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SECTION A (1-200): AFMAN 11-217, Volume 1, Instrument Flight Procedures

SECTION A (1-200): AFMAN 11-217, Volume 1, Instrument Flight Procedures

1. [A] Control instruments:
a. Display attitude and power.
b. Are calibrated to permit definite adjustments to attitude and (or) power.
c. Both A and B above.
d. Measure aircraft performance.

C
1.1.1

2. [A] Performance instruments:
a. Indicate actual aircraft performance.
b. Include the altimeter, airspeed indicator, attitude indicator and turn and slip.
c. Both A and B above.
d. Indicate aircraft relative position.

A
1.1.2

3. [A] Pilots or other crewmembers who can modify the cockpit display configuration must ensure primary flight instrumentation is always present. Primary flight instrumentation must provide:
a. An immediately discernible attitude recognition capability and an unusual attitude
recovery capability.
b. Full-time attitude, altitude and airspeed information.
c. Complete fault indications.
d. All of the above.

D
1.3.1

4. [A] Which statement concerning unusual attitudes is correct?
a. The primary attitude indicator would be considered the most reliable instrument unless a
warning flag is displayed.
b. If the attitude indicator is inoperative, rolling "toward" the turn needle will bring the
aircraft to an upright attitude.
c. Prior to initiating unusual attitude recovery on the attitude indicator, verify that an unusual
attitude exists.
d. To minimize the altitude loss, the power should be at idle during a nose-low unusual
attitude recovery.

C
2.5.4

5. [A] The TO-FROM indicator on the course indicator:
a. Depends on aircraft heading relative to the selected course.
b. Is not affected by the aircraft heading.
c. Is of no value when flying VOR or TACAN.
d. Always indicates TO when the heading pointer or course arrow is in the top half of the
instrument case.

B
3.2.2.1.2

6. [A] You are inbound on the back course of a localizer approach. The published inbound front course is 030° (figure 6). To intercept course (no wind), you should:
a. Turn right.
b. Turn left.
c. Maintain present heading.
d. Insufficient information is available.

A
3.2.2.2.1.3

7. [A] If there is a malfunction of the compass system or compass card, the VOR or TACAN bearing pointers:
a. must be considered unreliable until verified.
b. will indicate relative bearing only.
c. point to the station.
d. will indicate magnetic bearing only.

A
3.2.1

8. [A] You have selected VOR or TACAN and have the indications shown in figure 1. What is your position in figure 2?
a. Insufficient information is given.
b. Position 10.
c. Position 9.
d. Position 8.

D
3.2.2.1

9. [A] You have selected VOR or TACAN and have the indications shown in figure 3. What is your position in figure 2?
a. Position 5.
b. Position 7.
c. Position 9.
d. Insufficient information is given.

C
3.2.2.1

10. [A] In figure 4, your position is:
a. SW of the VORTAC, heading 360°.
b. SE of the VORTAC, heading 045°.
c. NW of the VORTAC, heading 045°.
d. NE of the VORTAC, heading 360°.

D
3.2.2.1

11. [A] The published ILS front course is 300°. Using figure 5, which statement is correct?
a. If you continue the present heading, you will intercept the localizer back course inbound.
b. To center the CDI, you should make an immediate right turn.
c. Your aircraft is heading 255° and headed toward the localizer course.
d. Both a and c are correct.

C
3.2.2.2.1.3

12. [A] Using information provided in figure 5 to complete a course intercept, which of the following is/are true?
a. A lead-point must be calculated to complete the intercept.
b. This intercept heading will take the aircraft toward the NAVAID.
c. The aircraft is on a 45o intercept to the desired course.
d. All of the above.

D
5.4.1.4.1
5.4.2
5.4.2.3.2

13. [A] Using figure 7, in which direction and to what heading should you turn to intercept the 180° radial inbound in a no-wind situation?
a. Right turn to a heading of 260°.
b. Left turn to a heading of 300°.
c. Right turn to a heading of 300°.
d. Left turn to a heading between 270° and 330°.

C
5.4.2.3

14. [A] Using the cockpit indications shown in figure 8, you want to intercept the 300° magnetic course outbound from the selected NAVAID. You should:
a. maintain your present heading.
b. turn right to a heading greater than 300°.
c. turn 90° to the left to place the bearing pointer on the 45° index marker.
d. insufficient information is given.

A
5.4.7.2

15. [A] VOR and VOR/ DME station passage occurs:
a. when the TO-FROM indicator makes the first positive change to FROM.
b. with the first positive FROM indication for VOR and when range stops decreasing for
VOR/ DME.
c. when the bearing pointer passes 90° to the inbound course.
d. all of the above.

A
5.5.1

16. [A] Which statement is correct concerning station passage?
a. With VOR and VOR/DME, station passage occurs when the TO-FROM indicator makes
the first positive change to FROM.
b. With TACAN, station passage is determined when the range indicator stops decreasing.
c. When established in the VOR or TACAN holding patterns, station passage is determined
when the bearing pointer first moves through the wingtip position.
d. Both a and b are correct.

D
5.5

17. [A] Your aircraft is positioned relative to the Boomer TACAN as indicated in figure 9. You are cleared direct to the 35 mile DME fix, Boomer TACAN 090° radial. Your initial no-wind heading should be:
a. 060°.
b. 120°.
c. 210°.
d. 300°.

B
5.8.3.2

18. [A] Required Navigation Performance Type (RNP Type) is a value stating the actual position of the aircraft for at least 95 percent of the total flying time from the intended position of that aircraft. This must remain within value is typically expressed in:
a. kilometers.
b. nautical miles.
c. thousands of feet.
d. degrees of deviation from desired track.

B
5.9.3

19. [A] After setting the reported altimeter setting, the maximum error allowed when comparing the indicated altitude to the elevation of a known ground checkpoint is:
a. 25 feet.
b. 50 feet.
c. 75 feet.
d. none of the above.

C
6.6.7.2

20. [A] Cold weather altimeter corrections are designed to adjust published instrument approach procedure altitudes to ensure adequate obstacle clearance. This adjustment becomes important in temperatures lower than standard since:
a. the aircraft's altitude is above the figure indicated by the altimeter.
b. the aircraft's higher true airspeed decreases the required obstruction clearance radius.
c. the aircraft's altitude is below the figure indicated by the altimeter.
d. both a and b above.

