Psychology Final

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"A system for communicating with others using signals that convey meaning and are combined according to rules of grammar" is the definition of:
A) semantics.
B) morphemes.
C) syntax.
D) language.

A) semantics.
B) morphemes.
C) syntax.
---------D) language------

"B" and "P" differ in the way they are produced by a human speaker. As such, they are both examples of:

A) phonemes.
B) symbols.
C) morphemes.
D) menetics.

-----A) phonemes------
B) symbols.
C) morphemes.
D) menetics.

3. The word "and" is an example of a ________ morpheme.

A) Content
B) Phonetic
C) Tangible
D) Function

A) Content
B) Phonetic
C) Tangible
------D) Function-------

Deep structure refers to:

A) the grammar of a sentence.
B) how a sentence is worded.
C) the meaning of a sentence.
D) the morphology of a sentence.

A) the grammar of a sentence.
B) how a sentence is worded.
-------C) the meaning of a sentence. -------
D) the morphology of a sentence.

Which statement about a child's ability to distinguish speech sounds is TRUE?

A) Newborns can distinguish among only a few sounds, but by 6 months, babies can distinguish among the sounds of all languages.
B) Newborns can distinguish among the sounds of all languages, but by 6 months, babies lose this ability.
C) Newborns can distinguish among the sounds of all languages, and this ability is retained throughout life.
D) Newborns can distinguish only among the sounds that are spoken to them, and they never develop the ability to distinguish among the sounds of all languages.

Newborns can distinguish among only a few sounds, but by 6 months, babies can distinguish among the sounds of all languages.
---Newborns can distinguish among the sounds of all languages, but by 6 months, babies lose this ability.---------
Newborns can distinguish among the sounds of all languages, and this ability is retained throughout life.
Newborns can distinguish only among the sounds that are spoken to them, and they never develop the ability to distinguish among the sounds of all languages.

Which statement about the babbling of deaf babies is FALSE?

A) Deaf babies babble sounds they have never heard.
B) Deaf babies babble sounds in the same order as hearing babies do.
C) Deaf babies babble earlier relative to the babbling of hearing babies.
D) Deaf babies babble less relative to the babbling of hearing babies.

A) Deaf babies babble sounds they have never heard.
-----B) Deaf babies babble sounds in the same order as hearing babies do. -------
C) Deaf babies babble earlier relative to the babbling of hearing babies.
D) Deaf babies babble less relative to the babbling of hearing babies.

Children overgeneralize the rules of the grammar that guide their spoken language, resulting in speech language errors. The predictability of these errors illustrates an important point regarding language development, namely:

A) language development comes about mainly through imitating adult forms of speech.
B) language development is primarily a matter of memorizing appropriate speech sounds and then repeating them.
C) language development is a hit-or-miss enterprise; children acquire language largely through trial and error.
D) language development is guided by implicit grammatical rules that children use to produce new sentences and verbal constructions they've never heard before.

A) language development comes about mainly through imitating adult forms of speech.
B) language development is primarily a matter of memorizing appropriate speech sounds and then repeating them.
C) language development is a hit-or-miss enterprise; children acquire language largely through trial and error.
-------D) language development is guided by implicit grammatical rules that children use to produce new sentences and verbal constructions they've never heard before.

According to Chomsky and others, the behaviorist theory of language cannot account for which aspect of language development?

A) Grammar develops despite parents not spending much time teaching it to their children.
B) Children generate grammatical sentences they have never heard.
C) Children's language errors are overgeneralizations of rules instead of imitations of heard speech.
D) All of the answers are correct.

A) Grammar develops despite parents not spending much time teaching it to their children.
B) Children generate grammatical sentences they have never heard.
C) Children's language errors are overgeneralizations of rules instead of imitations of heard speech.
--------D) All of the answers are correct.

The case of Genie, a child who lived in virtual isolation for a decade, illustrates which important point about the nativist explanation of language development?

A) Language can develop at any stage of growth; the brain is malleable enough to acquire language throughout the life span.
B) Genetic dysphasia results from impoverished environmental conditions.
C) Language can be acquired only within a restricted period of development; after that period, gains in language skills are minimal.
D) Despite isolation from other speakers, language development still occurs, but at a slower rate.

A) Language can develop at any stage of growth; the brain is malleable enough to acquire language throughout the life span.
B) Genetic dysphasia results from impoverished environmental conditions.
----------C) Language can be acquired only within a restricted period of development; after that period, gains in language skills are minimal.
D) Despite isolation from other speakers, language development still occurs, but at a slower rate.

When Broca's area is damaged, patients:

A) have a hard time understanding language.
B) usually continue to produce grammatical speech.
C) produce sentences that tend to be meaningless.
D) have a hard time with speech production.

A) have a hard time understanding language.
B) usually continue to produce grammatical speech.
C) produce sentences that tend to be meaningless.
----------D) have a hard time with speech production.

Damage to Wernicke's area results in:

A) have a hard time understanding language.
B) usually continue to produce grammatical speech.
C) produce sentences that tend to be meaningless.
D) have a hard time with speech production.

A) failure to produce grammatical speech.
----------B) great difficulty in understanding language.
C) genetic dysphasia.
D) great difficulty in identifying non-language sounds.

When apes communicate using forms of human language, their communication typically lacks:

A) grammatically correct complex sentences.
B) modifiers, such as adjectives and adverbs.
C) an emotional context.
D) verbs.

-----------A) grammatically correct complex sentences.
B) modifiers, such as adjectives and adverbs.
C) an emotional context.
D) verbs.

Which of the following is not a true statement about the limitations of language learning in apes?

A) Apes' vocabularies are quite small, compared to those of even toddlers.
B) Apes can master words for concrete objects, but have difficulty with abstract concepts.
C) Apes can exhibit an active mastery of a few hundred words but fail to exhibit a passive mastery of them.
D) Ape communication is usually telegraphic; it rarely consists of grammatically correct complex sentences.

----------A) Apes' vocabularies are quite small, compared to those of even toddlers.
B) Apes can master words for concrete objects, but have difficulty with abstract concepts.
C) Apes can exhibit an active mastery of a few hundred words but fail to exhibit a passive mastery of them.
D) Ape communication is usually telegraphic; it rarely consists of grammatically correct complex sentences.

The linguistic relativity hypothesis holds that

A) different languages use different grammatical constructions.
B) language shapes the nature of thought.
C) different brain regions are activated when a bilingual person uses her native language as opposed to her second language.
D) all languages change over time.

A) different languages use different grammatical constructions.
----------B) language shapes the nature of thought.
C) different brain regions are activated when a bilingual person uses her native language as opposed to her second language.
D) all languages change over time.

The linguistic relativity hypothesis was first proposed by:

A) Benjamin Whorf.
B) B. F. Skinner.
C) Noam Chomsky.
D) Bernard Weiner.

----------A) Benjamin Whorf.
B) B. F. Skinner.
C) Noam Chomsky.
D) Bernard Weiner.

The language of the Inuit in Canada has many different terms for frozen white flakes of precipitation, for which we use the term snow. ________ argued that, because of this, the Inuit ________.

