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1. The cell theory states that?
A) All organisms consist of one or more cells.
B) All cells arise from preexisting cells.
C) The cell is the basic unit of structure for all organisms.
D) All of above
E) None of the above

D

2. Which scientist did the classic work of "production of urea in the laboratory" that united the fields of biology and chemistry.
A) Hans Krebs
B) Friedrich Wöhler
C) Matthias Schleiden
D) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
E) Theodor Schwann

B

3. Which laws were formulated by Mendel?
A) thermodynamics
B) gravity
C) ideal gas laws
D) heredity
E) diffusion

D

4. Which of the following is true of plant cells?
A) Plant cells may contain chloroplasts.
B) Plant cells are always much larger than animal cells.
C) Chromosomes are found only in plant cells.
D) Only plant cells have a cell membrane.
E) The plant cell has no cell wall.

A

5. Which of the following organelle is not bounded by double membrane?
A) Nucleus
B) Central vacuole
C) Chloroplast
D) Mitochondria
E) None of above

B

6. Which of the following processes would be most likely to occur in the nucleus?
A) synthesis of steroids
B) production and packaging of lipids
C) glycosylation of proteins
D) synthesis of DNA
E) detoxification of drugs

D

7. The mitochondria is an organelle associated with
A) oxidation of sugars.
B) synthesis of secretory proteins.
C) plant pigment storage.
D) ribosome production in primitive plants.
E) storage of chromium.

A

A) boundary of the cell
B) cell shape and movement of organelles
C) information center
D) Endosymbiont theory
E) DNA double helix model

___1) nucleus
___2) cytoskeleton
___3) plasma membrane
___4) Watson & Crick
___5) Chloroplast

CBAED

9. Which of the following is not a fundamental property of carbon?
A) Carbon-containing molecules are diverse.
B) Carbon-containing molecules could be linear, branched and ring-shaped.
C) Carbon can form double bond.
D) Carbon can form triple bond
E) Carbon atoms are most likely to form ionic bonds with one another.

E

10. The polymerization of different types of macromolecules is similar in many respects. Which of the following principles below is least likely to be common to all methods of polymerization of macromolecules?
A) Macromolecules are synthesized by the addition of monomers.
B) The polymer is directional.
C) Polymerization is passive, requiring little ATP.
D) As monomers are added to the polymer, water is removed from the macromolecule.
E) All of above.

C

11. Which of the following sequences correctly lists the hierarchical nature of cellular structures, from smallest to largest?
A) organic molecules, supramolecular structures, macromolecules, organelles, cells
B) organelles, organic molecules, supramolecular structures, macromolecules, cells
C) organic molecules, macromolecules, organelles, supramolecular structures, cells
D) organic molecules, macromolecules, supramolecular structures, organelles, cells
E) macromolecules, organic molecules, supramolecular structures, organelles, cells

D

12. Choose the best matches from letter-labeled to number-labeled descriptions.
A) nucleic acid
B) hydroxyl group
C) lipid bilayer
D) assists in protein assembly
E) cellulose

___1) molecular chaperone
___2) important in hydrogen bonding
___3) structural polysaccharide
___4) informational macromolecule
___5) membrane structure

DBEAC

13. Disulfide bonds are often found to stabilize which of the following levels of protein structure?
A) primary
B) secondary
C) tertiary
D) all of the above
E) none of the above

C

14. Which of the following is not a characteristic of DNA?
A) complementarity
B) composed of nucleotides
C) contains ribose
D) antiparallel strands
E) double-stranded

C

15. The nucleoside triphosphate molecules in DNA are linked together in the 5'→3' by a________ bridge.
A) phosphate
B) covalent
C) phosphodiester
D) peptide
E) phosphatidyl

C

16. Muscle contraction is an example of which of the following types of work?
A) heat
B) mechanical
C) bioluminescent
D) electrical
E) concentration

B

17. In a chemical reaction, the standard free energy change (ΔG°') is calculated to be -3.67 cal/mol. What can be said of the chemical reaction?
A) The reaction is at equilibrium under standard conditions.
B) The reaction is spontaneous under standard conditions.
C) The reaction is not spontaneous under standard conditions.
D) Reactants predominate over products at equilibrium under standard conditions.
E) There can be no reaction.

B

18. A spontaneous reaction
A) has to occur immediately.
B) will never occur.
C) has an overall positive free energy change.
D) could occur but might take a very long time.
E) is associated exclusively with homeothermic organisms.

