Patho Final

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201 terms · Pathophysiology Evolve Quizzes 9-16

When evaluating the kidney function of an individual with diabetes insipidus (DI), the nurse would observe:
A) high volume urine output.
B) high urine osmolarity.
C) blood in the urine.
D) protein in the urine.

A) high volume urine output.

Acromegaly is caused by increased secretion of:
A) prolactin.
B) growth hormone.
C) insulin.
D) glucocorticoids.

B) growth hormone

Graves disease is characterized by:
A) ectopic secretion of thyroid hormone by a tumor.
B) excessive production of circulating thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin.
C) autoimmune destruction of the thyroid gland.
D) injury to the pituitary, resulting in decreased thyroid-stimulating hormone secretion.

B) excessive production of circulating thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin.

The level of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) in Graves disease is:
A) low.
B) high.
C) normal.
D) variable.

A) low.

Signs and symptoms of hypothyroidism include all of the following except:
A) weight gain.
B) diarrhea.
C) myxedema.
D) lethargy.

B) diarrhea.

The most common cause of primary hypothyroidism in adults is:
A) bacterial infection of the thyroid gland.
B) viral infection of the thyroid gland.
C) congenital hypothyroidism.
D) autoimmune thyroiditis.

D) autoimmune thyroiditis.

The most common cause of hypoparathyroidism is:
A) hypothalamic inactivity.
B) pituitary hyposecretion.
C) parathyroid adenoma.
D) parathyroid gland injury or removal.

D) parathyroid gland injury or removal.

The pathophysiology of type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM) involves:
A) autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells.
B) production of antibodies against insulin.
C) type IV hypersensitivity against pancreatic islet cells.
D) all of the above.

D) all of the above

A new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes is based on:
A) random serum glucose levels.
B) fasting plasma glucose levels and glucose tolerance tests.
C) genetic testing.
D) the presence of symptoms only.

B) fasting plasma glucose levels and glucose tolerance tests.

Hyperglycemia and lipid abnormalities in type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM) are a result of:
A) production of inactive insulin.
B) glucagon deficiency.
C) insulin resistance.
D) glycogen excess.

C) insulin resistance.

Signs and symptoms common to both type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM) include all of the following except:
A) polyphagia.
B) weight loss.
C) polydipsia.
D) polyuria.

B) weight loss

Signs and symptoms that a person with type 1 diabetes has administered too much insulin include:
A) Kussmaul respirations and acetone breath.
B) dizziness and confusion.
C) abdominal cramping and nausea.
D) pain at the site of injection.

B) dizziness and confusion.

Gestational diabetes can occur:
A) during fetal development.
B) in early childhood.
C) during pregnancy.
D) in older adults.

C) during pregnancy.

The purpose of monitoring glycosylated hemoglobin levels in persons with diabetes is to:
A) check for hyperlipidemia.
B) detect acute complications of diabetes.
C) monitor long-term serum glucose control.
D) measure fasting glucose levels.

C) monitor long-term serum glucose control.

The development of an acute metabolic acidosis from insulin deficiency is due to which of the following processes?
A) Protein catabolism with ammonia release
B) Anaerobic metabolism of glucose
C) Fatty acid metabolism with ketone production
D) Renal failure

C) Fatty acid metabolism with ketone production

Chronic complications of DM include which of the following?
A) Peripheral neuropathies
B) End-stage renal disease
C) Coronary artery disease
D) All of the above

D) All of the above

Cushing disease is commonly caused by:
A) autoimmune destruction of the adrenal cortex.
B) ectopic production of ACTH from a lung tumor.
C) excessive production of cortisol from a tumor in the adrenal cortex.
D) excessive production of aldosterone from a tumor in the adrenal cortex.

B) ectopic production of ACTH from a lung tumor.

Which of the following alterations would you expect to find in a patient with untreated Cushing disease or syndrome?
A) Weight loss
B) Pale skin
C) Truncal obesity
D) Peripheral edema

C) Truncal obesity

Metabolic abnormalities in Addison disease include all of the following except:
A) hyperkalemia.
B) hyponatremia.
C) hypoglycemia.
D) hypercalcemia.