C
6.3.1

21. [A] MAJCOMs allowing aircraft to fly an instrument approach procedure using a lower category must publish procedures to ensure that aircraft do not exceed _______________________.
a. TERPS airspace for the IAP being flown to include circling and missed approach.
b. 260 KTAS during a missed approach from an IAP flown to category C minimums.
c. minimum maneuvering airspeeds throughout the procedure.
d. all of the above.

A
6.5.1.1.5.1

22. [A] An aircraft can fly an IAP:
a. only for its own category.
b. only for its own category or lower.
c. only for its own category or higher unless authorized by MAJCOM directives.
d. none of the above.

C
6.5.1.1

23. [A] You are on radar vectors to the ILS shown in figure 39. Your TACAN fails, but your VOR is still operating normally. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Alternate missed approach instructions are needed prior to accepting clearance for the approach.
b. The approach is no longer available without the DME available.
c. Diversion to the alternate airfield is necessary.
d. None of the above.

A
6.5.1.3.1

24. [A] The NAVAIDs which appear in the name of an IAP:
a. indicate all navigational equipment required to execute the approach.
b. provide guidance from the IAF to the MAP.
c. provide course guidance from the FAF through completion of the missed approach.
d. are those that provide the final approach guidance.

D
6.5.4.1

25. [A] If an IAF is displayed on an IAP by name only (no defining NAVAID and radial/DME):
a. refer to the appropriate airport facility in the enroute supplement for this information.
b. the IAF can only be defined by radar.
c. refer to the appropriate enroute and terminal charts for the area for this information.
d. the IAF can only be defined using GPS.

C
6.5.4.1.2

26. [A] The Minimum Safe Altitude depicted in figure 10 provides altitude clearance based on being within 25 NM of which NAVAID?
a. I-BAD Localizer.
b. BELCHER VORTAC.
c. BARKSDALE TACAN.
d. ELM GROVE VORTAC.

C
6.5.4.1.7

27. [A] If you are required to fly a circling approach which does not have a published ceiling, you can determine the required ceiling using which of the following methods: a. round up the HAA to the next one hundred foot value.
b. add 100 feet to the HAA and then round up to the next one hundred foot value.
c. round up the HAA to the next even one hundred foot value.
d. add 200 feet to the HAA.

B
6.5.4.3.2

28. [A] You are planning to fly into MacDill AFB, Florida. You are filing Lakeland Linder Regional airport shown in figure 40 as your alternate. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Only the ILS Rwy 5 would qualify the airfield as the alternate.
b. You must use the weather minimums listed (CAT AB, 900-2; CAT C, 900-2½; CAT D, 900-2¾) to qualify the airfield as your alternate.
c. You may not plan on using any of the approaches listed to qualify the airfield as your alternate if the control tower would be closed during your arrival time.
d. None of the above.

C
6.5.4.6

29. [A] The maximum allowable CDI error when checking the VOR or TACAN at a designated ground checkpoint is:
a. ± 2°.
b. ± 4°.
c. ± 6°.
d. not specified.

B
6.6.13.6

30. [A] When checking the TACAN at a designated ground checkpoint, the allowable error is:
a. 1/2 mile or 3 percent of the distance to the facility, whichever is greater.
b. ± 4°.
c. ± 6°.
d. Both a and b above.

D
6.6.13.6

31. [A] If the aircraft is equipped with dual VOR or dual TACAN receivers, the systems are considered reliable:
a. if each checks within ± 4° of the designated ground checkpoint.
b. if they check within ± 4° of each other.
c. both a and b above.
d. none of the above.

C
6.6.13.6
6.6.13.7

32. [A] Which of the following statements concerning IFR departure procedures is/are correct?
a. USAF aircraft are authorized to use non-standard takeoff weather minimums to "see-and-avoid" obstacles only if specific MAJCOM exists.
b. USAF aircraft are not authorized to create their own "see-and-avoid" weather minimums in lieu of meeting the required minimum climb gradient.
c. both A and B above.
d. "See-and-avoid" weather minimums are mandatory for all civil pilots.

C
7.2

33. [A] TERPS specialists are not allowed to publish climb gradients to heights of 200 feet or less. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding these low, close-in obstacles?
a. TERPS specialists will publish a NOTE informing you of the height and obstacle location.
b. You must ensure you can clear any obstacles published in this type of NOTE.
c. You do not need to consider these obstacles in climbout planning because there is no minimum climb gradient published for them.
d. Both a and b above are true.

D
7.3.5

34. [A] While flying any type of IFR departure procedure, USAF aircraft are required to meet or exceed a climb gradient of at least _______________.
a. 200 feet per NM
b. 200 feet per NM unless a higher gradient is published
c. 200 feet per minute unless a higher gradient is published
d. 152 feet per NM

B
7.2.4

35. [A] Unless a higher gradient is published, USAF aircraft are required to meet or exceed _______ on all IFR departures.
a. applicable "see-and-avoid" weather minima
b. a crossing height of 35 feet AGL at the end of the runway
c. 200 feet per nautical mile
d. all of the above

C
7.2.4

36. [A] You are planning your mission to the Alexander Municipal County airport shown in figure 42. Which of the following is/are correct concerning your IFR departure?
a. If the weather is at or above 2300-3, the VCOA is authorized.
b. When using the VCOA, cross the Alexander Municipal Airport at or above 7500.
c. Use standard departure weather if able to meet or exceed 326' per NM to 11700.
d. All of the above.

D
7.2
7.2.1
7.4.1.2

37. [A] Air Force pilots flying SIDs in the United States must:
a. Plan to cross the departure end of the runway at least 35 feet AGL for SIDs produced by the
U.S. Army.
b. Plan to cross the departure end of the runway at least 35 feet AGL for SIDs produced by the
FAA.
c. Adhere to the published takeoff minimums listed on the SID.
d. Both A and B above.

D
7.3.3.2

38. [A] Basic rules for all IFR departures include which of the following statements?
a. Delay all turns until at least 400 feet above the runway end elevation unless an early turn is specifically required by the departure procedure.
b. Climb at a minimum of 200 feet per nautical mile unless a higher gradient is published.
c. USAF aircraft must always meet or exceed the published climb gradient for the runway used.
d. All of the above.

