Pharmacology II Set III
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Created by:
drakemc on October 4, 2011
Classes:
SGU SVM Class of 2014 (August 2010 Entering Class)
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127 terms
Terms | Definitions |
|---|---|
 Arteriolar dilators decrease systemic vascular resistance which decreases afterload, what effect does this have on the heart? | Decreases myocardial oxygen demand Increases cardiac output |
| What does peripheral venodilation accomplish? | Antagonistic rsponse to pulmonary edema (decreased preload) |
| What type of drugs are the preferred drug of choice for management of CHF? | Vasodilators decrease workload on failing heart |
| What are some drawback to using vasodilators? | Venodilation does not necessarily increase peripheral perfusion and oxygen availability to all tissues Reflex tachycardia due to vasodilation increases myocardial oxygen demand |
| What drug is the most efficient vasodilator used in hypertensive emergencies, dilates arteries and veins, given IV, and can be administered with dobutamine? | Sodium nitroprusside |
| What drug is an ateriolar vasodilator, opens potassium channels in arteriolar smooth muscle membranes, and is intended for dogs and cats? | Hydralazine |
| What is a side effect of Hydralazine and minoxidil? | Tachycardia |
| What drug is a selective a1-adrenergic blocking agent, is a peripheral vasodilator, has minimal reflex tachycardia, and must be used with digoxin when treating CHF? | Prazosin |
| What drug acts on vascular smooth muscle, relaxes large arteries to large veins, has a rapid onset of action (1-3 mins), and has oral bioavailability less than 1%? | Nitroglycerin |
| What drug is a non-selective B-adrenoceptor agonist, vasodilates skeletal muscle vasculature, relaxes uterine smooth muscle, and produces inotropic action on the heart? | Isoxsuprine |
| When is isoxsuprine clinically indicated? | Relieve parturition complications Navicular bone disease (administered as a powder added to feed) |
| What hormone is a potent vasoconstrictor agent and a stimulant of aldosterone secretion? | Angiotensin II |
| What drug was isolated from the venom of Bothrops jararaca, is an ACE inhibitor, and it's oral bioavailability is reduced when drug is administered with food? | Captopril |
| What are the actions of ACE inhibitors? | Inhibits enzyme peptidyl dipeptidase Inhibition of bradykinin degradation |
| What ACE inhibitor can be used as an alternative to digoxin in treatment of mild CHF in dogs and cats? | Enalapril |
| What dugs could decrease the hypotensive effect of enalapril? | NSAIDs |
| What drug combinations can be used to manage hypertension in dogs and cats? | Captopril-hydrochlorothiazide Enalapril-hydrochlorothiazide |
| What are the three main aims of treatment of acute left ventricular failure? | Improve gas exchange Enhance myocardial contractility Reduce the workload of the left ventricle |
| What drug, used to treat left ventricular failure, increases venous capacitance by redistributing venous blood from the lungs toward the peripheral circulation and is followed by a diuretic effect? | Furosemide |
| What drug relieves dyspnea and anxiety associated with left ventricular failure, is an opioid agonist, and has a hypotensive effect? | Morphine sulphate |
| Dogs that are treated with this drug for pulmonary edema associated with left ventricular failure will require maintenance therapy with digitalis? | Digoxin |
| What drug is contra-indicated in acute left ventricular failure due to its peripheral vasoconstriction and arrhythmogenic activity? | Epinephrine |
| What phase of the cardiac action potential has a rapid influx of Na ions, similar to a depolarization spike? | Phase 0 |
| What phase of the cardiac action potential has rapid repolarization and a short period in which the Na ion concentrations inside and outside the cardiac cell are equal? | Phase 1 |
| What phase of the cardiac action potential has a slow inward Ca current, as well as K ions efflux out of the cell? | Phase 2 |
| What phase of the cardiac action potential has a delayed repolarization phase, Na gates are closed, and K ions flow out of the cell? | Phase 3 |
| What phase of the cardiac action potential restores the cell membrane to resting membrane potential? | Phase 4 |
| What is an arrhythmia? | Abnormality in the rate, regularity or site of origin Disruption of impulse conduction |
| What class of antiarrhythmic drugs are membrane stabilizers/local anaesthetics? | Class I |