D) hypercalcemia.

The most common cause of Addison disease is:
A) adrenal cancer.
B) autoimmune injury to the adrenal cortex.
C) viral infection of the pituitary gland.
D) bacterial infection of the adrenal medulla.

B) autoimmune injury to the adrenal cortex.

A 22-year-old male is admitted to the intensive care unit with a closed head injury sustained in a motorcycle accident. The injury has caused severe damage to the posterior pituitary. Which of the following complications should be anticipated?
A) Dilutional hyponatremia
B) Dehydration from polyuria
C) Cardiac arrest from hyperkalemia
D) Metabolic acidosis

B) Dehydration from polyuria

A 22-year-old female has a low level of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). This condition would cause _____ hypothyroidism.
A) primary
B) secondary
C) autoimmune
D) atypical

B) secondary

A 3-year-old male was diagnosed with congenital hypothyroidism. If left untreated, the child would have:
A) mental retardation and stunted growth.
B) increased risk of childhood thyroid cancer.
C) hyperactivity and attention deficit disorder.
D) liver, kidney, and pancreas failure.

A) mental retardation and stunted growth

A problem associated with chronic hyperparathyroidism is:
A) seizure disorder.
B) vitamin D malabsorption.
C) hyponatremia.
D) osteoporosis and pathologic fractures.

D) osteoporosis and pathologic fractures.

An 11-year-old male is newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Before treatment he most likely experienced:
A) recurrent infections, visual changes, fatigue, and paresthesias.
B) polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia, and weight loss.
C) vomiting; abdominal pain; sweet, fruity breath; dehydration; and Kussmaul breathing.
D) weakness, vomiting, hypotension, and mental confusion.

B) polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia, and weight loss.

Which of the following blood tests measures the percentage of erythrocytes in a given volume of blood?
A) Hemoglobin
B) Hematocrit
C) Mean cell volume (MCV)
D) Red blood cell count

B) Hematocrit

In anemia, which of the following is a physiologic response to hypoxia?
A) Low blood pressure
B) Splenomegaly
C) Increased respiratory rate
D) Clot formation

C) Increased respiratory rate

In anemia, what factor stimulates the production of erythropoietin?
A) Low blood viscosity
B) Tissue hypoxia
C) Inflammation
D) Release of stress hormones

B) Tissue hypoxia

General causes of the decreased number of erythrocytes in anemia include all of the following except:
A) hemorrhage.
B) hemolysis.
C) dehydration.
D) decreased erythropoiesis.

C) dehydration.

Pernicious anemia is caused by:
A) iron deficiency.
B) bone marrow failure.
C) folate deficiency.
D) vitamin B12 deficiency.

D) vitamin B12 deficiency.

Vitamin B12 or folate deficiency anemia usually exhibits a red blood cell morphology that is:
A) microcytic and hypochromic.
B) macrocytic and normochromic.
C) normocytic and normochromic.
D) macrocytic and hypochromic.

B) macrocytic and normochromic.

Why is gastric bypass surgery for morbid obesity a risk factor for the development of pernicious (vitamin B12 deficiency) anemia?
A) Vitamin B12 is absorbed in the stomach.
B) Intrinsic factor production by the gastric epithelium is reduced.
C) Postoperative antibodies to vitamin B12 are produced.
D) Vitamin B12 stores are in the adipose tissue.

B) Intrinsic factor production by the gastric epithelium is reduced.

Iron-deficiency anemia among adult populations in the United States is most commonly caused by:
A) chronic inflammatory and autoimmune diseases.
B) inadequate dietary iron.
C) chronic gastrointestinal bleeding.
D) renal disease.

C) chronic gastrointestinal bleeding

Clinical manifestations of iron deficiency include all of the following except:
A) diarrhea.
B) fatigue and weakness.
C) brittle, concave nails.
D) a red, sore tongue.

A) diarrhea.

