organism (in vivo = in living)
67) What can liver and spleen scans detect? Cirrhosis and splenomegaly due to abscess or tumor
68) Interventional radiologists perform all of the following except? ..except.. Administration of radiation therapy.
69) What is Thallium 201? radionuclide
70) In which procedure is a transducer used? Ultrasound
71) PACS is a ? system to replace traditional films with digital equivalents
72) FDG is a? Radiopharmaceutical used ina PET scan
73) DICOM is a? Protocol for transmission between imaging devices
74) SPECT is a? technique using a radioactive substance and ac ompuer to create three-dimensional images
75) Estrogen Endocrine drug
76) Amphetamine and caffeine Stimulant drug
77) What is the effect of a diuretic lowers blood pressure by promoting fluid excretion from the kidney
78) Penicillin is an example of which type of drug antibiotic
79) A drug that works against fever is Antipyretic
80) Drusgs that control anxiety and severe disturbances of behavior Tranquilizers
81) Drugs that relax without necessarily producing sleep Sedatives
82) Drugs used to relieve pain, induce sleep, and suppress cough Analgesics
83) Drugs that produce loss of sensation throughout the entire body Anesthetics
84) Drugs used to treat epilepsy Anticonvulsants
Preoccupation with one's self and lack of responsiveness to others is a characteristic of Autism
False or unreal sensory perceptions are called Hallucinations
What best describes repression? defense mechanism in which unacceptable thoughts are pushed into the unconscious
Fear of leaving one's home is: agoraphobia
hich [of the following] Psychotherapies uses free association and transference? Psychoanalysis
alternating moods of exalted feelings and excitement with moods of extreme sadness and decreased activity bipolar disorder
Short depressive periods and moods with no psychotic features Dysthymic disorder
Numerous periods of mania and depression, but not of long duration; no psychotic features Cyclothymic disorder
Resembling mania, but not as severe Hypomania
Severe dysphoric mood with psychotic features Major Depression
Grandiose sense of self-importance and preoccupation with fantasies of success and power narcissistic
96) Continually suspicious and mistrustful of other people Paranoid
No loyalty or concern for others; without moral standards Antisocial
Emotionally cold and aloof; indifferent to praise or criticism and to the feeligns of others Schizoid
Emotional, immature, and dependent; irrational outbursts and flamboyant behavior Histrionic
Fear of obesity in which binge eating is followed by induced vomiting bulimia nervosa

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