A) Benjamin Whorf; perceive snow differently from English speakers
B) Noam Chomsky; have a fundamentally different language acquisition device than English speakers
C) Eleanor Rosch; think about snow in a fundamentally different way than English speakers
D) Allen Gardner; form emotional associations with snow more easily than English speakers

----------A) Benjamin Whorf; perceive snow differently from English speakers
B) Noam Chomsky; have a fundamentally different language acquisition device than English speakers
C) Eleanor Rosch; think about snow in a fundamentally different way than English speakers
D) Allen Gardner; form emotional associations with snow more easily than English speakers

Winawer et al. (2007) presented English and Russian speakers with a blue sample stimulus. They also were shown two blue comparison stimuli. One comparison stimulus matched the shade of the sample stimulus, and one comparison stimulus was of a different shade. Participants were asked to identify which of the two comparison stimuli matched the sample stimulus. This research found that:

A) Russian speakers took longer than English speakers to make this determination when one comparison stimulus was dark blue and the other comparison stimulus was light blue.
B) English speakers took longer than Russian speakers to make this determination when one comparison stimulus was dark blue and the other comparison stimulus was light blue.
C) Russian speakers took longer than English speakers to make this determination when all three stimuli were shades of light blue.
D) American speakers took longer than English speakers to make this determination when all three stimuli were shades of dark blue.

A) Russian speakers took longer than English speakers to make this determination when one comparison stimulus was dark blue and the other comparison stimulus was light blue.
------------- B) English speakers took longer than Russian speakers to make this determination when one comparison stimulus was dark blue and the other comparison stimulus was light blue.
C) Russian speakers took longer than English speakers to make this determination when all three stimuli were shades of light blue.
D) American speakers took longer than English speakers to make this determination when all three stimuli were shades of dark blue.

The "best" or "most typical" member of a category is called a(n):

A) concept.
B) prototype.
C) exemplar.
D) heuristic.

A) concept.
----------B) prototype.
C) exemplar.
D) heuristic.

According to prototype theory, if your prototypical bird is a wren, then the best example of a bird is which of the following?

A) bald eagle
B) Ostrich
C) Chicken
D) Robin

A) bald eagle
B) Ostrich
C) Chicken
----------D) Robin

________ are "mental shortcuts" that may or may not be effective, whereas ________ are well-defined rules that guarantee a solution to a problem.

A) Conjunctions; algorithms
B) Deductions; heuristics
C) Conjunctions; heuristics
D) Heuristics; algorithms

A) Conjunctions; algorithms
B) Deductions; heuristics
C) Conjunctions; heuristics
----------D) Heuristics; algorithms

The availability bias is an example of a(n):

A) algorithm.
B) heuristic.
C) fallacy.
D) framing effect.

A) algorithm.
B) heuristic.
------------ C) fallacy.
D) framing effect.

People think that two events are more likely to occur together than either event is likely to occur individually. This is called the:

A) conjunction fallacy.
B) availability bias.
C) representative heuristic.
D) sunk-cost fallacy.

------- A) conjunction fallacy.
B) availability bias.
C) representative heuristic.
D) sunk-cost fallacy.

Consider the following description. Jeff is 33 years old, intelligent, and outgoing. In college, he majored in English and was very concerned with current political issues. Which state of affairs most probably best describes Jeff?

A) Jeff is a bank teller.
B) Jeff is a bank teller and writes nonfiction stories.
C) Jeff is a bank teller, writes nonfiction stories, and does crossword puzzles.
D) Jeff is a bank teller who writes nonfiction stories, does crossword puzzles, and is active in his local government.

A) Jeff is a bank teller.
B) Jeff is a bank teller and writes nonfiction stories.
C) Jeff is a bank teller, writes nonfiction stories, and does crossword puzzles.
--------- D) Jeff is a bank teller who writes nonfiction stories, does crossword puzzles, and is active in his local government.

Because the combined probability of events is always ________ than the independent probability of each event, it's always ________ probable that any one state of affairs is true than a set of events simultaneously.

A) less; less
B) less; more
C) more; more
D) more; less

A) less; less
B) less; more
C) more; more
D) more; less

The ________ involves making a probability judgment by comparing an object or event to a prototype of the object or event.
A) conjunction fallacy
B) familiar resemblance theory
C) availability heuristic
D) representative heuristic

A) conjunction fallacy
B) familiar resemblance theory
C) availability heuristic
----------D) representative heuristic

The "Aha!" moment that accompanies an insightful solution occurs about one-third of a second after a spike in electrical activity in the:

A) prefrontal cortex.
B) right temporal lobe.
C) hippocampus.
D) visual cortex.

A) prefrontal cortex.
B) right temporal lobe.
C) hippocampus.
D) visual cortex.

What is the order of the stages of prenatal development?
A) embryonic, germinal, fetal
B) germinal, embryonic, fetal
C) germinal, fetal, embryonic
D) embryonic, fetal, germinal

A) embryonic, germinal, fetal
----------B) germinal, embryonic, fetal
C) germinal, fetal, embryonic
D) embryonic, fetal, germinal

Which is the longest stage of prenatal development?

A) Zygotal
B) Germinal
C) Fetal
D) Embryonic

A) Zygotal
B) Germinal
----------C) Fetal
D) Embryonic

The process of myelination in the brain:

A) is complete by the time a baby is born.
B) occurs at a relatively constant rate across all areas.
C) is completed in the cerebral cortex by approximately 1 year of age.
D) continues into adulthood for some parts of the brain.

A) is complete by the time a baby is born.
B) occurs at a relatively constant rate across all areas.
C) is completed in the cerebral cortex by approximately 1 year of age.
--------- D) continues into adulthood for some parts of the brain.

Children of mothers who received insufficient nutrition during pregnancy tend to have:

A) physical but not psychological problems.
B) psychological but not physical problems.
C) both physical and psychological problems.
D) neither physical nor psychological problems.

A) physical but not psychological problems.
B) psychological but not physical problems.
----------C) both physical and psychological problems.
D) neither physical nor psychological problems.

Heavy alcohol use by the mother during pregnancy can lead to which of the following conditions in her child?

A) low birth weight
B) enlarged heart
C) problems with academic achievement
D) deformed limbs

A) low birth weight
B) enlarged heart
-------- C) problems with academic achievement
D) deformed limbs

All but one of the following statements are true and important for expectant parents to know. Which statement is FALSE?

A) The fetus is more vulnerable to teratogens than the embryo.
B) There is no medical consensus as to a "safe" amount of alcohol consumption for pregnant women.
C) Prenatal exposure to second-hand smoke can result in deficits in learning and attention.
D) Pregnant women should avoid eating fish containing trace amounts of mercury. ?

A) The fetus is more vulnerable to teratogens than the embryo.
B) There is no medical consensus as to a "safe" amount of alcohol consumption for pregnant women.
C) Prenatal exposure to second-hand smoke can result in deficits in learning and attention.
----------D) Pregnant women should avoid eating fish containing trace amounts of mercury. ?

At birth, an infant is able to do all of the following EXCEPT:

A) show the rooting reflex.
B) suck.
C) reach for a bottle.
D) mimic facial expressions.