| What class of antiarrhythmic drugs are B-adrenergic antagonists? | Class II |
| What class of antiarrhythmic drugs are agents that prolong the refractory period? | Class III |
| What class of antiarrhythmic drugs are calcium channel blockers? | Class IV |
| What class of antiarrhythmic drugs have a more pronounced activity in the heart than in the nerve fibers, increases the threshold of excitability, decreases the conduction velocity, and prolongation of the effective refractory period? | Class I antiarrhythmic drugs |
| What drugs prolong the cardiac action potential duration and refractory period and are grouped in Class 1A antiarrhythmic drugs? | Quinidine Procainamide Disopyramide |
| What drugs produce a minimal shortening effect on action potential duration and refractory period and belong in the Class 1B antiarrhythmic drugs? | Lidocaine Phenytoin Tocainide Mexiletine Aprindine |
| What drugs reduce the maximal rate of phase 0 depolarization in normal as well as abnormal cardiac cells and belong to the Class 1C antiarrhythmic drugs? | Encainide Lorcainide Flecainide |
| What drug is the prototype of the Class II antiarrhythmic drugs? | Propanolol |
| What class of antiarrhythmic drugs are used to treat tachyarrhythmias, depress automacity, prolong AV conduction, decreases heart rate and contractility, and shortens the duration of the action potential? | Class II antiarrhythmic drugs |
| What are the newer agents in the Class II antiarrhythmic drugs? | Oxyprenolol Alprenolol Metoprolol Timolol Pindolol |
| What class of antiarrhythmic drugs produce a "pure" prolongation of the action potential, thereby extending refractory time, and is very effective against both supraventricular and ventricular arrhythmias? | Class III antiarrhythmic drugs |
| What drugs belong in the Class III antiarrhythmic drug class? | Bretylium Amiodarone |
| What class of antiarrhythmic drugs are calcium antagonists or Ca channel blockers and prolong the effective refractory period? | Class IV antiarrhythmic drugs |
| What drugs belong in the Class IV antiarrhythmic drug class? | Verapamil Diltiazem |
| What is the prototype drug for Class IV antiarrhythmic drugs? | Verapamil |
| What drugs enhance the efficacy of calcium channel blockers? | B-blockers |
| What are Class IV antiarrhythmic drugs used for clinically? | Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias Ventricular hypertrophy (dogs and cats) |
| What are the side effects of Class IV antiarrhythmic drugs? | Hypotension Bradycardia |
| What drugs can be used to control the ventricular rate in dogs and cats with atrial tachyarrhythmias? | Digitalis glycosides |
| What drug displaces digoxin from tissue binding sites? | Quinidine |
| What drug competively inhibits renal tubular secretion of digoxin? | Diltiazem |
| What drug comes from cinchona bark, has a direct depressant effect on Na permeability, prolongs the effective refractory period of atrial and ventricular muscle, and indirectly lengthens refractory period by its anticholinergic action? | Quinidine sulphate |
| What are the adverse effects of Quinidine sulphate? | Pronounced increase in ventricular rate, when quinidine is used to treat supraventricular tachyarrhythmias preceded by treatments with digitalis glycoside |
| What are the clinical uses of quinidine sulphate? | Ventricular premature complexes Ventricular tachycardia Maintenance therapy after electroconversion of atrial fibrillation and/or flutter |
| When is quinidine sulphate contraindicated? | Not recommended in AV block or interventricullar block |
| What is quinidine sulphate used to treat in horses? adverse effects? | Treatment of atrial fibrillation Adverse effects - urticarial wheals, digestive disturbances, inflammation of the nasal mucosa, laminitis, cardiovascular dysfunction and even death |
| What class 1A drug is a derivative of procaine and is more effective in controlling ventricular arrhythmias than atrial arrhythmias? | Procainamide Hydrocholoride |
| What are some signs of procainamide toxicosis? | Widening of the QRS complex Additional arrhythmias, bradycardia, tachycardia, or hypotension |
| What class 1B drug is an anticonvulsant drug that exerts antiarrhythmic activity on the heart similar to quinidine, shortens the refractory period and improves impulse conduction through damaged cardiac tissue by increasing conduction velocity? | Phenytoin sodium |
| What drug is considered effective in controlling digitalis-induced arrhythmias and for the treatment of ventricular arrhythmias? | Phenytoin |