What is the general cause of aplastic anemia?
A) Hemolysis in the spleen
B) Severe nutritional deficiencies
C) Autoimmune destruction of mature red blood cells
D) Bone marrow failure

D) Bone marrow failure

In the United States, sickle cell disease is most common among _________ populations.
A) Hispanic/Latino
B) Asian
C) Black
D) Caucasian

C) Black

What is the pattern of inheritance of the gene for sickle cell disease?
A) Autosomal dominant
B) Nondisjunction
C) X-linked recessive
D) Autosomal recessive

A) Autosomal dominant

Secondary polycythemia caused by hypoxemia at high altitude manifests with which of the following problems?
A) Severe anemia
B) Increased erythrocyte production
C) Thrombocytopenia
D) Neutrophilia

B) Increased erythrocyte production

An increase in the production of neutrophils in response to infection is called:
A) neutropenia.
B) pancytopenia.
C) right shift.
D) neutrophilia.

D) neutrophilia

Mononucleosis is caused by infection of the B lymphocytes by which of the following microorganisms?
A) Influenza virus
B) Human immunodeficiency virus
C) Epstein-Barr virus
D) Staphylococcus aureus

C) Epstein-Barr virus

Which of the following are clinical manifestations of infectious mononucleosis?
A) Fever and sore throat
B) Headache and joint aches
C) Fatigue and enlarged cervical lymph nodes
D) All of the above

D) All of the above

Leukemia is classified as:
A) differentiated or undifferentiated.
B) benign or malignant.
C) proliferative or nonproliferative.
D) acute or chronic.

D) acute or chronic.

Symptoms that individuals with acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) may present with include all of the following except:
A) ecchymosis and petechiae.
B) fatigue and weakness.
C) hypertension and myocardial hypertrophy.
D) recurrent infections.

C) hypertension and myocardial hypertrophy.

Multiple myeloma is the proliferation of malignant plasma cells that aggregate into tumor masses that are distributed in the:
A) lung.
B) brain.
C) bones.
D) liver.

C) bones.

One of the first clinical manifestations to arise in Hodgkin lymphoma is the presence of:
A) bone pain.
B) an abdominal mass.
C) lymphadenopathy.
D) dyspnea.

C) lymphadenopathy.

Which of the following are known causes of non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL)?
A) Immunosuppression following organ transplantation
B) Viral infection
C) Chemical exposure
D) All of the above

D) All of the above

Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) occurs in 5% to 15% of all individuals receiving heparin therapy. In these individuals, the administration of heparin induces:
A) platelet aggregation and thrombus formation.
B) the antibody-mediated destruction of platelets.
C) lysis of megakaryocytes in the bone marrow.
D) release of deformed platelets that are unable to form clots.

A) platelet aggregation and thrombus formation.

Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is caused by:
A) a vaccine-induced hypersensitivity reaction against platelets.
B) viral-induced hyperproliferation of platelets.
C) antibody destruction of platelets in the spleen.
D) drug-induced platelet toxicity.

C) antibody destruction of platelets in the spleen.

Which of the following statements provides the best general definition of anemia?
A) Decreased amount of circulating plasma volume
B) Decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood cells
C) Presence of tissue hypoxia
D) Bone marrow failure

B) Decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood cells

Which of the following conditions are associated with the development of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
A) Sepsis
B) Major trauma
C) Obstetrical accidents
D) All of the above

D) All of the above

A deficiency in which vitamin will lead to decreased clotting capabilities and increased risk of bleeding?
A) C
B) E
C) A
D) K

D) K

The most common consequence of atherosclerosis is:
A) increased blood flow through the diseased vessels.
B) formation of aneurysms.
C) autoimmune destruction of the vessel wall.
D) obstruction of the blood vessel lumen.

D) obstruction of the blood vessel lumen.

Factors associated with endothelial injury in atherosclerosis include all of the following except:
A) autoimmunity.
B) anemia.
C) bacterial infection.
D) smoking.

B) anemia.