A) show the rooting reflex.
B) suck.
-----------C) reach for a bottle.
D) mimic facial expressions.

Motor skills in infancy emerge:

A) in an orderly sequence, but the timing varies for different infants.
B) at the same time for all babies, but their sequence varies for different infants.
C) in different sequences and at different times.
D) in an orderly sequence and at the same time.

----------A) in an orderly sequence, but the timing varies for different infants.
B) at the same time for all babies, but their sequence varies for different infants.
C) in different sequences and at different times.
D) in an orderly sequence and at the same time.

Three-month-old Shantel has not yet acquired object permanence and, as a result, she will:

A) search only briefly for a toy that has been covered with a blanket.
B) not search for a toy that has been covered with a blanket.
C) construct a schema about where the toy is hidden.
D) cry when her toy is hidden under a blanket.

A) search only briefly for a toy that has been covered with a blanket.
----------B) not search for a toy that has been covered with a blanket.
C) construct a schema about where the toy is hidden.
D) cry when her toy is hidden under a blanket.

Jack is an infant who loves to play peek-a-boo with his father. He seems amazed that his father "reappears" after hiding his face behind his hands. Jack probably enjoys peek-a-boo because he does not yet understand:

A) object permanence.
B) schemas.
C) animism.
D) conservation.

----------A) object permanence.
B) schemas.
C) animism.
D) conservation.

The possibility that infants as young as 4 months of age have some knowledge of object permanence has been shown by studies in which:

A) infants view "possible" and "impossible" events.
B) children place eggs in cups.
C) water is poured from wide beakers into tall cylinders.
D) clay is flattened and then rolled into a ball.

--------- A) infants view "possible" and "impossible" events.
B) children place eggs in cups.
C) water is poured from wide beakers into tall cylinders.
D) clay is flattened and then rolled into a ball.

How do researchers know that infants can tell the difference between a physically impossible and physically possible event?

A) Infants will stare longer at the possible event than the impossible event.
B) Infants will stare longer at the impossible event than the possible event.
C) Infants will demonstrate object permanence to the possible event, but not to the impossible event.
D) Infants will demonstrate object permanence to the impossible event, but not to the possible event.

A) Infants will stare longer at the possible event than the impossible event.
----------B) Infants will stare longer at the impossible event than the possible event.
C) Infants will demonstrate object permanence to the possible event, but not to the impossible event.
D) Infants will demonstrate object permanence to the impossible event, but not to the possible event.

Researchers of cognitive development now suggest that:

A) infants cannot develop the schema of object permanence.
B) infants develop the schema of object permanence much later than Piaget realized.
C) infants may have a sense of object permanence much earlier than Piaget realized.
D) Piaget's theories about the development of object permanence were surprisingly accurate.

A) infants cannot develop the schema of object permanence.
B) infants develop the schema of object permanence much later than Piaget realized.
----------C) infants may have a sense of object permanence much earlier than Piaget realized.
D) Piaget's theories about the development of object permanence were surprisingly accurate.

The idea that quantitative properties of an object are invariant despite changes in the object's appearance is what Jean Piaget termed:

A) conservation.
B) object permanence.
C) assimilation.
D) accommodation.

A) ------- conservation.
B) object permanence.
C) assimilation.
D) accommodation.

As children watched, Dr. Vallance poured the same amount of juice into two identical glasses. Then she poured the juice from one of those glasses into a taller, narrower glass. When asked which glass now has more juice, children in the concrete operational stage say that:

A) the tall glass has more.
B) both glasses have the same amount.
C) they don't know.
D) the tall glass has less.

A) the tall glass has more.
-------B) both glasses have the same amount.
C) they don't know.
D) the tall glass has less.

Formal operational thinking is characterized by the ability to:

A) deal with physical facts.
B) reason about abstract concepts.
C) show egocentrism.
D) display reversibility.

A) deal with physical facts.
----------B) reason about abstract concepts.
C) show egocentrism.
D) display reversibility.

Anthony is able to think about "what might be," not only about "what is." According to Piaget, Anthony is in which stage of cognitive development?

A) sensorimotor
B) preoperational
C) concrete operational
D) formal operational

A) sensorimotor
B) preoperational
C) concrete operational
----------D) formal operational

According to Piaget, egocentrism in a child means that the child:

A) is selfish.
B) is in the sensorimotor stage.
C) fails to understand that the world appears differently to different observers.
D) realizes that others may not share the child's point of view.

A) is selfish.
B) is in the sensorimotor stage.
C) fails to understand that the world appears differently to different observers.
D) realizes that others may not share the child's point of view.

Megan has a habit of standing in front of the television, even though other people behind her are also trying to watch the television. Megan seems unaware that people cannot see the television through her head. Megan:

A) is selfish.
B) is demonstrating egocentrism.
C) does not grasp the concept of conservation.
D) is demonstrating reversibility.

A) is selfish.
----------B) is demonstrating egocentrism.
C) does not grasp the concept of conservation.
D) is demonstrating reversibility.

The adolescent growth spurt begins in girls at about age ________ years and in boys at about age ________ years.

A) 8; 9
B) 9; 11
C) 10; 12
D) 11; 14

A) 8; 9
B) 9; 11
----------C) 10; 12
D) 11; 14

________ is one of the primary sex characteristics.
A) Onset of menstruation
B) Breast enlargement
C) Appearance of pubic hair
D) Lowering of the voice

-----------A) Onset of menstruation
B) Breast enlargement
C) Appearance of pubic hair
D) Lowering of the voice

Which of the following is a secondary sex characteristic?

A) growth of penis in boys
B) capacity for ejaculation in boys
C) onset of menstruation in girls
D) breast enlargement in girls

A) growth of penis in boys
B) capacity for ejaculation in boys
C) onset of menstruation in girls
----------D) breast enlargement in girls

Development of primary and secondary sex characteristics is triggered by increased production of the hormones:

A) adrenaline and progesterone.
B) thyroxin and oxytocin.
C) estrogen and testosterone.
D) pituitary growth hormone and steroids.

A) adrenaline and progesterone.
B) thyroxin and oxytocin.
----------C) estrogen and testosterone.
D) pituitary growth hormone and steroids.

Recent research on the brains of adolescents indicates that development in the prefrontal cortex undergoes a ________ just before puberty and a(n) ________ during adolescence.

A) growth spurt; additional growth spurt
B) synaptic proliferation; synaptic pruning
C) synaptic pruning; synaptic proliferation
D) reduction in neurotransmitters; further reduction

A) growth spurt; additional growth spurt
----------B) synaptic proliferation; synaptic pruning
C) synaptic pruning; synaptic proliferation
D) reduction in neurotransmitters; further reduction

The development of neurons in the frontal and parietal lobes accelerates through childhood and ends at around age:

A) 8
B) 12
C) 16
D) 20

A) 8
---------- B) 12
C) 16
D) 20

The development of neurons in the ________ lobe continues to increase through age 20.