D
7.2

39. [A] You are performing a Standard Instrument Departure (SID) at a military field. Which statement is true?
a. Climb to at least 400 feet above the departure end of the runway (DER) airport elevation before
initiating a turn unless otherwise instructed.
b. Climb to at least 400 feet above the airport elevation before initiating a turn unless otherwise
instructed.
c. After takeoff, ATC cannot cancel clearance for the SID.
d. All of the above are correct.

A
7.2.3

40. [A] While flying a SID, you are given a clearance to maintain a specific altitude. You must:
a. comply with intermediate altitude restrictions until reaching the assigned altitude.
b. consider the SID cancelled.
c. climb unrestricted to assigned altitude while following the SID routing.
d. not accept the clearance unless the controller includes "SID cancelled" in the altitude
clearance.

C
7.4.3.4.2

41. [A] You are planning your mission to the Grant County airport shown in figure 41. Which of the following is/are correct concerning your IFR departure?
a. When departing runway 8, standard weather applies if the aircraft can maintain a minimum climb gradient of 354' per minute.
b. When departing runway 8, you may fly a VCOA if the weather is at least 3800-3.
c. When departing runway 3, a crane is identified as a low, close-in obstacle.
d. All of the above.

D
7.3.5
7.4.1.2

42. [A] Unless otherwise instructed, you are expected to hold in a standard holding pattern. A standard holding pattern (no wind) consists of:
a. Left turns, 1 1/2 minutes inbound when holding at or below 14,000 feet and 2 minutes
when holding above 14,000 feet.
b. Right turns, 1 1/2 minutes inbound when holding below 14,000 feet and 2 minutes when
holding above 14,000 feet.
c. Left turns, 1 minute inbound when holding at or below 14,000 feet and 1 1/2 minutes when
holding above 14,000 feet.
d. Right turns, 1 minute inbound when holding at or below 14,000 feet and 1 1/2 minutes
when holding above 14,000 feet.

D
8.1.1

43. [A] The standard no-wind length of the inbound leg of a holding pattern is:
a. 1 minute below 14,000 feet MSL and 1 1/2 minutes at or above 14,000 feet MSL.
b. expressed in DME.
c. 1 minute at or below 14,000 MSL and 1 1/2 minutes above 14,000 feet MSL.
d. determined by using timing for VOR and ADF and expressed in DME for TACAN.

C
8.1.1

44. [A] In US airspace, do not exceed which of the maximum holding airspeeds shown below unless ATC has approved holding speeds in excess of these maximums?
a. 200 KIAS in holding patterns from 0 to 6000 feet MSL.
b. 230 KIAS in holding patterns from above 6000 feet to 14,000 feet MSL.
c. 265 KIAS in holding patterns above 14,000 feet MSL.
d. All of the above.

D
8.2.4
Table 8.1

45. [A] You may use the teardrop holding pattern entry at your own discretion when on a heading conveniently aligned with the teardrop course. Excluding procedure turns, the teardrop course is defined as an outbound track with an angular difference of _____ from the outbound course on the holding side.
a. 30° or less
b. 45° or less
c. between 30° and 45°
d. at least 45°

B
8.3.4.1.3

46. [A] The "AIM Method" is a holding technique which includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a. parallel entry.
b. teardrop entry.
c. direct entry.
d. in lieu of entry.

D
8.3.4.2

47. [A] Begin outbound timing in the holding pattern when:
a. abeam the fix.
b. wings level outbound, if unable to determine the abeam position.
c. first positive "from" indication.
d. either a or b above.

D
8.3.5.1

48. [A] You are established in a holding pattern that has a published minimum holding altitude and are assigned an altitude above the minimum. In this situation, which statement is correct?
a. Commence the approach from your assigned altitude at the expiration of your EFC.
b. You may descend to the minimum holding altitude when cleared for approach, unless
otherwise instructed by ATC.
c. Either a or b above is correct.
d. When cleared for the approach, request clearance to maneuver prior to beginning the
descent.

B
8.8

49. You are on planning an en route descent and radar vectors to the ILS shown in figure 39. Your TACAN fails, but your VOR is still operative. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Coordinate lost communication instructions as Radar is required to fly the approach
b. The approach is no longer available without the DME available.
c. Diversion to the alternate airfield is necessary.
d. None of the above.

A
9.2.2
6.5.1.3

50. [A] Prior to starting an en route descent, you should:
a. review the IAP for the type of final planned.
b. recheck weather and coordinate lost communication procedures, if required.
c. check heading and attitude systems.
d. all of the above are correct.

D
9.2.2

51. [A] You are en route to a holding fix, not collocated with the IAF, and subsequently cleared for approach. Which statement is correct?
a. You are expected to proceed to the IAF via the holding fix.
b. You may proceed directly to the IAF if specifically cleared to do so.
c. If the IAF is located along the route of flight to the holding fix, you are expected to begin
the approach at the IAF.
d. All of the above.

D
9.4.3

52. [A] Which statement is correct concerning routing to an IAF once cleared for an approach?
a. While en route to a holding fix which is not collocated with the IAF, you are expected to
proceed to the IAF via the holding fix.
b. While en route to a holding fix that is not collocated with the IAF, if the IAF is located along
the route of flight to the holding fix, you are expected to begin the approach at the IAF.
c. Clearance for the approach does not include clearance to use holding airspace.
d. All of the above are correct.

D
9.4.3
9.4.4

53. [A] While being radar vectored, you should:
a. repeat all headings.
b. repeat all altitudes (departing and assigned).
c. repeat all altimeter settings.
d. all of the above.

D
9.7.1

54. [A] When being radar vectored for the final approach portion of the IAP, you should remain oriented in relation to the FAF. Once cleared for the approach:
a. Maintain the last assigned altitude and heading until established on a segment of the
published routing or IAP.
b. Maneuver the aircraft as necessary to intercept the final approach course.
c. You may descend to the FAF altitude when on a parallel or intercept heading to final
approach course.
d. Do not descend below the last assigned altitude until you receive specific clearance from
ATC.

