Ch 16 & 19 Test review

Created by krazylesbie69 

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40 terms

When time is calculated for anesthesia services, the time begins when:

when the anesthesiologist begins preparing the patient to receive anesthesia and is in constant attendance with the patient.

What type of nurse can administer anesthesia under the direction of an anesthesiologist?

Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetists(CRNA)

Concurrent modifiers are used to describe:

indicate how many cases an anesthesiologist was performing or supervising at one time.

99100 is an example of a:

qualifying circumstances for anesthesia

In th Anesthesia section of the CPT manual, the codes are usually divided first by which of the following?

anatomical site

What is the type of sedation that allows a procedure to be performed without pain to the patient, but the patient is not completely asleep?

moderate or conscious sedation

The society that publishes the Relative Value Guide for anesthesia services is the:

american society of anesthesiologist

The anesthesia formula is:

B+T+M

Which codes begin with the number 99 and are used to indicate anesthesia services provided during situations that make the administration of the anesthesia more difficult?

adjunct codes (qualifying circumstances)

The anesthesia status modifier that indicates the patient's condition at the time anesthesia was administered is:

physical status modifiers

The modifier "-AA" is an example of what type of modifier?

HCPCS modifiers

If anesthesia was provided to a patient who is not expected to survive without the surgical procedure being performed, which physical status modifier would be appended to the anesthesia code?

P5

Moderate or ___________ sedation is a type of sedation that may be provided by the physician performing the procedure.

conscious

Physical status modifier P3 indicates a patient with _______ systemic disease.

severe

Codes for Qualifying Circumstances are located in both the Anesthesia Guidelines and the __________ section of the CPT manual.

medicine

Which term describes a reduction?

manipulation

Which treatment of a fracture requires the fracture to be exposed to view or opened at a remote site for nailing across the fracture?

open treatment

Which of the following terms describes traction by use of strapping, elastic wraps, or tape?

skin traction

Wound exploration codes have the following service(s) bundled into the codes:

basic exploration and repair, cleaning, enlargement of the wound but also debridement, removal of any foreign body(ies), ligation of minor blood vessel(s), and repair of subcutaneous tissues, muscle fascia, and muscle.

The application of a cranial halo is a form of:

external fixaction

This type of graft is often taken from the upper thigh area.

fascia lata graft

Insertion of a device into the muscle to measure the pressure within muscle is monitoring of:

interstitial fluid pressure

Fast becoming the treatment of choice for many orthopedic surgical procedures is what type of procedure?

arthroscopy

Which of the following is not a fracture treatment?

open, closed , and percutaneous treatments are all fracture treatments (replantation is not a fracture)

Which of the following flaps describes a bone graft that is taken along with the skin and tissue that overlies the bone?

Free osteocutaneous flaps

Fracture codes are based on:

treatment type

The restoration of a fracture or dislocation to its normal anatomic alignment by the application of manually applied force is known as:

manipulation

A hip replacement is coded based on the:

reasons of treatment.

Open treatment of a fracture is when the:

surgery is performed in which the fracture is exposed by an incision made over the fracture and the fractured bone is visualized.

Where is the bimalleolar bone located?

ankle

Which of the following is not a treatment method for dislocation?

digital block, a splint, elevate limb and rotate while applying pressure or the patient might lie face down on a table with the arm hanging off the edge while a weight is attached to the hand.

What is the difference between the code for a soft tissue abscess in the Musculoskeletal System subsection and the codes for abscess in the Integumentary System subsection?

The codes in the Musculoskeletal System are mostly biopsies of deep subcutaneous tissue and the codes in the Integumentary System are of subcutaneous tissues and skin.

Arthrocentesis is:

is aspiration of a joint, puncture a joint, and inject a joint.

The acronym ORIF stands for:

open reduction with internal fixation

_______ is the attachment of a spinal fixation device at each end of the area being repaired and at least one other attachment in the area being repaired.

segmental instrumentation

Electrical or ultrasound stimulation is used to:

promote healing

Surgical and fracture repair codes in the musculoskeletal subsection include _________ applied by the treating physician.

application and removal of the initial casts, splints, or strapping

A bunionectomy is hallux __________ correction.

valgus

Arthroscopy is a desirable treatment choice by physicians and patients because the:

the incisions are smaller, which decreases the risk of infection and speeds recovery time.

A __________ arthroscopy is always included in a surgical arthroscopy.

diagnostic

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