A) frontal
B) temporal
C) occipital
D) parietal

---------- A) frontal
B) temporal
C) occipital
D) parietal

The age at the onset of menstruation in girls ________ between the 19th and 20th centuries.
A) decreased by about 1-2 years
B) decreased by about 2-3 years
C) decreased by about 3-4 years
D) decreased by about 5-6 years

A) decreased by about 1-2 years
B) decreased by about 2-3 years
----------C) decreased by about 3-4 years
D) decreased by about 5-6 years

The age at the onset of puberty occurs earlier in ________ than ________.
A) African American girls; European American girls
B) African American boys; European American boys
C) European American girls; African American boys
D) European American boys; African American boys

------A) African American girls; European American girls
B) African American boys; European American boys
C) European American girls; African American boys
D) European American boys; African American boys

Which of the following statements is FALSE about attitudes toward homosexuality?
A) America is more accepting of homosexuality than many other nations.
B) Younger adults are more accepting of homosexuality than older adults.
C) College graduates are more accepting of homosexuality than persons without a college degree.
D) African Americans are more accepting of homosexuality than Whites.

A) America is more accepting of homosexuality than many other nations.
----------B) Younger adults are more accepting of homosexuality than older adults.
C) College graduates are more accepting of homosexuality than persons without a college degree.
D) African Americans are more accepting of homosexuality than Whites.

56. Which of the following statements has been demonstrated as FALSE by research on homosexuality?
A) A person's early sexual encounters have been shown to have a significant effect on sexual orientation.
B) Children reared by homosexual couples and heterosexual couples are equally likely to become heterosexual adults.
C) High levels of androgens predispose the fetus—whether male or female—to develop a sexual preference for women.
D) Parenting style does not seem to impact sexual orientation.

-------- A) A person's early sexual encounters have been shown to have a significant effect on sexual orientation.
B) Children reared by homosexual couples and heterosexual couples are equally likely to become heterosexual adults.
C) High levels of androgens predispose the fetus—whether male or female—to develop a sexual preference for women.
D) Parenting style does not seem to impact sexual orientation.

Which of the following statements has been supported by research on homosexuality?
A) Conversion therapy has been proven effective at changing a person's sexual orientation in about 40% of clients.
B) Male children raised by a domineering mother and a submissive father are especially likely to become homosexual.
C) The sexual orientation of females is more malleable than the sexual orientation of males.
D) Children raised by homosexual parents are more likely to become homosexual.

A) Conversion therapy has been proven effective at changing a person's sexual orientation in about 40% of clients.
B) Male children raised by a domineering mother and a submissive father are especially likely to become homosexual.
-----C) The sexual orientation of females is more malleable than the sexual orientation of males.
D) Children raised by homosexual parents are more likely to become homosexual.

58. The identical twin of a gay man has a 50% chance of being gay, but the fraternal twin of a gay man has only a 15% chance of being gay. This suggests that:
A) genetic factors completely determine sexual orientation in men.
B) environmental factors completely determine sexual orientation in men.
C) genetic factors play a minor role in influencing sexual orientation in men.
D) genetic factors play a large role in influencing sexual orientation in men.

A) genetic factors completely determine sexual orientation in men.
B) environmental factors completely determine sexual orientation in men.
C) genetic factors play a minor role in influencing sexual orientation in men.
----------D) genetic factors play a large role in influencing sexual orientation in men.

Throughout adolescence, young people spend ________ time with other-sex peers, ________ time with same-sex peers, and ________ time with parents.
A) less; more; more
B) more; less; the same amount of
C) more; the same amount of; less
D) the same amount of; more; less

A) less; more; more
B) more; less; the same amount of
----------C) more; the same amount of; less
D) the same amount of; more; less

Which statement about peer relationships in adolescence is TRUE?
A) Peers exert considerable influence on the teen's beliefs and actions.
B) Peer influence generally is a result of pressure exerted by peers instead of respect and admiration for peers.
C) Rejection by peers has little negative effect on teens, contrary to popular belief.
D) Individuals who are popular in early adolescence may be rejected in later adolescence as peers become more rigid and intolerant.

----------A) Peers exert considerable influence on the teen's beliefs and actions.
B) Peer influence generally is a result of pressure exerted by peers instead of respect and admiration for peers.
C) Rejection by peers has little negative effect on teens, contrary to popular belief.
D) Individuals who are popular in early adolescence may be rejected in later adolescence as peers become more rigid and intolerant.

Which statement about adulthood is TRUE?
A) Adulthood is the shortest of all stages of development because development ceases shortly after the stage is entered.
B) The rate of observable physical change speeds up considerably during adulthood.
C) Adulthood consists of the ages from about 20 to 65, when old age begins.
D) Adulthood begins around age 18 to 21 years and lasts through death.

A) Adulthood is the shortest of all stages of development because development ceases shortly after the stage is entered.
B) The rate of observable physical change speeds up considerably during adulthood.
C) Adulthood consists of the ages from about 20 to 65, when old age begins.
----------D) Adulthood begins around age 18 to 21 years and lasts through death.

How are the brains of older adults and younger adults different as it relates to older adults maintaining their cognitive functioning?
A) The brains of older adults show more bilateral symmetry.
B) The brains of older adults are characterized by a more developed prefrontal cortex.
C) The brains of older adults become more specialized in processing cognitive tasks.
D) The brains of older adults exhibit a greater hippocampal volume.

A) The brains of older adults show more bilateral symmetry.
B) The brains of older adults are characterized by a more developed prefrontal cortex.
----------C) The brains of older adults become more specialized in processing cognitive tasks.
D) The brains of older adults exhibit a greater hippocampal volume.

As people move from early to middle adulthood, their rate of interaction with acquaintances ________, and their rate of interaction with family and a few close friends ________.
A) remains the same; remains the same
B) declines; declines
C) stays stable or increases; declines
D) declines; stays stable or increases

As people move from early to middle adulthood, their rate of interaction with acquaintances ________, and their rate of interaction with family and a few close friends ________.
A) remains the same; remains the same
B) declines; declines
C) stays stable or increases; declines
----------D) declines; stays stable or increases

64. The general consensus among scientists is that:
A) unmarried people are happier than married people.
B) happier people tend to get married, but marriage doesn't make people happy.
C) unhappy people are the most likely to get married.
D) happier people tend to get married, and marriage makes them even happier.

A) unmarried people are happier than married people.
----------B) happier people tend to get married, but marriage doesn't make people happy.
C) unhappy people are the most likely to get married.
D) happier people tend to get married, and marriage makes them even happier.

Before deciding to have children, couples should understand that:
A) having children produces lasting decreases in marital satisfaction.
B) having children produces only a temporary increase in marital happiness.
C) having children has more of a negative impact on the happiness of men more than women.
D) having children decreases marital happiness initially but increases marital happiness when the children are teenagers.

----------A) having children produces lasting decreases in marital satisfaction.
B) having children produces only a temporary increase in marital happiness.
C) having children has more of a negative impact on the happiness of men more than women.
D) having children decreases marital happiness initially but increases marital happiness when the children are teenagers.

66. Teresa really liked and admired her sister Valerie. Valerie was a very good volleyball player, and Teresa felt that she herself was not very good at volleyball. However, when Teresa played volleyball, she started to act and talk like Valerie. Which defense mechanism did Teresa use when she played volleyball?
A) Identification
B) Projection
C) Displacement
D) Sublimation

----------A) Identification
B) Projection
C) Displacement
D) Sublimation

When he wears his Pittsburgh Steelers Super Bowl Champion tee-shirt, Chad feels better able to cope with the day's challenges. Which defense mechanism is Chad using?