A
9.7.2

55. [A] You are receiving radar vectors to an ILS final approach and are subsequently cleared for the approach. You should:
a. Immediately descend to glide slope intercept altitude.
b. Not accept the clearance unless established on the localizer.
c. Maintain the last assigned altitude and heading until established on a segment of the
published approach.
d. Immediately establish final approach configuration.

C
9.7.2

56. [A] If you are cleared to "Descend Via" a published standard terminal arrival (STAR) you:
a. Must refuse this clearance if not in radar contact.
b. Must continue your descent as soon as each crossing restriction is met.
c. Must adhere to published altitude crossing restrictions and speeds unless otherwise cleared.
d. Must adhere to published altitude crossing restrictions, but speeds are advisory only.

C
9.8.1.1.2.3

57. [A] Before filing or accepting a clearance for a STAR, ensure you can comply with any altitude and/or airspeed restrictions associated with the procedure.
a. True.
b. False.

A
9.8.1.1.5

58. [A] You've crossed the SIDON VORTAC at 10,000 and are cleared for the approach in figure 36. When are you allowed to descend from 10,000 MSL?
a. 4 DME or beyond.
b. Outbound abeam the VORTAC
c. On a parallel or intercept heading to the 300 course.
d. All the above apply on this approach.

D
10.2.1

59. [A] You've crossed the SIDON VORTAC at 10,000 and are cleared for the approach in figure 36. When you start your descent, what descent gradient will you maintain?
a. 500-800 feet per NM
b. 500-800 feet per minute
c. 800-1000 feet per NM
d. 800-1000 feet per minute

C
10.2.1.1

60. [A] When the IAP depicts Dead Reckoning (DR) courses, you should:
a. Fly the heading depicted on the IAP and disregard wind corrections.
b. Attempt to fly the depicted ground track closely as possible by applying wind corrections.
c. Use lead points onto and off of DR legs.
d. Both b and c above.

D
10.6

61. [A] Your destination is Greater Peoria. On the DD Form 175, Military Flight Plan, you list the PIA VORTAC as your intended IAF and plan to fly the VOR or TACAN RWY 13 approach shown in figure 12. You will continue inbound on the final approach course without making the procedure turn if:
a. Issued an ATC clearance for a "straight-in" approach.
b. You were established in an assigned holding pattern on R-273.
c. ATC radar vectors to a final approach position have been provided.
d. Any of the above situations occur.

D
11.3.1

62. [A] A procedure turn will not be flown when:
a. You were issued clearance for a straight-in.
b. The initial approach is via a NO PT course.
c. The holding course and procedure turn course are the same.
d. Both a and b above.

D
11.3.1

63. [A] You are proceeding direct to the Elm Grove VORTAC from the Belcher VORTAC at 4,000 feet MSL. You are cleared for the ILS RWY 33 approach shown in figure 10. You are planning a teardrop entry to the procedure turn. Which of the following is an acceptable teardrop course?
a. 183°.
b. 143°.
c. 113°.
d. 098°.

C
11.6

64. [A] You are proceeding direct to the Elm Grove VORTAC at 4,000 feet MSL when you are cleared for the ILS RWY 33 approach shown in figure 10. Using the holding method to fly the approach, the earliest you may descend from 4,000 feet MSL is:
a. Outbound abeam the Elm Grove VORTAC.
b. When the aircraft is established on the 327 radial inbound.
c. Once the aircraft is established on the terminal routing from Elm Grove to the IAF.
d. None of the above.

A
11.6.5

65. [A] The 80o /260o course reversal maneuver consists of intercepting and maintaining the procedure turn course outbound, an 80o turn away from the outbound track toward the maneuvering side followed by an immediate 260o turn in the opposite direction to intercept the inbound course.
a. True.
b. False.

A
11.7.2
11.7.4.2

66. [A] You are proceeding direct to the Elm Grove VORTAC at 4,000 feet MSL. You are cleared for the ILS RWY 33 approach shown in figure 10. Using the 45/180° method to fly the approach, the earliest you may descend from 4,000 feet MSL is:
a. Outbound abeam the Elm Grove VORTAC.
b. When the aircraft is established on the outbound procedure turn course.
c. Once the aircraft is on a parallel or intercept heading to the outbound course.
d. A and C above.

D
11.7.3

67. [A] You have been cleared for the approach shown in figure 13. If you are established on the JVL 8 DME arc at 3,100 feet MSL, the earliest you may descend to 2,100 feet MSL is:
a. Once established on the 034° course.
b. Once you have begun the turn to intercept the 034° course.
c. Crossing JAVEK inbound.
d. Both a and c above.

B
11.9.4.1

68. [A] You are flying the VOR approach depicted in figure 14 in your category C aircraft which is equipped with a single VOR/DME receiver. If the TACAN is inoperative, to which MDA may you descend?
a. There is no way to identify the FAF so the approach is not authorized.
b. 520 feet MSL.
c. 644 feet MSL.
d. 680 feet MSL.

D
12.1
12.2

69. [A] Descent below MDA is not authorized until sufficient reference has been established with the runway environment and the aircraft is in a position to execute a safe landing. Which of the following is considered to be part of the runway environment?
a. The visual approach slope indicator.
b. The approach light system.
c. The threshold, threshold markings, or threshold lights.
d. All of the above.

D
12.1.2.2

70. [A] You are enroute to Alamosa/San Luis Valley Regional-Bergman Field shown in figure 45. During your NOTAMS update via Flight Service Station, you learn that the LOM is out of service. Which statement below is correct?
a. The approach is no longer authorized due to the LOM being OTS
b. The approach is still authorized as you may have Denver Center identify the FAF.
c. The approach is still authorized as you may cross-tune to identify the FAF via the ALS 260 radial.
d. The approach is not for civil aircraft.

C
12.2.1.1

71. [A] In the US, the glideslope, the localizer and the outer marker are required components for an ILS. If the outer marker is not available, it may be replaced by substitutes depicted on the approach plate or identified by NOTAM. These substitutes include:
a. DME.
b. A crossing radial or another NAVAID.
c. Radar.
d. All of the above.

D
12.2.1.1

72. [A] The VDP is:
a. The point along the final approach course of a non-precision straight-in approach procedure from which a normal descent from MDA to the runway touchdown point may be commenced.
b. Normally identified by DME.
c. Not a mandatory part of the procedure.
d. All of the above.