| What drug inhibits the metabolism of phenytoin in dogs and tend to cause toxicosis when given together? | Chloramphenicol |
| What are some signs of phenytoin toxicosis? | Postural ataxia Hypermetric gait |
| What class 1B drug is effective in reverting ventricular dysrhythmias that develop during general anaesthesia, surgery, ischemia, and other forms of trauma and is used in cardiac emergencies? | Lidocaine hydrochloride |
| What class II drug is indicated for catecholamine induced supraventricular arrythmias and helps in controlling the ventricular rate during atrial fibrillation and flutter? | Propanolol hydrochloride |
| What is propanolol and B-blockers effective for the control of? | Supraventricular tachycardia Tachyarrhythmias associated with digitalis intoxication and physical exertion Arrhythmias during inhalation anaesthesia |
| What side effect do non-selective B-blockers have? | Cause airway obstruction |
| What cardioselective B1-blocker is the choice for patients with a history of chronic obstructive airway disease? | Metoprolol tartrate (use cautiously in patients with CHF) |
| What class IV drug is a systemic and coronary vasodilator, selectively inhibits transmembrane influx of Ca, and depresses SA and AV nodal discharge rates and conduction velocity? | Verapamil |
| What are some adverse effects of verapamil? | Decreased contractile response of the heart Reduced cardiac output Hypotension Induces pulmonary edema |
| What class III drug is a bromobenzyl quartenary ammonium compound, is an adrenergic nueronal blocking agent, and is effective in controlling ventricular arrhythmias? | Bretylium |
| When is Bretylium contraindicated? | When animal is anaesthetized with halogenated hydrocarbon anaesthetics |
| What class III drug prolongs the action potential and refractory period andhas a long biological half-life? | Amiodarone |
| What class 1A drug has electrophysiolgoic actions, biological half-life is only 2-3 hours, has pronounced atropine-like side effects, and exerts negative inotropic effects on the heart? | Disopyramide |
| What class 1B drug is a structural congener of lidocaine, is effective after oral administration, possess a long duration of action, and is effective against ventricular arrhythmias? | Tocainide |
| What class 1B drug is effective for treating ventricular arrhythmias for patients that are found to be lidocaine sensitive? | Mexiletine |
| What class 1B drug is effective against premature ventricular beats, supraventricular premature beats, and ventricular tachycardias? | Aprinidine |
| What are the side effects of Aprinidine? | Leukopenia, agranulocytosis, hepatotoxicosis Dose related untoward reacitons are hyptension, ataxia, nausea, seizures, transient depression |
| What drug is an alternative strategy for controlling ventricular arrhythmias in dogs resistant to standard anti-arrhythmic therapy? | Aprinidine |
| What drug possesses six times the potency of aprinidine with few side effects? | Indecainide |
| What drug is a mixed (a, B1 and B2) adenoceptor agonist, exerts positive and chronotropic actions on the heart (B1), vasoconstriction in many vascular beds (a), and vasodilation (B2)? | Epinephrine |
| What are some clinical indications for epinephrine use? | Acute allergic and anaphylactic reactions Cardiac arrest Local anaesthetic at low dose with lidocaine |
| What are some contraindications of epinephrine use? | Acute left ventricular failure Cardiac emergencies during anaesthesia |
| What non-selective B-adrenoceptor agonist has a positive inotropic and chronotropic actions of the heart, causes dilation of skeletal muscle vascular beds, and relaxation of bronchial smooth muscles? | Isoproterenol |
| What are the clinical indications for isoproterenol use? | Short-term emergency management of partial or complete heart block Cardiac arrest Treatment of AV block in dogs |
| What immediate metabolic precursor of norepinephrine causes vasodilation especially in renal and splanchnic arterial beds? | Dopamine |
| What are the clinical indications for dopamine use? | Adjunctive therapy for oliguric renal failure In severe hypotension |
| What are some cardiotoxic plants? | European yew (Taxus baccata) Oleander (Nerium sp.) - cardiac toxicity in livestock |
| What is the most widely used topical prostaglandin analog that facilitates outflow through uveoscleral pathway in the eye? | Latanoprost |
| What beta-adenoceptor antagonist uses C-AMP PKA pathway to regulate aqueous humor production and used to treat Glaucoma? | Timolol maleate |