---------A) Identification
B) Projection
C) Displacement
D) reaction formation

Freud stopped having sex with his wife after the birth of their last child, although the couple remained married for many more years. Freud ________ his dysfunctional sex life with his wife by working long hours developing the psychosexual theory of personality development.


A) displaced
B) projected
C) sublimated
D) rationalized

A) displaced
B) projected
----------C) sublimated
D) rationalized

According to Freud, a different bodily region dominates the child's subjective experience during each stage of development. He called this region a(n):
A) phallic center.
B) erotogenic zone.
C) fixation.
D) zone of proximal development.

According to Freud, a different bodily region dominates the child's subjective experience during each stage of development. He called this region a(n):
A) phallic center.
----------B) erotogenic zone.
C) fixation.
D) zone of proximal development.

Psychoanalytic theory says that when a person's pleasure-seeking drives become psychologically stuck, or arrested, at a particular psychosexual stage, they are:
A) erotogenic.
B) fixated.
C) obsessive.
D) conflicted.

A) erotogenic.
----------B) fixated.
C) obsessive.
D) conflicted.

Bobby smokes cigarettes and bites his nails. According to Freud, upon which psychosexual stage of development is Bobby fixated?
A) anal stage
B) phallic stage
C) oral stage
D) latency stage

Bobby smokes cigarettes and bites his nails. According to Freud, upon which psychosexual stage of development is Bobby fixated?
A) anal stage
B) phallic stage
----------C) oral stage
D) latency stage

According to Freud, during the phallic stage of psychosexual development, little boys fall in love with their mothers. This phenomenon is called:
A) regression.
B) the Oedipus conflict.
C) the Electra complex.
D) projection.

According to Freud, during the phallic stage of psychosexual development, little boys fall in love with their mothers. This phenomenon is called:
A) regression.
----------B) the Oedipus conflict.
C) the Electra complex.
D) projection.

According to Freud, males who are able to successfully resolve the Oedipus complex:
A) identify with their mothers.
B) harbor a desire to kill their mothers.
C) harbor a desire to kill their fathers.
D) identify with their fathers.

A) identify with their mothers.
B) harbor a desire to kill their mothers.
C) harbor a desire to kill their fathers.
----------D) identify with their fathers.

74. Which part of the dynamic unconscious functions as a sort of consciousness that punishes us with guilt when we do something wrong?
A) defense mechanisms
B) ego
C) superego
D) preconscious

A) defense mechanisms
B) ego
----------C) superego
D) preconscious

Harold was never able to resolve his Oedipal desires. Which of the following personality traits might describe Harold?
A) creative
B) Dependent
C) Jealous
D) Sloppy

A) creative
B) Dependent
----------C) Jealous
D) Sloppy

According to Freud, personality is largely determined by:
A) the id.
B) the ego.
C) the superego attempting to satisfy the demands of the id.
D) interactions between the id, ego, and superego.

A) the id.
B) the ego.
C) the superego attempting to satisfy the demands of the id.
------------D) interactions between the id, ego, and superego.

Abraham Maslow, a humanistic theorist, proposed a hierarchy of:
A) psychosexual desires.
B) personality types.
C) unconscious processes.
D) essential human needs.

A) psychosexual desires.
B) personality types.
C) unconscious processes.
----------D) essential human needs.

78. Abraham Maslow designed a hierarchy of needs, promoting the idea that basic physiological and safety needs must be satisfied before a person can focus on:
A) his or her inner child.
B) self-actualization.
C) personality development.
D) existential angst.

A) his or her inner child.
----------B) self-actualization.
C) personality development.
D) existential angst.

A person's tendency to perceive the control of rewards as internal to the self or external in the environment is called:
A) personal constructs.
B) locus of control.
C) outcome expectancies.
D) person-situation controversy.

A) personal constructs.
----------B) locus of control.
C) outcome expectancies.
D) person-situation controversy.

________ developed a locus of control scale.
A) Walter Mischel
B) George Kelly
C) Abraham Maslow
D) Julian Rotter

A) Walter Mischel
B) George Kelly
C) Abraham Maslow
----------D) Julian Rotter

People with an internal locus of control tend to:
A) be more anxious than others.
B) achieve more than others.
C) have more trouble than others in coping with stress.
D) be less likely to take credit for a personal success than others.

A) be more anxious than others.
B) achieve more than others.
C) have more trouble than others in coping with stress.
----------D) be less likely to take credit for a personal success than others.

The DSM-IV-TR focuses on three key elements that must be present for a cluster of symptoms to qualify as a potential mental disorder. These are:
A) personal distress or impairment; disturbances in personality; and reaction to stress.
B) internal dysfunction; external dysfunction; and emotional reactivity.
C) disturbances in behavior, thoughts, or emotions; personal distress or impairment; and internal dysfunction.
D) inability to communicate; unusual speech patterns; and periods of mania.

A) personal distress or impairment; disturbances in personality; and reaction to stress.
B) internal dysfunction; external dysfunction; and emotional reactivity.
----------C) disturbances in behavior, thoughts, or emotions; personal distress or impairment; and internal dysfunction.
D) inability to communicate; unusual speech patterns; and periods of mania.

Recognizing that mental disorder exists along a continuum from normal to abnormal, the DSMrecommends that any diagnosis include a(n):
A) thorough physical examination by a medical doctor.
B) screen for mood disorders.
C) intelligence test.
D) global assessment of functioning.

----------A) thorough physical examination by a medical doctor.
B) screen for mood disorders.
C) intelligence test.
D) global assessment of functioning.

The global assessment of functioning is a scale from 0 to 100; lower scores indicate ________, higher scores indicate ________.
A) more severe disorders; more effective functioning
B) less severe disorders; more severe disorders
C) less severe disorders; less effective functioning
D) more effective functioning; less severe disorders

----------A) more severe disorders; more effective functioning
B) less severe disorders; more severe disorders
C) less severe disorders; less effective functioning
D) more effective functioning; less severe disorders

The DSM-IV-TR uses ________ to assess the effect of a disorder on a person's life.
A) global assessment of functioning
B) projective techniques
C) clinical observations
D) factor analysis

.
----------A) global assessment of functioning
B) projective techniques
C) clinical observations
D) factor analysis

Possible biological factors in mental disorders include all the following EXCEPT:
A) genetic influences.
B) biochemical imbalances.
C) reaction to stress.
D) brain abnormalities.

A) genetic influences.
B) biochemical imbalances.
----------C) reaction to stress.
D) brain abnormalities.

Possible psychological factors in mental disorders include all the following EXCEPT:
A) maladaptive coping.
B) dysfunctional attitudes.
C) interpersonal problems.
D) stressful life circumstances.

A) maladaptive coping.
B) dysfunctional attitudes.
C) interpersonal problems.
----------D) stressful life circumstances.

