UNIT 4 PRACTICE TEST

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1) For which two species concepts are anatomical features the primary criterion for determining species identities?
1. biological
2. ecological
3. morphological
4. phylogenetic
5. paleontological

A) 3 and 5
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 2
D) 4 and 5
E) 1 and 3

A. morphological and paleontological

2) A biologist discovers two populations of wolf spiders whose members appear identical. Members of one population are found in the leaf litter deep within a woods. Members of the other population are found in the grass at the edge of the woods. What type of reproductive barrier is the most likely to lead to these two
populations becoming separate species over time?
A) habitat isolation
B) temporal isolation
C) behavioral isolation
D) post-zygotic isolation
E) paleontological isolation

A. Habitat isolation

3) Which of the following is considered a post-zygotic barrier that serves to maintain reproductive isolation for a species? _____
A) gametic incompatibility
B) ecological isolation
C) sterile offspring
D) timing of courtship display
E) geographic isolation

C. Sterile offspring

Use the following options to answer the following questions. For each description of reproductive isolation, select the option that best describes it. Options may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. gametic
B. temporal
C. behavioral
D. habitat
E. mechanical
4) one species of carnation blooms in April and a second species of carnation blooms in June 4) _________

B. temporal

Use the following options to answer the following questions. For each description of reproductive isolation, select the option that best describes it. Options may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. gametic
B. temporal
C. behavioral
D. habitat
E. mechanical
5) male fairy shrimp of one species have long antennules to clasp a female when mating and a second species of fairy shrimp has short antennules to clasp females.

E. Mechanical

Use the following options to answer the following questions. For each description of reproductive isolation, select the option that best describes it. Options may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. gametic
B. temporal
C. behavioral
D. habitat
E. mechanical
6) one species of crickets rapidly "chirp" to attract mates and a second species of cricket slowly "chirps" to attract mates

C. Behavioral

Use the following options to answer the following questions. For each description of reproductive isolation, select the option that best describes it. Options may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. gametic
B. temporal
C. behavioral
D. habitat
E. mechanical
7) males of one species of finch bring nuptial ("wedding") presents of nuts to females prior to mating, whereas males of another finch species bring gifts of over-ripe fruit

C. Behavioral

Use the following options to answer the following questions. For each description of reproductive isolation, select the option that best describes it. Options may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. gametic
B. temporal
C. behavioral
D. habitat
E. mechanical
8) a loblolly pine grows in rich, organic soils, but a sand pine grows best in well-drained sandy soils along the coast

D. Habitat

Use the following options to answer the following questions. For each description of reproductive isolation, select the option that best describes it. Options may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. gametic
B. temporal
C. behavioral
D. habitat
E. mechanical
9) females of one species of blackbird choose mates based on song quality; females of another species of blackbird choose mates on the basis of size

C. Behavioral

10) Two species of frogs belonging to the same genus occasionally mate, but the offspring do not complete development. What is the mechanism for keeping the two frog species separate?
A) gametic isolation
B) the postzygotic barrier called hybrid inviability
C) the prezygotic barrier called hybrid sterility
D) adaptation
E) the postzygotic barrier called hybrid breakdown

B) the postzygotic barrier called hybrid inviability

11) Races of humans are unlikely to evolve extensive differences in the future for which of the following reasons?
I.The environment is unlikely to change. II.Human evolution is complete.
III.The human races are incompletely isolated.
A) III only
B) I, II, and III
C) II and III only
D) I only
E) I and II only

A. The human races are completely isolated

13) In a hypothetical situation, a certain species of flea feeds only on native pronghorn antelopes. In rangelands of the western United States, native pronghorns and ranchers' cattle often coexist. If it should happen that some of these fleas develop a strong preference, instead, for cattle blood and mate only with fleas that, likewise, prefer cattle blood, it is possible that over time ________ will occur.
1. reproductive isolation
2. sympatric speciation
3. allopatric speciation
4. pre zygotic barriers
A) 1 through 4
B) 1 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3 only
E) 1, 2, and 4 only

E) 1, 2, and 4 only

15) A defining characteristic of allopatric speciation is
A) asexually reproducing populations. B) large populations.
C) geographic isolation.
D) artificial selection.
E) the appearance of new species in the midst of old ones.