Which of the following white blood cells play a role in the development of the fatty streak in atherosclerosis?
A) Mast cells
B) Neutrophils
C) Macrophages
D) Lymphocytes

C) Macrophages

Mitogens, such as angiotensin II, contribute to the development of atherosclerosis by stimulating which of the following events?
A) Smooth muscle proliferation
B) Endothelial injury
C) Cardiac muscle toxicity
D) Activation of phagocytes

A) Smooth muscle proliferation

In the development of primary hypertension, increased sympathetic nervous system (SNS) activity causes:
A) decreased heart rate.
B) increased renal excretion of sodium.
C) peripheral vasoconstriction.
D) decreased insulin resistance.

C) peripheral vasoconstriction.

Dysfunction in the normal secretion of natriuretic hormones affects renal reabsorption of:
A) water only.
B) calcium.
C) sodium.
D) aldosterone.

C) sodium.

A risk factor that is associated with atherosclerosis and primary hypertension is:
A) a high sodium diet.
B) advanced age.
C) hyperhomocysteinemia.
D) a low potassium diet

B) advanced age.

Over time, sustained hypertension can result in which of the following problems?
A) Insulin resistance
B) Vascular remodeling
C) Retention of fluid by the kidneys
D) Hormone dysfunction

B) Vascular remodeling

An individual with secondary hypertension has an abnormal blood pressure caused by:
A) prolonged primary hypertension.
B) high sodium intake.
C) genetics.
D) a systemic disease.

D) a systemic disease.

Orthostatic hypotension refers to a decrease in both systolic and diastolic blood pressure when an individual:
A) sleeps.
B) exercises.
C) sits down.
D) stands up.

D) stands up.

A ruptured cerebral aneurysm often will result in:
A) stroke.
B) myocardial infarction.
C) hypotension from blood loss.
D) pulmonary embolism.

A) stroke.

The pathophysiology of deep venous thrombosis (DVT) can be described though three processes, known as Virchow's triad. Which of the following is not a component of Virchow's triad?
A) Endothelial injury
B) LDL accumulation
C) Venous stasis
D) Hypercoagulable state

B) LDL accumulation

The most common cause of coronary artery disease is:
A) myocarditis.
B) hypoglycemia.
C) atherosclerosis.
D) vasospasm.

C) atherosclerosis.

The most important component in the development of acute coronary syndromes is a decrease in supply or an increase in demand for:
A) potassium and sodium.
B) glucose.
C) myoglobin.
D) oxygen.

D) oxygen.

Aortic stenosis results in the incomplete emptying of the:
A) right atrium.
B) right ventricle.
C) left atrium.
D) left ventricle.

D) left ventricle.

The most common cardiac valve disease in the United States, which tends to be most prevalent in young women, is:
A) mitral valve prolapse.
B) pulmonary stenosis.
C) tricuspid regurgitation.
D) aortic stenosis.

A) mitral valve prolapse

In the elderly, aortic stenosis usually results from which of the following conditions?
A) congenital disorders.
B) rheumatic heart disease.
C) degeneration and calcification of the valve.
D) Marfan syndrome.

C) degeneration and calcification of the valve.

Many valvular stenosis and regurgitation disorders in adults have a common etiology. Which of the following can result in both types of valve dysfunction?
A) Rheumatic heart disease
B) Syphilis infection
C) Connective tissue disorders
D) Heart failure

A) Rheumatic heart disease

Congestive heart failure (CHF) results in which of the following intraventricular hemodynamic changes?
A) Increased left ventricular preload
B) Increased ejection fraction
C) Decreased right ventricular preload
D) Decreased right ventricular end-diastolic pressure

A) Increased left ventricular preload

A patient is diagnosed with chronic pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance. Which of the following heart failures generally results from this condition?
A) Right heart failure
B) Left heart failure
C) Low-output failure
D) High-output failure

A) Right heart failure

Clinical manifestations of hypovolemic shock include all of the following except:
A) pulmonary edema.
B) tachycardia.
C) hypotension.
D) oliguria.

A) pulmonary edema.