The diathesis-stress model explains disease as the result of:
A) a predisposition for a disease and a triggering event.
B) a triggering event such as stress.
C) a predisposition for a disease.
D) heritability.

----------A) a predisposition for a disease and a triggering event.
B) a triggering event such as stress.
C) a predisposition for a disease.
D) heritability.

Diathesis can be defined as:
A) a triggering event such as stress.
B) a disease.
C) a predisposition for a disease.
D) the heritability of a disease.

Diathesis can be defined as:
----------A) a triggering event such as stress.
B) a disease.
C) a predisposition for a disease.
D) the heritability of a disease.

Which of the following statements about diatheses is FALSE?
A) A diathesis could be genetic.
B) If a diathesis is inherited, the disease associated with it will occur.
C) A diathesis is an internal factor affecting the manifestation of a disease.
D) A diathesis could be psychological.

A) A diathesis could be genetic.
----------B) If a diathesis is inherited, the disease associated with it will occur.
C) A diathesis is an internal factor affecting the manifestation of a disease.
D) A diathesis could be psychological.

Which of the following characteristics is NOT a common symptom of GAD?
A) concentration problems
B) sleep problems
C) muscle tension
D) psychosis

A) concentration problems
B) sleep problems
C) muscle tension
----------D) psychosis

The anxiety of someone with GAD is:
A) often irrational.
B) usually caused by extreme fatigue.
C) known to lead to compulsions.
D) related to a specific situation.

----------A) often irrational.
B) usually caused by extreme fatigue.
C) known to lead to compulsions.
D) related to a specific situation.

The percentage of pairs of twins who share a particular characteristic is called the:
A) common rate.
B) coefficient rate.
C) concordance rate.
D) comorbidity rate.

A) common rate.
B) coefficient rate.
-----------C) concordance rate.
D) comorbidity rate.

Generalized anxiety disorder is more prevalent in all of the following groups EXCEPT:
A) women.
B) people living in rural areas.
C) people living in poverty.
D) people living in large cities.

Generalized anxiety disorder is more prevalent in all of the following groups EXCEPT:
A) women.
----------B) people living in rural areas.
C) people living in poverty.
D) people living in large cities.

Individuals with phobic disorders:
A) believe that their fear is adaptive.
B) are good at not letting the phobia interfere with their everyday functioning.
C) tend to have depressed levels of activity in the amygdala.
D) recognize that their fear is irrational.

A) believe that their fear is adaptive.
B) are good at not letting the phobia interfere with their everyday functioning.
C) tend to have depressed levels of activity in the amygdala.
----------D) recognize that their fear is irrational.

Kathryn says she is deathly afraid of spiders. She refuses to go into any location (garage, basement, attic) where she may run into a spider. Her fear of spiders is so great that she is losing sleep for fear a spider will crawl on her while she is asleep. As a result, her grades are beginning to worsen. Kathryn would probably be diagnosed with:
A) panic disorder.
B) specific phobia.
C) social phobia.
D) obsessive-compulsive disorder.

A) panic disorder.
----------B) specific phobia.
C) social phobia.
D) obsessive-compulsive disorder.

What is the mental disorder in which repetitive, intrusive thoughts and ritualistic behaviors designed to fend off those thoughts interfere significantly with functioning?
A) generalized anxiety disorder
B) specific phobia
C) dissociative disorder
D) obsessive-compulsive disorder

A) generalized anxiety disorder
B) specific phobia
C) dissociative disorder
----------D) obsessive-compulsive disorder

In obsessive-compulsive disorder, the obsessive thoughts ________, and the compulsive behaviors ________.
A) increase anxiety; reduce it
B) increase anxiety; further increase it
C) trigger panic attacks; decrease anxiety
D) trigger panic attacks; prolong them

----------A) increase anxiety; reduce it
B) increase anxiety; further increase it
C) trigger panic attacks; decrease anxiety
D) trigger panic attacks; prolong them

Over the past 9 months, Trisha has become lethargic and has stopped working out at the gym (and as a consequence has gained considerable weight). Previously full of energy and curiosity, she now shows a lack of interest in virtually everything, even sex. It is likely that Trisha is suffering from a:
A) personality disorder.
B) dissociative disorder.
C) mood disorder.
D) generalized anxiety disorder.

A) personality disorder.
B) dissociative disorder.
----------C) mood disorder.
D) generalized anxiety disorder.

A diagnosis of major depressive disorder requires evidence of a severely depressed mood that has lasted at least:
A) 4 weeks.
B) 2 months.
C) 6 months.
D) 2 weeks.

A diagnosis of major depressive disorder requires evidence of a severely depressed mood that has lasted at least:
A) 4 weeks.
B) 2 months.
C) 6 months.
------- ---D) 2 weeks.

Major depressive disorder is also known as:
A) unipolar depression.
B) manic depression.
C) dysthymia.
D) bipolar depression.

----------A) unipolar depression.
B) manic depression.
C) dysthymia.
D) bipolar depression.

Which two neurotransmitters have been found to be implicated in depression?
A) dopamine and serotonin
B) serotonin and GABA
C) serotonin and norepinephrine
D) dopamine and ACTH

A) dopamine and serotonin
B) serotonin and GABA
----------C) serotonin and norepinephrine
D) dopamine and ACTH

The depressive phase of bipolar disorder is often ________ major depression.
A) indistinguishable from
B) slightly more severe than
C) considerably more severe than
D) less severe than

----------A) indistinguishable from
B) slightly more severe than
C) considerably more severe than
D) less severe than

An individual in the manic phase of bipolar disorder sometimes may have hallucinations or delusions, and therefore the disorder may be misdiagnosed as:
A) paranoid personality disorder.
B) dissociative fugue.
C) schizophrenia.
D) dissociative identity disorder.

A) paranoid personality disorder.
B) dissociative fugue.
-----------C) schizophrenia.
D) dissociative identity disorder.

A person in an episode of mania can believe that she is destined for greatness or is exceptionally gifted, beliefs that are artifacts of increased mood. These types of beliefs are known as:
A) hallucinations.
B) delusions.
C) dissociative states.
D) euphoric states.

A) hallucinations.
-----------------B) delusions.
C) dissociative states.
D) euphoric states.

Most patients with dissociative identity disorder:
A) have grown up in low-income households.
B) have grown up in functional families.
C) have a history of severe childhood abuse.
D) are men.

:
A) have grown up in low-income households.
B) have grown up in functional families.
-----------C) have a history of severe childhood abuse.
D) are men.

The most common explanation for the dramatic increase in cases of dissociative identity disorder reported since 1970 is that:
A) psychotherapists have inadvertently suggested to patients that they have it.
B) psychotherapists have inadvertently prescribed medications that have precipitated it.
C) popular movies and TV shows have precipitated it.
D) increased stress in our lives today has precipitated it.

------------------A) psychotherapists have inadvertently suggested to patients that they have it.
B) psychotherapists have inadvertently prescribed medications that have precipitated it.
C) popular movies and TV shows have precipitated it.
D) increased stress in our lives today has precipitated it.

A patently false belief system, often bizarre and grandiose, that is maintained despite its irrationality is termed a:
A) hallucination.
B) paranoia.
C) delusion.
D) stupor.