C. geographical isolation

16) The Galapagos islands are a great showcase of evolution because of intense _____.
A) adaptive radiation and allopatric speciation.
B) allopolyploidy and sympatric speciation.
C) ecological isolation and sympatric speciation.
D) hybrid vigor and allopatric speciation. E) cross-specific mating and reinforcement.

A. adaptive radiation and allopatric speciation

17) A rapid method of speciation that has been important in the history of flowering plants, more so than animals, is _____.
A) paedomorphosis.
B) polyploidy.
C) a mutation in the gene controlling flower color.
D) genetic drift.
E) behavioral isolation.

B. Polyploidy

18) Autopolyploidy initially arises from errors in ____.
A) habitat selection.
B) copulation.
C) hybridization.
D) embryonic development.
E) meiosis.

E. meiosis

19) The origin of a new plant species in nature arising by hybridization between two species is an example of _____.
A) habitat selection.
B) sympatric speciation.
C) allopatric speciation.
D) autopolyploidy.
E) Heterochrony

B. Sympatric speciation

20) Two different but co-existing species of guppies (A and B) are known to be descended from a recent common ancestral species that colonized a stream in Panama. Males of species A have long blue dorsal fins that they use in courtship displays, and male guppies of species B have short red dorsal fins. The events that led to these speciation events are most likely to have been driven by which process?
A) gamete compatibilty
B) autopolyploidy
C) allopolyploidy
D) sexual selection
E) habitat isolation

D. Sexual selection

21) Catastrophism, meaning the regular occurrence of geological or meteorological disturbances (catastrophes), was Cuvier's attempt to explain the existence of
A) the fossil record.
B) evolution.
C) natural selection.
D) uniformitarianism.
E) the origin of new species.

A. the fossil record

22) What was the prevailing notion much prior to the time of Lyell and Darwin?
A) Earth is millions of years old, and populations rapidly change.
B) Earth is 6,000 years old, and populations are unchanging.
C) Earth is millions of years old, and populations gradually change.
D) Earth is millions of years old, and populations are unchanging.
E) Earth is 6,000 years old, and populations gradually change.

B. Earth is 6,000 years old, and populations are unchanging.

23) In evolutionary terms, the more closely related two different organisms are, the
A) more similar their habitats are.
B) more similar they are in size.
C) more recently they shared a common ancestor.
D) less likely they are to be related to fossil forms.
E) less similar their DNA sequences are.

C. The more recently they shared a common ancestor

24) Darwin had initially expected the living plants of temperate South America to resemble those of temperate Europe, but he was surprised to find that they more closely resembled the plants of tropical South America. The biological explanation for this observation is most properly associated with the field of _______.
A) meteorology.
B) biogeography.
C) embryology.
D) vertebrate anatomy.
E) bioengineering.

B. Biogeography

25) Both Darwin's and Lamarck's ideas regarding evolution suggest which of the following?
A) The giraffe's long neck is the result of artificial selection.
B) The interaction of organisms with their environment is important in the evolutionary process.
C) The main mechanism of evolution is natural selection.
D) Acquired physical characteristics can be inherited.
E) All species were fixed at the time of creation.

B) The interaction of organisms with their environment is important in the evolutionary process.

26) Which of the following represents an idea Darwin took from the writings of Thomas Malthus?
A) The environment is responsible for natural selection.
B) Populations tend to increase at a faster rate than their food supply.
C) All species are fixed in the form in which they are created.
D) Earth is more than 10,000 years old. E) Earth changed over the years through a series of catastrophic upheavals.

B) Populations tend to increase at a faster rate than their food supply.

27) Given a population that contains genetic variation, what is the correct sequence of the following events, under the influence of natural selection?
1.Differential reproduction occurs between the poorly and better adapted individuals.
2. A new selective pressure arises in the environment.
3. Allele frequencies within the population change.
4. Poorly adapted individuals have decreased survivorship.
A) 4, 2, 1, 3
B) 4, 2, 3, 1
C) 4, 1, 2, 3
D) 2, 4, 1, 3
E) 2, 4, 3, 1

D) 2, 4, 1, 3

28) If the HMS Beagle had completely bypassed the Galapagos Islands, Darwin would have had a much poorer understanding of
A) the tendency of organisms to produce a larger number of offspring than the environment can support.
B) the limited resources available to support population growth in most natural environments.
C) the ability of populations to undergo modification as they adapt to a particular environment.
D) how fossils of marine organisms could be found high in the Andes.
E) the age of Earth.