What is the primary cause of hypotension in early stages of septic shock?
A) Blood loss
B) Arterial vasodilation
C) Activation of the parasympathetic nervous system
D) Heart failure

B) Arterial vasodilation

Low levels of which molecule contributes to the pathophysiology of septic shock?
A) Nitric oxide
B) Interleukin 1
C) Activated protein C
D) Epinephrine

C) Activated protein C

Which of the following events initiates the process of atherosclerosis?
A) Oxidation of LDL in the vessel wall
B) Formation of the fatty streak in the tunica media
C) Thrombosis in the vessel lumen
D) Endothelial injury and release of cytokines

D) Endothelial injury and release of cytokines

When a myocardial infarction occurs, the myocardial cells surrounding the infarct undergo structural and functional changes. Which one of the following changes can be observed in these tissues following a myocardial infarction?
A) Temporary increase in contractile activity
B) Increased metabolism
C) Myocardial remodeling
D) Necrosis

C) Myocardial remodeling

Hypertrophy of the nailbeds due to chronic hypoxemia is called:
A) hemoptysis.
B) clubbing.
C) cyanosis.
D) a bulla.

B) clubbing.

Hypoventilation results in:
A) hypercapnia.
B) respiratory alkalosis.
C) increased minute ventilation.
D) decreased PaCO2.

A) hypercapnia.

Respiratory acidosis can result from:
A) increased minute ventilation.
B) decreased PaCO2.
C) tissue hypoxia.
D) reduced tidal volumes

D) reduced tidal volumes

A decrease in tidal volume results in a decrease in:
A) PaCO2.
B) the respiratory rate.
C) minute ventilation.
D) acidity.

C) minute ventilation.

The collapse of a previously inflated area of lung tissue is called:
A) aspiration.
B) bronchiectasis.
C) bronchiolitis.
D) atelectasis.

D) atelectasis.

Coal miners or individuals exposed to asbestos often develop a chronic respiratory condition called:
A) bronchiolitis.
B) pneumoconiosis.
C) empyema.
D) allergic alveolitis.

B) pneumoconiosis.

In acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), alveolar damage and impaired surfactant secretion lead to each of the following problemsexcept:
A) pulmonary edema.
B) atelectasis.
C) air trapping.
D) pulmonary thrombus formation.

C) air trapping.

When exposed to inhaled allergens, a child with asthma produces large quantities of:
A) IgG.
B) IgE.
C) IgA.
D) IgM.

B) IgE.

In individuals with asthma, exposure to an allergen leads to which of the following pathophysiological events?
A) Loss of elastin and increased airway compliance
B) Pulmonary edema and increased alveolar compliance
C) Type II alveolar cell injury and decreased surfactant
D) Bronchoconstriction and airway edema

D) Bronchoconstriction and airway edema

When conducting a physical assessment of an individual during an acute asthma episode, you would expect to observe all of the followingexcept:
A) the use of accessory breathing muscles.
B) expiratory wheezing.
C) the absence of pulsus paradoxus.
D) coughing.

C) the absence of pulsus paradoxus.

The loss of alpha1-antitrypsin in emphysema results in:
A) chronic mucous secretion and airway fibrosis.
B) the destruction of alveolar septa and the loss of elastic recoil.
C) pulmonary edema and increased alveolar compliance.
D) bronchoconstriction and airway edema.

B) the destruction of alveolar septa and the loss of elastic recoil.

A frequent complication of chronic bronchitis related to the hypersecretion of mucus is:
A) recurrent infections.
B) destruction of the alveolar septa.
C) suppression of the inflammatory response.
D) epithelial desquamation.

A) recurrent infections.

Pneumonia leads to hypoxemia due to:
A) cardiogenic pulmonary edema.
B) upper airway obstruction.
C) the accumulation of exudates and fibrin deposition.
D) the decreased fraction of inspired oxygen.

C) the accumulation of exudates and fibrin deposition.

Risk factors for tuberculosis (TB) include:
A) age.
B) immunosuppression.
C) gender.
D) excessive use of antibiotics.

B) immunosuppression.

Chronic pulmonary hypertension can eventually cause which of the following complications?
A) Pulmonary emboli
B) Congestive heart failure
C) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
D) Cor pulmonale

D) Cor pulmonale

Signs and symptoms of dyspnea include:
A) decreased work of breathing.
B) feeling short of breath.
C) a failure to use accessory breathing muscles.
D) an improvement of symptoms with exercise.