| What carbonic anhydrase inhibitor is used to reduce formation of bicarbonate and fluid transport in the eye? | Dosrolamide Acetazolamide |
| What topical mydriatic is used to incerase aqueous outflow by uveoscleral route and is used to treat uveitis in horse? | Pilocarpine Atropine |
| What drugs can be used as a local/topical anaesthetic to numb upper eyelid? | Proparacaine and tetracaine (topical) Lidocaine and bupivacaine (infiltration) |
| What can be used as a topical disinfectant for the eye? | 2% povidone iodine |
| What drugs cause dilation (mydriasis) of the pupil? | Sympathomimetic drugs |
| What drugs cause constriction (miosis) of the pupil? | Parasympathomimetic drugs |
| What drugs cause pinpoint pupils? | Opioids |
| What type of drugs should you treat optical neuritis with? | IV glucocorticoids |
| What are the different delivery routes for drugs to the eye? | Topical Subconjunctival Intraocular/Intracameral Intravitreal Injection/Device |
| What antibiotics are the first choice for corneal ulcers and bacterial conjunctivitis and covers Gram +, -, pseudomonas, and mycoplasma? | Neomycin-bacitracin-polymyxin B |
| What antibiotic will penetrate an intact cornea? | Ciprofloxacin |
| What polyene antifungal is more active against yeast and has a broad spectrum? | Amphotericin B |
| What polyene antifungal is more effective against fungi and less active against the yeast fusarium? | Natamycin |
| What azole antifungal has a broad spectrum against fungi and yeast and is well tolerated after subconjunctival injection? | Miconazole |
| What dermatological cream is well tolerated for ophthalmic use and is more effective against aspergillius and less effective against fusarium? | Clotrimazole |
| What azole antifungal has no commercial formulation available and has a broad spectrum against fungi? | Itraconazole |
| What antifungal is synergistic with amphotericin B? | Flucystosine |
| What are some treatments used to treat viral infections of the eye such as herpes virus keratitis, conjunctivitis, and putative viral superficial keratitis? | Deoxyuridine-idoxuridine Acyclovir Interferon-gamma |
| What are some chelating agents used for proteinase inhibition in the eye? | EDTA Acetylcysteine Tetracyclines-doxycyclines |
| What are some systemic inhibitors used for proteinase inhibition for the eye? | Combo with EDTA and acetylcystein |
| What are some other inhibitors of proteinase for the eye? | Heparin Ilomastat Polysulpharated glycosaminoglycans |
| What drugs are used to treat Aspergillosis in the respiratory system and may have a side effect of gynaecomastia and liver toxicity? | Ketoconazole Fluconazole Voriconazole |
| What antifungals are more effective if administered locally? | Enilconazole Clotrimazole |
| What drugs should be used to treat Idiopathic lyphoplasmacytic rhinitis? | Glucocorticoids |
| What drugs should be administered as a transarterial coil embolism in Guttural Pouch Mycosis? | Thiobendazole Nystatin Enilconazole |
| What are the treatment options for kennel cough? | Doxycycline Tetracycline Amoxicillin in clavalonic acid Enrofloxacin Opioids to suppress cough |
| What drugs are usually used to treat Bronchitis? | Penicillins |
| What drug breaks up mucous by breaking disulphydryl bonds, therefore increasing respiratory secretions? | Acetylcysteine |
| What drug increases mucous gland evacuation, production, and mucociliary clearance? | Bromhexine and Dembrexin |
| What drugs are used to modify airway resistance? | Ach M3 Antagonists B2 agonists PDE inhibitors |
| What drugs are used to decrease inflammatory and immune responses in the respiratory system? | Glucocorticoids NSAIDs Mast cell stabilizing drugs Anti-histaminics |
| What drugs are used to stimulate respiration? | Crotethamide Lobeline Doxapram Etamiphylline |
| What drugs are used to suppress cough reflex? | Anti-tussives Codein phosphate Hydrocodone Dihydrocodone |
| What drugs are used as mucolytics? | N-acetylcystein Bromhexine Ambroxol Dembrexine |
| What drugs are used to increase respiratory secretions? | Guajacol Guaifenisine |
| What drugs are used as reflex expctorants? | Ammoniumcarbonate Chloride Potassium Iodide |
| What drugs are used as secretomotorics? | Radix ipecacuanha Thyme oil Aniseed oil Eucalyptus oil Peppermint oil Oil of turpentine |
| What anticholinergics are used to modify airway resistance? | Atropine Butylscopolamine Ipratopiumbromide |
| What sympathetic amines are used to modify airway resistance? | Adrenaline Isoprenaline Phenylephine Ephedrine and pseudoephedrine |
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