D
12.1.1.3

73. [A] The VDP depicted on the IAP shown in figure 10 is for which approaches?
a. ILS 33.
b. LOC 33.
c. VOR 33.
d. Both b and c above.

B
12.1.1.3

74. [A] Which of the following statements concerning descent on an ILS approach is false?
a. When on glideslope, crosscheck the aircraft altitude with the published "Glideslope Altitude at Outer Marker/FAF" to ensure you are established on the correct glideslope.
b. When the glideslope intercept altitude is a recommended altitude, you must comply with this published IAP altitude until established on the glideslope.
c. When the "Glideslope Altitude at Outer Marker/FAF" is not published, you should use all means available to ensure you are on the proper glideslope with a normal descent rate.
d. Do not descend below a descent restrictive altitude (minimum or mandatory) if the CDI indicates full-scale deflection.

B
12.2.1.4

75. [A] You are flying the ILS approach shown in figure 15 in your category C aircraft. You inadvertently get more than 1 dot low on the glideslope. Which of the following applies?
a. Descend to 880 MDA on the localizer only after passing the CIRIS fix.
b. Continue the ILS to DH if the glideslope is recaptured above localizer minimums.
c. Do not descend below 1080 MDA on the localizer unless you can identify the CIRIS fix.
d. All the above.

D
12.2.1.3.1

76. [A] You are executing an ILS approach and, after intercepting the glide slope, your GSI indicates two dots above the glide slope. Which statement is correct?
a. You must execute an immediate missed approach.
b. Do not descend below localizer minima.
c. If the glide slope is recaptured, descent may be continued to DH.
d. Both b and c are correct.

D
12.2.1.3.1

77. [A] The circling MDA for ASR approaches are found:
a. In the FLIP IFR Enroute Supplement.
b. In the FLIP IFR Enroute Supplement and in the front of the FLIP Terminal book.
c. In front of the FLIP Terminal book.
d. In none of the above.

C
12.3.5.1.1

78. [A] The circling MDA found on the individual IAP:
a. Refers to all circling approach procedures at the airfield.
b. Refers only to non-RADAR approaches.
c. Applies to the PAR where PAR minimums are listed on the IAP.
d. Should be used only when radar monitor is available.

B
12.3.5.1.1
13.6.1

79. [A] If a straight-in approach is being flown, which statement concerning ASR approaches is correct?
a. The controller must inform the pilot of the straight-in MDA.
b. Descent to the published MDA should be completed prior to the MAP.
c. Fly at the MDA until arrival at the MAP or until visual contact is made with the runway
environment.
d. All of the above are correct.

D
12.3.5.1

80. [A] Which statement concerning PAR approaches is correct?
a. DH is the altitude at which you will initiate missed approach if you do not have sufficient
visual reference with the runway environment or if your aircraft is not in position to
make a normal approach to the runway of intended landing.
b. PAR controllers will advise when you pass adjusted DH required by MAJCOM, if
appropriate.
c. A rate of descent that will ensure reaching MDA prior to MAP should be used.
d. All of the above are correct.

A
12.3.5.2

81. [A] You are on an IFR flight plan operating in VMC. ATC clears you for a visual approach. ATC expects you to:
a. Execute a straight-in unless otherwise requested.
b. Cancel your IFR clearance.
c. Refuse a visual approach since you are on an IFR flight plan.
d. None of the above.

A
12.4.3

82. [A] A visual approach is an approach where an aircraft on an IFR flight plan, operating under the control and authorization of an ATC facility, may proceed to the destination airport visually and clear of clouds. When cleared for a visual approach, you should:
a. Proceed direct to the airport, contact tower and execute a VFR traffic pattern.
b. Cancel the IFR clearance once clearance for the visual approach is issued.
c. Be aware that radar service is automatically terminated when instructed to change to advisory frequency.
d. Reject this clearance if in-flight visibility is less than 5 miles.

C
12.4.2

83. [A] The contact approach:
a. Is another term describing a VFR traffic pattern.
b. Must be accomplished when directed by ATC.
c. Authorizes the pilot to deviate from the IAP and proceed to the destination airport via
visual reference to the surface.
d. Both b and c above.

C
12.4.2

84. [A] You are on an IFR flight plan operating clear of clouds. You request and receive clearance for a contact approach. You should:
a. Proceed to the destination airport and execute a 360° overhead traffic pattern.
b. Ensure flight visibility and reported ground visibility at the destination are at least 1 statute mile
and proceed to destination airport via visual reference to the surface.
c. Maintain AFI 11-202, Volume 3, ceiling and visibility criteria and proceed to destination airport
visually.
d. Expect radar vectors to the VDP.

B
12.5

85. [A] You are planning your mission to Rifle/Garfield County Regional shown in figure 46. In reviewing the prior to departure you noticed the "Fly Visual 261º 3.9 NM" statement in the profile view. What does this statement tell you about this approach?
a. The TERPS specialist provides obstacle clearance beyond the MAP and provides the pilot with obstacle clearance during the visual flyoff.
b. The TERPS specialist does not provide obstacle clearance when the approach is continued beyond the MAP as the pilot assumes responsibility during the visual flyoff.
c. USAF aircraft are never allowed to fly any approach that has a visual flyoff beyond the MAP.
d. None of the above.

B
12.6

86. [A] You are flying an approach to an airfield which has a reported partial obscuration due to fog. Which of the following statements concerning "shallow fog" is false?
a. Runway visual range may not be representative of actual conditions in this situation.
b. You may see the approach lighting system and possibly even some of the runway during the
early stages of the approach.
c. Instrument flight references should be dropped out of your crosscheck as soon as you have the
runway environment in sight.
d. As the fog level is entered, most or all visual cues become confused and disoriented.

C
13.2.4.1.1

87. [A] The circling approach is:
a. a visual flight maneuver.
b. performed after the instrument approach is complete.
c. used to align the aircraft with the landing runway.
d. all of the above.

D
13.6.1

88. [A] Concerning the sidestep maneuver, which statement is correct?
a. Pilots should not begin the sidestep maneuver prior to the FAF.
b. The sidestep MDA will be maintained until reaching a point where a normal descent to land on the sidestep runway can be started.
c. Do not begin the sidestep maneuver until the sidestep runway or runway environment is in sight.
d. All of the above are correct.