C. the ability of populations to undergo modification as they adapt to a particular environment.

30) Which of the following statements is not an inference of natural selection?
A) Individuals whose inherited characteristics best fit them to the environment should leave more offspring.
B) Often only a fraction of offspring survive, because there is a struggle for limited resources.
C) An individual organism undergoes evolution over the course of its lifetime. D) Subsequent generations of a population should have greater proportions of individuals that possess favorable traits.
E) Unequal reproductive success among its members leads a population to adapt over time.

C) An individual organism undergoes evolution over the course of its lifetime.

31) Which of the following must exist in a population before natural selection can act upon that population?
A) heritable phenotypic variation among individuals
B) Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
C) sexual reproduction
D) A and C only
E) A, B, and C

D. Heritable phenotypic variation among individuals and sexual reproduction

32) DDT was once considered a "silver bullet" that would permanently eradicate insect pests. Today, instead, DDT is largely useless against many insects. What would need to be true for pest eradication efforts to have been successful in the long run?
A) DDT application should have been continual.
B) All individual insects should have possessed genomes that made them susceptible to DDT.
C) All habitats should have received applications of DDT at about the same time.
D) Larger doses of DDT should have been applied.
E) The frequency of DDT application should have been higher.

B) All individual insects should have possessed genomes that made them susceptible to DDT.

33) Of the following anatomical structures, which is analogous to the wing of a bat?
A) arm of a human
B) dorsal fin of a shark
C) tail of a kangaroo
D) tail fin of a fish
E) wing of a butterfly

E) wing of a butterfly

34) If two modern organisms are distantly related in an evolutionary sense, then one should expect that
A) they shared a common ancestor relatively recently.
B) they should share fewer homologous structures than two more closely related organisms.
C) they should be members of the same genus.
D) they live in very different habitats.
E) their chromosomes should be very similar.

B) they should share fewer homologous structures than two more closely related organisms.

36) In a population of 800 Eskimos in Hardy-Weinberg equilibriumin and in which all possible blood types are present, 200 individuals have Type O blood and 32 are homozygous for Type A blood. What percentage of this population are expected to have Type AB blood?
A) 30
B) 6
C) 0
D) 12
E) 71

B) 6

(p)(q)=.06

38) Over evolutionary time, many cave-dwelling organisms have lost their eyes. Tapeworms have lost their digestive systems. Whales have lost their hind limbs. How can natural selection account for these losses? (Think carefully!)
A) It can account for these losses by the principle of use and disuse.
B) Under particular circumstances that persisted for long periods, each of these structures presented greater costs to fitness than benefits.
C) Natural selection cannot account for losses, only for innovations.
D) These organisms had the misfortune to experience harmful mutations, which caused the loss of these structures.
E) B and D only

B) Under particular circumstances that persisted for long periods, each of these structures presented greater costs to fitness than benefits.

39) Ichthyosaurs were aquatic dinosaurs. Fossils show us that they had dorsal fins and tails just as fish do, even though their closest relatives were terrestrial reptiles that had neither dorsal fins nor aquatic tails. The dorsal fins and tails of ichthyosaurs and fish are
A) homologous.
B) examples of convergent evolution.
C) adaptations to a common environment.
D) A and C only
E) B and C only

B) examples of convergent evolution.
C) adaptations to a common

40) It has been observed that organisms on islands are different from, but closely related to, similar forms found on the nearest continent. This is taken as evidence that
A) island forms and mainland forms have identical gene pools.
B) common environments are inhabited by the same organisms.
C) the islands were originally part of the continent.
D) island forms and mainland forms descended from common ancestors.
E) the island forms and mainland forms are converging.

D) island forms and mainland forms descended from common ancestors.

42) Which of the following statements about speciation is correct?
A) When reunited, two allopatric populations will not interbreed.
B) The goal of natural selection is speciation.
C) Natural selection chooses the reproductive barriers for populations.
D) Speciation is included within the concept of macroevolution.
E) Prezygotic reproductive barriers usually evolve before postzygotic barriers.