B) feeling short of breath.

A life-threatening complication of asthma is:
A) exercise-induced asthma.
B) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
C) status asthmaticus.
D) bronchiectasis.

C) status asthmaticus.

Airway obstruction in chronic bronchitis is generally the result of:
A) thick mucous secretions and smooth muscle hypertrophy.
B) loss of alveolar elastin.
C) the accumulation of pulmonary edema.
D) hyperplasia of bronchial cartilage.

A) thick mucous secretions and smooth muscle hypertrophy.

Which of the following measures is most effective for preventing pulmonary emboli in patients who are recovering from a major surgery?
A) Ambulate patients frequently to prevent blood clot formation.
B) Ensure that patients use supplemental oxygen.
C) Prevent the development of anemia.
D) Promote aggressive fluid intake.

A) Ambulate patients frequently to prevent blood clot formation.

Primary pulmonary hypertension usually is caused by:
A) chronic pulmonary disease.
B) right-sided heart failure.
C) hereditary traits.
D) pulmonary emboli.

C) hereditary traits.

Inflammation of the pleura that causes pain on inspiration is called:
A) an abscess.
B) pleurisy.
C) flail chest.
D) pleural effusion.

B) pleurisy.

A 50-year-old diabetic male did not take his medication and is now in metabolic acidosis. He is experiencing Kussmaul respirations that can be characterized by:
A) audible wheezing or stridor.
B) a slightly increased ventilatory rate, large tidal volumes, and no expiratory pause.
C) rapid respirations with periods of apnea.
D) very slow inhalations and rapid expirations.

B) a slightly increased ventilatory rate, large tidal volumes, and no expiratory pause.

A 20-year-old male is in acute pain. An arterial blood gas reveals decreased carbon dioxide levels. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A) Hyperventilation
B) Hypoventilation
C) Apnea
D) Cyanosis

A) Hyperventilation

An 80-year-old female develops pneumonia in the hospital. She becomes cyanotic, tachycardic, and develops a fever and cough. Chest x-ray reveals pus in the pleural space. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Empyema
B) Emphysema
C) Pleurisy
D) Chyle

A) Empyema

Severe acute respiratory distress syndrome (SARS) is transmitted via which of the following mechanisms?
A) Skin contact
B) Sexual contact
C) Droplet inhalation
D) contaminated food

C) Droplet inhalation

What is the consequence of an upper urinary tract obstruction in a single ureter?
A) Renal stone formation
B) Hydronephrosis
C) Dilation of the urethra
D) Anuria

B) Hydronephrosis

A major modifiable risk factor for the development of renal calculi in the general population is:
A) obesity.
B) dehydration.
C) smoking.
D) drinking alcohol.

B) dehydration.

Which of the following procedures uses ultrasound waves to break large renal calculi into smaller stones that can be passed through the urinary tract?
A) Lithotripsy
B) Pyelography
C) Renal biopsy
D) Enterocystoplasty

A) Lithotripsy

Which of the following disorders is characterized by a lesion of the central or peripheral nervous system that affects bladder control?
A) Neurogenic bladder
B) Bladder dyssynergia
C) Bladder prolapse
D) Cystitis

A) Neurogenic bladder

Problems associated with a lower urinary tract obstruction include all of the following except:
A) urinary retention.
B) flank pain.
C) increased voiding frequency.
D) intermittent urinary stream.

B) flank pain.

A major risk factor for developing bladder cancer is:
A) exposure to asbestos.
B) urethral obstruction.
C) cystitis.
D) smoking.

D) smoking.