D
13.7.2

89. [A] You are flying the approach shown in figure 15 in your category C aircraft. Your ATC clearance is "cleared for ILS runway 36L approach. Sidestep to runway 36R." On final approach, inside the FAF, the pilot:
a. May begin the sidestep maneuver to runway 36R when the runway environment for 36L is in sight.
b. May begin the sidestep maneuver when runway 36R is in sight.
c. Must maintain 1,020 feet MSL or above until reaching the point at which a normal descent to land on runway 36R may be started.
d. Both b and c above.

D
13.7.2

90. [A] The MAP for the localizer approach shown in figure 16 is located:
a. 5.5 NM from the FAF (the MM).
b. At I-BFL 1.7 DME.
c. 6.0 NM from the FAF.
d. Both a and b above.

C
14.2.1

91. [A] You are flying the localizer approach shown in figure 15. Where is the missed approach point for the localizer?
a. CIRIS Fix
b. I-BXN 1.2 DME
c. 5.1 NM from the FAF
d. a and b above.

C
14.2.1

92. [A] You may safely delay executing the missed approach beyond the MAP because approach designers consider this possibility when constructing approaches.
a. True.
b. False.

B
14.2.6

93. [A] If you initiate the missed approach prior to the MAP, you must:
a. Start an immediate climb to the minimum safe altitude as depicted on the IAP.
b. Immediately execute the published missed approach procedure because the approach
designers have considered this situation and have provided necessary obstacle clearance.
c. Proceed to the MAP along the final approach course, and then via the route and altitudes
specified in the procedure.
d. Query the controller for further clearance and instructions.

C
14.2.5

94. [A] Perform the missed approach from the DH or MAP if:
a. The runway environment is not in sight.
b. You are unable to make a safe landing.
c. You are directed by the controlling agency.
d. All of the above.

D
14.4.2.1

95. [A] You lose visual reference while circling to land. You must:
a. Query the tower for appropriate missed approach instructions.
b. Initiate a turn toward the landing runway to ensure the aircraft remains within the
obstruction clearance area.
c. Begin an immediate climb to ensure climb gradient requirements are met.
d. Both b and c above.

D
14.4.2.4

96. [A] The PANS-OPS "Omni-directional Departure" is somewhat similar to the FAA's "Diverse Departure" because no track guidance is provided. Departure restrictions, which may be published singly or in any combination, for this departure include:
a. A minimum climb gradient of more than 3.3% to an altitude before turns are permitted.
b. Sectors for which either a minimum turn altitude or a minimum climb gradient is specified.
c. Both A and B above.
d. A minimum in-flight visibility required to turn toward a specified sector.

C
15.3.4

97. [A] You must comply with the speed limit published on an ICAO turning departure (SID) to remain within protected airspace on that procedure. If the departure is limited to specific aircraft categories, the applicable maximum speeds for aircraft categories A through E are:
a. 110 KIAS, 140 KIAS, 240 KIAS, 250 KIAS and 250 KIAS.
b. 120 KIAS, 165 KIAS, 265 KIAS, 290 KIAS and 300 KIAS.
c. 220 KIAS, 230 KIAS, 240 KIAS, 260 KIAS and 310 KIAS.
d. 150 KIAS for category A and 250 KIAS for all other categories.

B
Table 15.1

98. [A] Like the FAA 45o/180o procedure turn maneuver, timing for the 45o straight leg of the ICAO 45o/180o Procedure Turn for category C, D and E aircraft is:
a. 1 minute and 15 seconds from the start of the turn.
b. 1 minute from the start of the turn.
c. 1 minute starting from wings level outbound on 45course reversal track.
d. 45 seconds starting from wings level outbound on 45course reversal track.

A
15.4.2.1.2.3

99. [A] The ICAO base turn procedure is optional. You may fly the 45o/180o or 80o/260o "reversal procedures" in lieu of the published base turn procedure.
a. True.
b. False.

B
15.4.2.1.4.1

100. [A] Unless the ICAO procedure specifies particular entry restrictions, the 45o/180o, 80o/260o and base turn reversal procedures must be entered from:
a. A track within ± 45o of the outbound reversal track.
b. An entry sector expanded to include the reciprocal of the inbound track for base turns where the
±30o entry sector does not include the reciprocal of the inbound track.
c. A track within ±30o of the outbound reversal track.
d. Both B and C above.

D
15.4.2.2.2

101. [A] You must enter a published ICAO holding pattern based on your heading (±5o) relative to three entry sectors. If the published pattern has an inbound holding course of 270o (right turns), which of the following entry procedures is acceptable for a 020o entry heading?
a. An offset entry turning right to intercept an offset track of 060o.
b. A direct entry turning right to an initial outbound heading of 090o.
c. A parallel entry turning left to an initial outbound heading of 090o.
d. Either a or b at the pilot's discretion.

D
15.5.4
Figure 15.9

SECTION B (251-300): AFI 11-217, Volume 3, Supplemental Flight Information

SECTION B (251-300): AFI 11-217, Volume 3, Supplemental Flight Information

251. [B] Regardless of an individual aircraft's performance capability, pilots who fly aircraft with short wing spans must always remain vigilant and respect the wake turbulence hazard produced by larger and heavier aircraft.
a. True.
b. False.

A
2.3.2

252. [B] Since the acceleration characteristics and maneuverability associated with high performance aircraft negate the hazards of wake turbulence, pilots operating such aircraft can disregard the wake turbulence distance and/or timing criteria presented in AFMAN 11-217 V3, Chapter 2.
a. True.
b. False.

B
2.3.2

253. [B] With regards to wake turbulence, the vortices of a departing large aircraft will tend to move laterally over the ground at a speed of:
a. 1 to 2 knots
b. 2 to 3 knots
c. 4 to 5 knots
d. More than 10 knots

B
2.3.4.1

254. [B] When operating in RVSM airspace, you experience an aircraft equipment failure that makes the aircraft non-RVSM compliant. If ATC allows you to remain in RVSM airspace, you are now required to state "negative RVSM" each time you check in with a new controller.
a. True.
b. False.