D) Speciation is included within the concept of macroevolution.

43) Which of the following scenarios would be an example of macroevolution?

A) evolution of dark and light morphs in the peppered moth, Biston betularia
B) evolution of pesticide resistance in a species of cockroach after years of pesticide exposure
C) evolution of dogs, Canis familiaris, from wolves, Canis lupus
D) replacement of thick-coated Arctic hares (rabbits) by a thin-coated morph over many generations under conditions of increased global warming
E) evolution of resistance to a weed-killing herbicide in populations of a dandelion species treated for years with the herbicide

C) evolution of dogs, Canis familiaris, from wolves, Canis lupus

44) Which definition of evolution would have been most foreign to Charles Darwin during his lifetime?
A) the gradual change of a population's heritable traits over generations
B) change in gene frequency in gene pools
C) the appearance of new varieties and new species with the passage of time
D) descent with modification
E) populations becoming better adapted to their environments over the course of generations

B) change in gene frequency in gene pools

A large population of laboratory animals has been allowed to breed randomly for a number of generations. After several generations, 36% of the animals display a recessive trait (aa), the same percentage as at the beginning of the breeding program. The rest of the animals show the dominant phenotype, with heterozygotes indistinguishable from the homozygous dominants.
45) What is the estimated frequency of allele a in the gene pool?
A) 0.40
B) 0.60
C) 0.70
D) 0.18
E) 0.80

B) 0.60
(.6)(.6)(.24)
(q)(q)(1/2Rr/2pq)

A large population of laboratory animals has been allowed to breed randomly for a number of generations. After several generations, 36% of the animals display a recessive trait (aa), the same percentage as at the beginning of the breeding program. The rest of the animals show the dominant phenotype, with heterozygotes indistinguishable from the homozygous dominants.
46) What proportion of the population is probably heterozygous (Aa) for this trait? A) 0.48
B) 0.72
C) 0.60
D) 0.36
E) 0.18

A) 0.48

47) All of the following are criteria for maintaining Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium involving two alleles except
A) there should be no natural selection. B) matings must be random.
C) gene flow from other populations must be zero.
D) populations must be large.
E) the frequency of all genotypes must be equal.

E) the frequency of all genotypes must be equal.

48) In a Hardy-Weinberg population with two alleles, A and a, that are in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of the allele a is 0.7. What is the percentage of the population that is heterozygous? A) 42
B) 21
C) 100
D) 49
E) 9

2pq
A) 42

49) In butterflies, a gene controls antennal length such that L = long and l =shorte. In one population, there are 72 butterflies with long antennae and 128 with short antennae. Assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what is the value of the recessive allele in this popualtion's gene pool?
A) 0.64
B) 0.60
C) 0.80
D) 0.75
E) 0.36

C) 0.80

50) For a large population of lizards in the Apalachicola National Forest, it has been determined that the dominant allele for eye color has decreased in frequency from 0.9 to 0.6 over the past 20 years. From this change, one can most logically assume that, in this environment, _____. A) the allele mutates readily.
B) offspring of lizards withthe dominant allele have a greater chance of surviving and reproduing.
C) there is no sexual selection.
D) the allele is neutral.
E) the allele reduces fitness.

E) the allele reduces fitness.

51) Verbena floridensis is a flowering plant that grows on sand dunes on St. George Island. If the frequency of a particular allele that is present in this population should change due to strong tidal surge that inundates the dunes and leaves a small number of plants that escaped the surge, then what has occurred?
A) a founder event
B) a bottleneck
C) gene flow
D) natural selection
E) A, B, and C

B) a bottleneck

In the year 2500, five male space colonists and five female space colonists (all unrelated to each other) settle on an uninhabited Earthlike planet in the Andromeda galaxy. The colonists and their offspring randomly mate for generations. All ten of the original colonists had free earlobes, and two were heterozygous for that trait. The allele for free earlobes is dominant to the allele for attached earlobes.
52) Which of these is closest to the allele frequency in the founding population?
A) 0.5 a, 0.5 A
B) 0.2 a, 0.8 A
C) 0.4 a, 0.6 A
D) 0.8 a, 0.2 A
E) 0.1 a, 0.9 A