In addition to urinary tract infection, which of the following is a risk factor in the development of pyelonephritis?
A) Urinary retention and reflux
B) Nephrotic syndrome
C) Respiratory disease
D) Glomerulonephritis

A) Urinary retention and reflux

Which of the following symptoms manifests with both urinary tract infection and pyelonephritis?
A) Costovertebral (CVA) tenderness
B) Chills
C) Dysuria
D) Fever

C) Dysuria

What would urinalysis show in a patient who is developing glomerular disease?
A) Increased urine creatinine
B) Proteinuria
C) Low urine sodium
D) Presence of white blood cells

B) Proteinuria

Nephrotic syndrome occurs when there is loss of _____ in the urine.
A) red blood cells
B) sodium
C) glucose
D) protein

D) protein

In renal failure, the kidneys will continue to adapt until renal function reaches what percent of normal?
A) 75%
B) 50%
C) 25%
D) 10%

C) 25%

The primary manifestation of acute renal failure is:
A) proteinuria.
B) oliguria.
C) hematuria.
D) diuresis.

B) oliguria.

Which of the following dietary nutrients must be restricted in individuals with advanced chronic renal failure?
A) Fats
B) Carbohydrates
C) Protein
D) All of the above

C) Protein

Which of the following complications associated with renal failure creates the greatest need for immediate dialysis?
A) Uremia
B) Increased creatinine
C) Hypertension
D) Hyperkalemia

D) Hyperkalemia

Loss of one kidney results in ______ of the remaining kidney.
A) hyperplasia
B) hypertrophy
C) atrophy
D) dysplasia

B) hypertrophy

Obstruction of the lower urinary tract in males is often caused by:
A) congenital stricture of a calyx.
B) prostate enlargement.
C) pelvic organ prolapse.
D) urinary tract infection.

B) prostate enlargement.

Which of the following factors has a major influence on the development of renal calculi?
A) Urine sodium levels
B) Serum lactate levels
C) Urine pH
D) Urine creatinine levels

C) Urine pH

The main clinical manifestation of a kidney stone obstructing the ureter is:
A) pyuria.
B) renal colic.
C) urge incontinence.
D) an abdominal mass.

B) renal colic.

Which one of the following microorganisms causes the vast majority of urinary tract infections (UTIs)?
A) Klebsiella
B) Escherichia coli
C) Herpes simplex virus
D) Candida albicans

B) Escherichia coli

The cause of glomerulonephritis is:
A) infection of the glomerular capsule secondary to a urinary tract infection.
B) antigen-antibody complexes that deposit on the glomerular membrane.
C) hydronephrosis from kidney stones.
D) viral infection in the blood stream that migrates to the glomerulus.

B) antigen-antibody complexes that deposit on the glomerular membrane.

Renal insufficiency refers to a decline in renal function to ____ of normal.
A) 75%
B) 50%
C) 25%
D) 5%

C) 25%

Prerenal causes of acute renal failure include:
A) severe hypotension.
B) glomerulonephritis.
C) kidney stones.
D) acute tubular necrosis.

A) severe hypotension.

Individuals with chronic renal failure are at risk for osteomalacia and spontaneous bone fractures because:
A) excess potassium leaches calcium from the bone.
B) erythropoietin secretion is impaired.
C) urea causes demineralization of the bone tissue.
D) of a vitamin D deficiency.

D) of a vitamin D deficiency.

Renal calculi are formed from all of the following substances except:
A) Struvite
B) Calcium oxalate
C) Uric acid
D) Urobilirubin

D) Urobilirubin

Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases is associated with urinary tract infections?
A) Herpes simplex virus
B) Candida albicans
C) Human papillomavirus
D) Trichomoniasis

B) Candida albicans

Pelvic inflammatory disease is caused by:
A) elevated estrogen.
B) sexually transmitted infections.
C) ectopic pregnancy.
D) cervical tumors.

B) sexually transmitted infections.

Urethritis is a common disorder of the male urethra and is most commonly caused by:
A) mechanical trauma.
B) urethral scarring.
C) sexually transmitted infection.
D) poor hygiene.

C) sexually transmitted infection.

The condition in which one or both testes fail to descend from the abdomen into the scrotum in early childhood development is called:
A) cryptorchidism.
B) testicular torsion.
C) orchitis.
D) Peyronie disease.

A) cryptorchidism.

Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) results in:
A) infertility.
B) urethral obstruction.
C) prolapsed bladder.
D) testicular cancer.