A
4.2.2.1

255. [B] When flying in (or prior to entering) RVSM airspace, should any of the required equipment needed to operate in ARVSM airspace fail, you should notify the controlling agency as soon as possible.
a. True
b. False.

A
4.3.2

256. [B] Prior to entering RVSM airspace, you experience a failure of the autopilot. You should:
a. Continue into RVSM airspace. ATC or the controlling agency does not need to be notified since the autopilot is not required to be operational in RVSM airspace.
b. Continue into RVSM airspace without the working autopilot; however, notify the controlling agency or ATC if further degradation of aircraft systems is experienced.
c. Notify controlling agency or ATC as soon as possible since an operational autopilot is required in RVSM airspace. ATC may or may not allow access into RVSM airspace or not.
d. Notify controlling agency or ATC only if you experience the loss of both the autopilot and the redundancy capability associated with the dual independent altitude measuring systems.

C
4.3.2.1

257. [B] The TCAS system has determined that a potential collision between you and another Mode C equipped aircraft is imminent. How much warning will the system normally give?
a. Up to 20 seconds
b. 10 to 15 seconds
c. 15 to 35 seconds
d. 25 to 45 seconds

C
6.6

258. [B] To warn pilots of a potential collision hazard, the TCAS system first generates a "traffic advisory" or TA. How far in advance of the "resolution advisory" does the TCAS system normally generate the TA?
a. Up to 20 seconds
b. Up to 30 seconds
c. Up to 40 seconds
d. Approximately 1 min

A
6.6

259. [B] For the TCAS to provide safe vertical separation, the pilot flying is expected to initiate the Resolution Advisory (RA) maneuver within ___ seconds of when the RA is first displayed.
a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7

C
6.9.7

260. [C] When a traffic avoidance instruction is received from ATC that is contrary to or conflicts with the guidance being directed by the Resolution Advisory (RA) provided by your TCAS, always follow the RA (the RA takes precedence).
a. True.
b. False.

A
6.10

261. [B] When taking into account TCAS operations during a climb or descent, when within 1,000 feet of the assigned altitude, as a recommended practice, pilots should limit vertical speeds to _____ feet per minute or less to reduce unnecessary Resolution Advisories (RAs).
a. 2000
b. 1500
c. 1000
d. 500

B
6.11.6

262. [B] When the TERPS specialist develops an instrument procedure, required obstacle clearance (ROC) is added to the obstacle clearance surface (OCS) and is designed to afford a certain level of vertical protection. The amount of protection the ROC provides is based on:
a. The aircraft meets the required performance standards (defined in the certification process) and all aircraft systems are functioning normally.
b. The pilot is operating the aircraft in accordance with procedures outlined in both the Technical Order and as defined in instrument flight directives.
c. Required NAVAIDs used in the procedure are functioning and operating within flight inspection parameters
d. All of the above.

D
10.2.2

263. [B] (T/F) Depending on whether DME is available, location of the FAF, and other such factors, when level at the MDA on a non-precision approach, the clearance between the aircraft and the ground/obstruction may be as little as 250 feet.
a. True.
b. False.

A
10.2.2.1

264. [B] According to AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1, an aircraft may begin a descent to the next lower altitude upon reaching a published or pre-calculated lead turn point (e.g. arc to radial). According to 11-217 V3, the aircraft will always remain within TERPS protected airspace regardless whether an immediate or rapid descent is made to the next lower altitude.
a. True.
b. False.

B
10.7.3

265. [B] Concerning obstacle clearance, when making a turn from the initial to the intermediate phase on an instrument approach (e.g. arc to radial), as long as you have positive course guidance ("case break"), you may immediately initiate a descent to the next lower altitude as rapidly as you feel comfortable since you are guaranteed to remain within TERPS protected airspace.
a. True.
b. False.

B
10.7.3

266. [B] When conducting an instrument approach, depending on where the NAVAID providing course guidance is located, there are instances where the aircraft may exceed TERPS protected airspace (safe obstruction clearance) if you make an immediate or rapid descent to the next lower altitude even though you have reached a pre-calculated lead point or are receiving positive course guidance ("case break").
a. True.
b. False.

A
10.7.3

267. [B] During a circling maneuver, as long as the aircraft remains within the circling approach area for their category of aircraft (based on aircraft speed upon which the maneuver is flown) a minimum of ____ feet of obstruction clearance is provided.
a. 500 feet
b. 400 feet
c. 300 feet
d. None of the above

C
10.8.5.1

268. [B] When designing a holding pattern, along with 1,000 ft of obstacle clearance provided in the primary area, the TERPs specialist takes into account pilot technique and average wind velocities at holding altitude. Holding pattern design criteria is based on:
a. 30° of bank and a 3 second delay in pilot reaction time for recognizing fix passage
b. 30° of bank and a 6 second delay in pilot reaction time for recognizing fix passage
c. 25° of bank and a 3 second delay in pilot reaction time for recognizing fix passage
d. 25° of bank and a 6 second delay in pilot reaction time for recognizing fix passage

D
10.10

269. [B] According to AFMAN 11-217 V3, the reason why a commercial vender (e.g. Jeppesen) or host nation procedure must have an appropriate TERPS review prior to use is because unlike DoD or NACO procedures, commercial/host nation procedures are not flight checked or verified against a standard set of criteria and cannot guarantee proper obstruction clearance even if properly flown.
a. True.
b. False.

A
11.2

270. [B] Referencing AMAN 11-217 V3, why is it important for a commercial (e.g. Jeppesen) or host nation procedure be reviewed or validated by a MAJCOM TERPS specialist IAW 11-202 Vol 3 prior to their use?
a. Commercial vendors or specially accredited host nation procedures do not need a review prior to their use.
b. Until reviewed by a TERPS specialist, a commercial or host nation procedures cannot guarantee standard obstruction clearance even if properly flown.
c. Commercial or host nation procedures are normally not flight checked or verified against a standard set of criteria.
d. Both b. and c.