A) hallucination.
B) paranoia.
----------C) delusion.
D) stupor.

A false perceptual experience that has a compelling sense of being real despite the absence of external stimulation is termed a:
A) hallucination.
B) catatonic experience.
C) delusion.
D) hypnogogic state.

---------A) hallucination.
B) catatonic experience.
C) delusion.
D) hypnogogic state.

Schizophrenic hallucinations can include all the following EXCEPT:
A) hearing voices that no one else can hear.
B) believing that you are Napoleon.
C) seeing things that are not there.
D) feeling as if you're being touched when there is no one there.

Schizophrenic hallucinations can include all the following EXCEPT:
A) hearing voices that no one else can hear.
-------------B) believing that you are Napoleon.
C) seeing things that are not there.
D) feeling as if you're being touched when there is no one there.

Marian reports seeing vampires outside her house every evening; no one else has reported vampires or anything else in the area. Marian has not been under the influence of any substances when she has made these sightings. Marion is experiencing:
A) a stupor.
B) hallucinations.
C) delusions.
D) grossly disorganized behavior.

A) a stupor.
B) hallucinations.
----------C) delusions.
D) grossly disorganized behavior.

Eddie often masturbates and defecates in public. Eddie is exhibiting:
A) delusional behavior.
B) negative symptoms of schizophrenia.
C) catatonic behavior.
D) grossly disorganized behavior.

A) delusional behavior.
B) negative symptoms of schizophrenia.
C) catatonic behavior.
----------D) grossly disorganized behavior.

Which of the following is NOT a negative symptom of schizophrenia?
A) social withdrawal
B) lack of emotion
C) hallucinations
D) poverty of speech

A) social withdrawal
B) lack of emotion
----------C) hallucinations
D) poverty of speech

Which of the following personality disorders is NOT among the anxious/inhibited cluster?
A) schizoid
B) avoidant
C) dependent
D) obsessive-compulsive

-----------------A) schizoid
B) avoidant
C) dependent
D) obsessive-compulsive

Which of the following personality disorders is among the dramatic/erratic cluster?
A) paranoid
B) schizotypal
C) dependent
D) narcissistic

A) paranoid
B) schizotypal
C) dependent
----------------D) narcissistic

Which of the following personality disorders is NOT among the odd/eccentric cluster?
A) schizoid
B) avoidant
C) paranoid
D) schizotypal

A) schizoid
----------B) avoidant
C) paranoid
D) schizotypal

The avoidant personality type differs from the schizoid personality type in that:
A) the schizoid personality type engages in magical thinking, whereas the avoidant personality type does not.
B) the avoidant personality type suspects that people have sinister motives, whereas the schizoid personality type does not.
C) the avoidant personality type yearns for social contact, whereas the schizoid personality type does not.
D) the schizoid personality type clings to people and fears losing them, whereas the avoidant personality type does not.

\
A) the schizoid personality type engages in magical thinking, whereas the avoidant personality type does not.
B) the avoidant personality type suspects that people have sinister motives, whereas the schizoid personality type does not.
-------------C) the avoidant personality type yearns for social contact, whereas the schizoid personality type does not.
D) the schizoid personality type clings to people and fears losing them, whereas the avoidant personality type does not.

Individuals with antisocial personality disorder (APD) are often characterized as all of the following EXCEPT:
A) having no remorse for wrongdoing.
B) having impulsivity and recklessness.
C) having comorbid depression.
D) having a high risk for substance abuse.

Individuals with antisocial personality disorder (APD) are often characterized as all of the following EXCEPT:
A) having no remorse for wrongdoing.
B) having impulsivity and recklessness.
C) having comorbid depression.
----------------D) having a high risk for substance abuse.

Adults with antisocial personality disorder typically have a history of ________ before the age of 15.
A) obsessive-compulsive disorder
B) bipolar disorder
C) panic attacks
D) conduct disorder

A) obsessive-compulsive disorder
B) bipolar disorder
C) panic attacks
----------------D) conduct disorder

Brains of people with antisocial personality disorder often exhibit ________ activity in the ________.
A) decreased; prefrontal cortex
B) increased; nucleus accumbens
C) decreased; amygdala
D) increased; hippocampus

A) decreased; prefrontal cortex
B) increased; nucleus accumbens
C) decreased; amygdala
D) increased; hippocampus

The following are barriers to seeking treatment for a mental disorder EXCEPT:
A) many people think that mental problems can be solved by "mind over matter."
B) families sometimes discourage their relatives from seeking help.
C) many people don't know where to look for services.
D) individuals often feel they need help in handling their problem.

A) many people think that mental problems can be solved by "mind over matter."
B) families sometimes discourage their relatives from seeking help.
C) many people don't know where to look for services.
----------------D) individuals often feel they need help in handling their problem.

Which of the following people would be most likely to seek treatment for a mental disorder?
A) Rasheed, who comes from a family that tries to conceal potentially embarrassing information
B) Sandi, whose family is generally supportive regarding her health problems
C) John, whose grandfather probably suffered from depression but was never diagnosed
D) Carmela, a teenager from a close-knit family and whose parents do not understand English

-----------------A) Rasheed, who comes from a family that tries to conceal potentially embarrassing information
B) Sandi, whose family is generally supportive regarding her health problems
C) John, whose grandfather probably suffered from depression but was never diagnosed
D) Carmela, a teenager from a close-knit family and whose parents do not understand English

Which of the following statements about seeking help for treatment of a psychological disorder is FALSE?
A) Women are more likely than men to seek treatment.
B) Finding a service provider can be confusing.
C) Most people who seek help obtain the most effective treatment.
D) Treatment facilities might not have adequate staffing to meet the needs of the community.

A) Women are more likely than men to seek treatment.
B) Finding a service provider can be confusing.
C) Most people who seek help obtain the most effective treatment.
-----------------D) Treatment facilities might not have adequate staffing to meet the needs of the community.

A mental health professional who is a medical doctor is a:
A) psychologist.
B) counseling psychologist.
C) psychiatric social worker.
D) psychiatrist.

A) psychologist.
B) counseling psychologist.
C) psychiatric social worker.
----------------D) psychiatrist.

A mental health professional with a PsyD degree is a:
A) psychologist.
B) psychiatrist.
C) counselor.
D) a psychologist or a psychiatrist.

------------A) psychologist.
B) psychiatrist.
C) counselor.
D) a psychologist or a psychiatrist.

In general, therapies for psychological disorders can be divided into ________ and ________ treatments.
A) medical; psychological
B) psychosocial; biological
C) psychotherapy; medical
D) psychotherapy; sociological

----------A) medical; psychological
B) psychosocial; biological
C) psychotherapy; medical
D) psychotherapy; sociological

Seventy-five years ago, the majority of treatments for mental disorders could be classified as:
A) psychotherapy.
B) surgical.
C) biological.
D) medical.

A) psychotherapy.
B) surgical.
C) biological.
----------D) medical.

Often, the most effective treatments for psychological disorders:
A) involve ablation surgery accomplished with lasers.
B) use psychotherapy instead of psychoactive medication.
C) are biologically based and do not involve psychotherapy.
D) combine medication with psychotherapy.