B) urethral obstruction.

The most important risk factor related to the development of cervical cancer is:
A) infection with the human papillomavirus (HPV).
B) exposure to diethylstilbestrol (DES).
C) cigarette smoking.
D) overuse of antibiotics.

A) infection with the human papillomavirus (HPV).

To prevent prostate cancer, men should be encouraged to consume a diet low in:
A) salt.
B) fiber.
C) fat.
D) calcium.

C) fat.

The pathophysiology of prostate cancer involves all of the following factors except:
A) increased insulin-like growth factor.
B) increased dihydrotestosterone (DHT).
C) increased estradiol production.
D) genetic predisposition.

B) increased dihydrotestosterone (DHT).

Failure to menstruate and develop secondary sex characteristics by age 14 is a condition called:
A) dysmenorrhea.
B) dysfunctional menarche.
C) primary amenorrhea.
D) secondary amenorrhea.

C) primary amenorrhea.

Irregular menstrual cycles, heavy bleeding, and passage of large clots are symptoms of:
A) dysfunctional uterine bleeding.
B) polycystic ovarian syndrome.
C) primary dysmenorrhea.
D) premenstrual syndrome.

A) dysfunctional uterine bleeding.

Vaginitis caused by infection is often related to:
A) antibiotic use.
B) hypothyroidism.
C) autoimmune disease.
D) irregular menstrual cycles.

A) antibiotic use.

In a person with endometriosis, where can endometrial implants be found?
A) Abdominal cavity
B) Ovaries
C) Lungs
D) All of the above

D) All of the above

The Papanicolaou test (Pap smear) is used for routine screening of which gynecological cancer?
A) Ovarian
B) Endometrial
C) Cervical
D) Vaginal

C) Cervical

The major endocrine abnormality associated with the development of polycystic ovarian syndrome is:
A) depressed estradiol levels.
B) hyperinsulinemia.
C) hypocortisolism.
D) low androgen production.

B) hyperinsulinemia.

Which of the following symptoms suggests that a woman should be carefully evaluated for breast cancer?
A) Dimpling of the skin on the breast
B) Enlarged axillary lymph nodes
C) Abnormal discharge from the nipple
D) All of the above

D) All of the above

The prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test is used to screen for which prostate problem?
A) Bacterial prostatitis
B) Nonbacterial prostatitis
C) Prostatodynia
D) Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)

D) Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)

The risk of testicular cancer is greater for men who have a history of:
A) priapism.
B) cryptorchidism.
C) phimosis.
D) varicocele.

B) cryptorchidism.

Symptoms of prostate cancer are similar to:
A) urinary tract infection.
B) epididymitis.
C) benign prostatic hyperplasia.
D) prostatitis.

C) benign prostatic hyperplasia.

Which of the following is the most important risk factor in the development of prostate cancer?
A) Older age
B) Vasectomy
C) Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)
D) Family history

A) Older age

One factor that offers a protective effect against the development of breast cancer is:
A) regular exercise.
B) birth control pills.
C) not having children.
D) moderate alcohol use.

A) regular exercise

Causes of secondary amenorrhea other than pregnancy and menopause include which of the following?
A) Pituitary tumors
B) Thyroid disorders
C) Extreme weight loss
D) All of the above

D) All of the above

A 25-year-old female presents with amenorrhea and hirsutism. She is diagnosed with polycystic ovarian syndrome. Lab testing will most likely reveal:
A) estrogen deficit.
B) genetic cancerous mutations.
C) cortisol excess.
D) hyperinsulinemia.

D) hyperinsulinemia.

A 21-year-old female is infected with HPV following unprotected sexual intercourse with a male she recently met. She is now at higher risk of developing which of the following cancers?
A) Cervical
B) Ovarian
C) Endometrial
D) Vulvar

A) Cervical

A 21-year-old male presents with inflammation of the testes. He has a high fever and edema and redness of the testes. Which organism is the most likely the cause of his symptoms?
A) Herpes virus
B) Escherichia coli
C) Mumps
D) Cytomegalovirus

C) Mumps

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