52.E
No need to calculate just split hetero Dd in half and give one to DD (9/10)

In the year 2500, five male space colonists and five female space colonists (all unrelated to each other) settle on an uninhabited Earthlike planet in the Andromeda galaxy. The colonists and their offspring randomly mate for generations. All ten of the original colonists had free earlobes, and two were heterozygous for that trait. The allele for free earlobes is dominant to the allele for attached earlobes.
53) If one assumes that Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium applies to the population of colonists on this planet, about how many people will have attached earlobes when the planet's population reaches 10,000?
A) 100
B) 10,000
C) 800
D) 1,000
E) 400

A) 100
square root of .1 x 10,000

In the year 2500, five male space colonists and five female space colonists (all unrelated to each other) settle on an uninhabited Earthlike planet in the Andromeda galaxy. The colonists and their offspring randomly mate for generations. All ten of the original colonists had free earlobes, and two were heterozygous for that trait. The allele for free earlobes is dominant to the allele for attached earlobes.
54) If four of the original colonists died before they produced offspring, the ratios of genotypes could be quite different in the subsequent generations. This is an example of
A) diploidy.
B) gene flow.
C) genetic drift.
D) stabilizing selection.
E) disruptive selection.

C) genetic drift.

55) A trend toward the decrease in the size of plants on the slopes of mountains as altitudes increase is an example of
A) a bottleneck.
B) relative fitness.
C) genetic drift.
D) speciation.
E) a cline.

E) a cline.

56) In a population that is evolving via natural selection, the fitness of an individual is measured by
A) its physical strength.
B) how long it lives.
C) the number of dominant alleles in its genome.
D) the number of mates it attracts.
E) the number of its offspring that survive to reproduce.

E) the number of its offspring that survive to reproduce.

57) As terrestrial frogs metamorphose from aquatic tadpoles, they must rely on new food sources. Young frogs cannot initially distinguish between a stinging bumble bee and a non-stinging striped fly that mimics bees, but they soon learn to avoid eating any striped insect if they are more likely to first encounter a bee than a striped fly. This type of mimicry persists as a result of _____.
A) evolutionary imbalance.
B) disruptive selection.
C) heterozygote advantage.
D) sexual selection.
E) frequency-dependent selection.

E) frequency-dependent selection.

58) The type of mimicry descibed in the previous question is called _______ mimicry. A) selective
B) Darwinian
C) Mullerian
D) Batesian
E) allopatric

D) Batesian

59) The higher the proportion of loci that are "fixed" in a population, the lower is that population's
A) genetic variation.
B) average heterozygosity.
C) DNA variability.
D) A, B, and C
E) A and B only

D) A, B, and C

65) In seedcracker finches from Cameroon, both small- and large-billed birds are observed that specialize in cracking soft and hard seeds, respectively. If long-term climatic change arises and eventually results in all seeds becoming hard, what type of selection would then operate on the finch population?
A) directional selection
B) disruptive selection
C) sexual selection
D) stabilizing selection
E) No selection would operate because the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

A) directional selection

68) If the unimodal distribution shown above becomes a bimodal distribution over time, then
A) sexual selection is likely to have altered the overall frequency of phenotypes in the population.
B) there must be some advantage to being heterozygous at all of the contributing gene loci.
C) the trait must be neutral.
D) disruptive selecton has produced a balanced polymorphism.
E) directional selection on this trait is reversed.

D) disruptive selecton has produced a balanced polymorphism.

69) Male satin bowerbirds adorn structures that they build, called "bowers," with parrot feathers, flowers, and other bizarre ornaments in order to attract females. Females inspect the bowers and, if suitably impressed, allow males to mate with them, after which they go off to nest by themselves. The evolution of this behavior is best described as due to
A) artificial selection.
B) sexual selection.
C) survival of the fittest.
D) natural selection.
E) disruptive selection.

B) sexual selection.

70) When imbalances occur in the sex ratio of sexual species that have two sexes (i.e., other than a 50:50 ratio), the members of the minority sex often receive a greater proportion of care and resources from parents than do the offspring of the majority sex. This is most clearly an example of
A) frequency-dependent selection.
B) disruptive selection.
C) sexual selection.
D) stabilizing selection.
E) balancing selection.

A) frequency-dependent selection.

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