A) involve ablation surgery accomplished with lasers.
B) use psychotherapy instead of psychoactive medication.
----------------C) are biologically based and do not involve psychotherapy.
D) combine medication with psychotherapy.

Psychoanalysts use all the following methods to access the unconscious EXCEPT:
A) analysis of resistance.
B) free association.
C) desensitization.
D) dream analysis.

A) analysis of resistance.
B) free association.
----------C) desensitization.
D) dream analysis.

What did Sigmund Freud call a reluctance to cooperate with treatment for fear of confronting unpleasant unconscious material?
A) blocking
B) regression
C) resistance
D) displacement

----------A) blocking
B) regression
C) resistance
D) displacement

Talking about anything and everything that comes into your mind is an example of:
A) analysis of resistance.
B) free association.
C) introspection.
D) interpretation.

A) analysis of resistance.
----------B) free association.
C) introspection.
D) interpretation.

Every time Jack's therapist suggests that his problems in trusting females in romantic relationships might stem from early childhood conflicts with his mother, Jack changes the subject and begins discussing something else. Jack is demonstrating what Freud termed:
A) resistance.
B) free association.
C) transference.
D) censoring.

----------A) resistance.
B) free association.
C) transference.
D) censoring.

The process by which the psychoanalyst deciphers the unconscious meaning underlying what the client says and does is termed:
A) transference.
B) sublimation.
C) introspection.
D) interpretation.

A) transference.
B) sublimation.
C) introspection.
--------------D) interpretation.

________ occurs when an analyst begins to assume a major significance in a client's life and the client reacts to the analyst on the basis of unconscious childhood fantasies.
A) Resistance
B) Regression
C) Transference
D) Projection

________ occurs when an analyst begins to assume a major significance in a client's life and the client reacts to the analyst on the basis of unconscious childhood fantasies.
A) Resistance
B) Regression
-----------C) Transference
D) Projection

Psychodynamic approaches to therapy emphasize ________; humanistic and existential approaches emphasize ________.
A) unconscious drives; the effect of the past on current feelings
B) psychosexual urges; learned behavior
C) a negative view of human nature; a positive view
D) the id and superego; the ego

-----A) unconscious drives; the effect of the past on current feelings
B) psychosexual urges; learned behavior
C) a negative view of human nature; a positive view
D) the id and superego; the ego

Humanistic and existential therapies share the assumption that psychological problems stem from:
A) feelings of alienation and loneliness.
B) early childhood experiences.
C) an external locus of control.
D) overuse of defense mechanisms.

A) feelings of alienation and loneliness.
-----B) early childhood experiences.
C) an external locus of control.
D) overuse of defense mechanisms.

Interest in humanistic and existential therapies peaked in the:
A) 1950s.
B) 1970s.
C) 1990s.
D) last decade.

A) 1950s.
B) 1970s.
----C) 1990s.
D) last decade.

Which therapy focuses on understanding and changing the client's meaning, assumptions, and beliefs about events?
A) psychodynamic
B) behavioral
C) cognitive
D) humanistic

A) psychodynamic
B) behavioral
-----------C) cognitive
D) humanistic

________ focuses only on the client's behavior and the situation, whereas ________ focuses on helping a client identify and correct distorted thinking.
A) Behavior therapy; aversion therapy
B) Socio-behavior therapy; rational psychodynamic therapy
C) Behavior therapy; cognitive therapy
D) Gestalt therapy; cognitive therapy

A) Behavior therapy; aversion therapy
B) Socio-behavior therapy; rational psychodynamic therapy
----C) Behavior therapy; cognitive therapy
D) Gestalt therapy; cognitive therapy

The technique, frequently used by cognitive therapists, of teaching clients to question the automatic beliefs, assumptions, and predictions that often lead to negative emotions and to replace them with more realistic beliefs is called:
A) cognitive dissonance.
B) cognitive restructuring.
C) mindfulness meditation.
D) cognitive plasticity.

A) cognitive dissonance.
----------B) cognitive restructuring.
C) mindfulness meditation.
D) cognitive plasticity.

The psychologist most associated with cognitive therapy is:
A) Joseph Wolpe.
B) Frederick Perls.
C) Carl Rogers.
D) Aaron Beck

A) Joseph Wolpe.
B) Frederick Perls.
C) Carl Rogers.
----------D) Aaron Beck

________ developed person-centered therapy.
A) Aaron Beck
B) Melanie Klein
C) Carl Rogers
D) Frederick Perls-----

________ developed person-centered therapy.
A) Aaron Beck
B) Melanie Klein
C) Carl Rogers
----------D) Frederick Perls

In their interactions with clients, person-centered therapists are encouraged to demonstrate three basic qualities, ________, ________, and ________, in order for growth to occur.
A) congruence; nondirective listening; empathy
B) congruence; empathy; unconditional positive regard
C) caring; positive regard; nonsexual love
D) unconditional positive regard; sympathy; genuineness

A) congruence; nondirective listening; empathy
B) congruence; empathy; unconditional positive regard
----------C) caring; positive regard; nonsexual love
D) unconditional positive regard; sympathy; genuineness

Sara, a therapist, tries to understand her clients' experiences and reflect it back to them in a compassionate way. She feels this approach facilitates her clients' natural tendency toward growth. Sara is most likely a ________ therapist.
A) cognitive
B) cognitive behavioral
C) interpersonal
D) person-centered

A) cognitive
B) cognitive behavioral
C) interpersonal
----------D) person-centered

In person-centered therapy, the therapist does not typically provide advice due to the belief that the client can and will recognize the right thing to do. This approach is described as:
A) flexible.
B) nondirective.
C) self-actualizing.
D) self-aware.

A) flexible.
----------B) nondirective.
C) self-actualizing.
D) self-aware.

A person-centered therapist does not utilize:
A) cognitive restructuring.
B) unconditional positive regard.
C) congruence.
D) empathy.

A person-centered therapist does not utilize:
----------A) cognitive restructuring.
B) unconditional positive regard.
C) congruence.
D) empathy.

________ refers to openness and honesty in the therapeutic relationship and ensuring that the therapist communicates the same message at all levels.
A) Empathy
B) Unconditional positive regard
C) Congruence
D) Mindfulness

________ refers to openness and honesty in the therapeutic relationship and ensuring that the therapist communicates the same message at all levels.
A) Empathy
B) Unconditional positive regard
----------C) Congruence
D) Mindfulness

Striving to see the world from the client's perspective demonstrates:
A) empathy.
B) unconditional positive regard.
C) congruence.
D) mindfulness.

Striving to see the world from the client's perspective demonstrates:
-----------A) empathy.
B) unconditional positive regard.
C) congruence.
D) mindfulness.

Treating a client with ________ involves providing a nonjudgmental, warm, and accepting environment in which the client can feel safe expressing thoughts and feelings.
A) empathy
B) unconditional positive regard
C) congruence
D) mindfulness

Treating a client with ________ involves providing a nonjudgmental, warm, and accepting environment in which the client can feel safe expressing thoughts and feelings.
A) empathy
----------B) unconditional positive regard
C) congruence
D) mindfulness

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