D
11.2

271. [B] In Oceanic Airspace Operations, which of the following is a Gross Navigational Error?
a. Greater than 25 NM from assigned route
b. ETA difference of 3 minutes or more
c. Altitude Deviation of +/- 300 feet
d. All of the Above

D
13.1.1

272. [B] Where does international airspace begin?
a. 5 NM off a nation's coastline
b. 10 NM off a nation's coastline
c. 12 NM off a nation's coastline
d. 15 NM off a nation's coastline

C
13.1.2

273. [B] During oceanic flight, when are position reports typically required?
a. Every cleared point
b. Every 1 hour in the Atlantic Ocean
c. Every 1 hour and 20 minutes in the Pacific Ocean
d. All of the above

D
13.2

274. [B] Which of the following is an Organized Track System (OTS)?
a. PACOTS
b. NOPAC
c. NAT
d. A and C

D
13.2.1.1
13.2.2.31

275. [B] What are the vertical dimensions of Minimum Navigation Performance Specification Airspace (MNPSA)?
a. FL265 - FL390
b. FL280 - FL410
c. FL285 - FL415
d. FL285 - FL410

D
13.2.1.2

276. [B] What is the dividing line between Gander and Shanwick Oceanic?
a. 10W
b. 20W
c. 30W
d. 40W

C
13.2.1.6

277. [B] Which of the following is true regarding the North Atlantic Tracks (NAT):
a. Eastbound Tracks are labeled A though K
b. Eastbound Tracks are labeled U through Z
c. Westbound Tracks are labeled U through Z
d. Westbound Tracks are labeled 5 through 9

B
13.2.2

278. [B] Altitude Reservations (ALTRVs) are normally employed for the mass movement of aircraft or special missions that cannot be accomplished otherwise using standard air traffic control (ATC) separation. ALTRVs are designated as:
a. Moving or Stationary
b. Simple or Complex
c. Minor or Major
d. Dynamic or Static

A
13.5.4

279. [B] _____ minutes after oceanic entry, crews should squawk 2000, if applicable.
a. 0
b. 10
c. 30
d. 60

C
13.10.1

280. [B] Approximately ____ minutes after passing an oceanic waypoint, crews should plot the latitude, longitude and time on the plotting chart.
a. 0
b. 10
c. 30
d. 60

B
13.13.1

SECTION D (301-450): AFI 11-202, Volume 3, General Flight Rules

SECTION D (301-450): AFI 11-202, Volume 3, General Flight Rules

301. [D] According to AFI 11-202V3, if a circumstance arises that is not addressed in USAF flight guidance, the PIC is expected to:
a. Remain VFR and land.
b. Divert to the nearest USAF field
c. Use their orders and best judgment to safely conduct the flight.
d. Perform an ORM assessment during the mission debrief.

C
1.1.3

302. [D] The pilot in command will ensure compliance with which of the following:
a. AFI 11-202, Volume 3, and MAJCOM guidance.
b. MDS-Specific instructions and supplements.
c. FLIP, SPINS
d. All of the above.

D
1.2

303. [D] According to AFI 11-202V3, the PIC will ensure compliance with the following:
a. The Title 14 Code of Federal Regulations (FARs) when within the US NAS
b. MAJCOM guidance and MDS-specific instructions
c. Theater operational procedures, FLIP, NOTAMS, and Airspace Control Orders
d. B and C only

D
1.2

304. [D] Air Force pilots have an operational prerogative to conduct flight operations with due regard for the safety of navigation of civil traffic:
a. In international airspace, when operationally necessary
b. When operating over a hostile foreign battlefield
c. When operating in the US National Airspace System
d. All of the above

A
1.3

305. [D] Pilots will may exercise the military prerogative of "due regard" only when:
a. In international airspace.
b. Only when operationally necessary.
c. IAW FLIP GP "Operations and Firings over the High Seas".
d. All of the above.

D
1.3

306. [D] The MAJCOM commander may, unilaterally, authorize deviations from any flight rule:
a. If doing so is "essential to the defense of the United States"
b. Only with prior authorization from HQ AFFSA
c. If needed for humanitarian operations
d. All of the above

A
1.6.2.1

307. [D] Deviations from the provisions of AFI 11-202, Volume 3, are authorized only when:
a. An ATC clearance is issued to do so.
b. The OG or Commander with operational control of the mission approves the deviation.
c. An in-flight emergency requires immediate action.
d. Both A and C.

C
1.7

308. [D] As PIC, you just deviated from your Air Traffic Control clearance. You must:
a. Notify ATC as soon as possible
b. Verbally report the incident to a supervisor and commander within 24 hours
c. Make a detailed written record of the incident
d. All of the above.

D
1.7.2

309. [D] Before takeoff, the PIC will ensure the entire mission is planned to its final destination in the greatest detail possible for each leg of the flight, including obtaining the latest weather and NOTAM information available at each stopover on a multi-leg flight.
a . True
b. False

A
2.1

310. [D] The pilot in command will ensure aircrew members know the appropriate procedures and have applicable information available to them for the intended operation. These shall include:
a. FLIP and NOTAMs
b. Applicable bird advisories and hazard information.
c. Departure, en route, destination, and alternate weather observations and forecasts.
d. All of the above .

D
2.1

311. [D] Who establishes specific policy on applicability of the Airfield Suitability and Restrictions Report (ASRR) for your MDS?
a. Squadron.
b. Operations Group.
c. HQ AFFSA.
d. MAJCOM.

D
2.2.1

312. [D] Aircrew members may use any FLIP product issued to them, regardless of language, legibility, or completeness.
a. True
b. False

B
2.3

313. [D] Printed forms, charts, or terminal procedures, used for off station navigation, must be printed in the original scale and in color (if appropriate), and:
a. Be current with latest DAFIF
b. Be current with latest E-CHUM
c. Only be issued by the unit commander
d. A and B

D
2.3.2

314. [D] According to AFI 11-202V3, from where may a navigator or combat systems officer obtain FLIP and aeronautical navigation data?
a. Any internet source, as long as it is a secure site (https://)
b. Only from US Government Sources
c. Any source, as long as it's current with the latest DAFIF and E-CHUM
d. Only from USAF Base Operations

B
2.3.3

315. [D] Aircrew may obtain FLIP and aeronautical data from:
a. Only from an internet source
b. Only from US Government sources
c. Only from the FLIP room in a military Base Ops
d. Only from the NGA

B
2.3.3

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