D

19. Under the conditions of a given reaction, a positive ΔG means
A) the reaction is spontaneous.
B) no energy needs to be added.
C) the reaction is at equilibrium.
D) work can be done.
E) the reaction will not occur.

E

20. Energy is important to life forms because
A) all life forms require a continuous supply of it.
B) it is required to do work.
C) it is required to make specific alterations in the cell.
D) both choices A and B
E) choices A, B, and C

E

21. The statement, "Energy is neither created nor destroyed," describes
A) the first law of thermodynamics.
B) the second law of thermodynamics.
C) the law of conservation of energy.
D) both choices A and B
E) both choices A and C

E

23.
A) accumulation of substances in a cell
B) maintaining body temperature
C) muscle contraction
D) nerve impulse conduction
E) luminous toadstools

___1) mechanical work
___2) concentration work
___3) electrical work
___4) heat
___5) bioluminescence

CADBE

24. Which of the following best describes a metastable state?
A) This state is composed of the difference in activation energy of a catalyzed versus an uncatalyzed reaction.
B) The metastable state is formed by transient complexes with the substrate.
C) The metastable state is created by the prosthetic group of the enzyme.
D) This state changes the position of the equilibrium but not the rate.
E) The metastable state is a state of the substrate in which the reaction can proceed but typically requires an enzyme.

E

22. Oxidation involves
A) the removal of electron.
B) always coupled with reduction.
C) gain of electrons.
D) both choices A and B
E) both choices B and C

D

25. Which of the following is an example of an enzyme cofactor?
A) a zinc ion
B) a glycine residue
C) a polypeptide chain
D) a nickel catalyst
E) carboxypeptidase A

A

26. An allosteric inhibitor
A) increases the rate of substrate binding.
B) binds and activates the high-affinity state of the enzymes.
C) is identical to the active site.
D) binds at the regulatory site.
E) is converted to an activator by the enzyme.

D

27. Which of the following is a means of enzyme regulation?
A) phosphorylation
B) allosteric regulation
C) covalent modification
D) All of above
E) None of above

D

28. With respect to the outer and inner faces of the lipid bilayer of the cell membrane, the composition of lipids is
A) asymmetrical.
B) identical.
C) not identical but symmetrical.
D) highly random and varies throughout the cell.
E) a mirror image.

A

29. A prokaryotic organism is isolated from a hydrothermal vent, where it has been observed to be thriving. Based on your knowledge of the plasma membrane, you would expect to find a predominance of
A) largely saturated fatty acids.
B) equal amounts of saturated and unsaturated fatty acids, as long as the chain was close to 12 carbons in length.
C) polar fatty acids.
D) largely unsaturated fatty acids.
E) none of the above

A

Which of the following enzyme will facilitate the regulation of membrane fluidity,
A) bacteriorhodopsin.
B) desaturase.
C) fatty acid convertase.
D) gangliosidase.
E) unsaturase.

B

31. Of the following molecules, which would not be expected to be moved across a membrane by simple diffusion?
A) oxygen
B) fatty acids
C) water
D) CO2
E) Na+

E

32. In the kidney, the specialized transport proteins that allow for very rapid water movement into or out of cells are known as
A) aquaporins.
B) porins.
C) ionophores.
D) anion exchange proteins.
E) osmosins.

A

33. In all organisms, active transport across a membrane forms
A) equal concentrations of ions on both sides of the membrane.
B) a resting potential of 0 mV.
C) exergonic movement indicated by the direction of the electrochemical potential.
D) an asymmetric distribution of a solute across a membrane.
E) both choices B and D

D

34. The movement of water through a membrane, from an area of low concentration to an area of High concentration, is known as
A) active transport.
B) facilitated transport.
C) passive transport.
D) osmosis.
E) photolysis

d

35. You wish to dehydrate a piece of meat using solutions of varying salt concentrations. The most efficient concentration to use would be
A) 0.01%.
B) 0.09%.
C) 0.9%.
D) 1%.
E) 10%.

E

Active transport does require ATP hydrolysis directly or indirectly. True or False

TRUE

By Facilitated Diffusion, a solute is able to across the membrane against its concentration gradient. True or False

FALSE

38. An example of indirect active transport is
A) Na+/K+ pumps.
B) P-type ATPases.
C) ABC-type ATPases.
D) Na+/glucose symport.
E) None of above

D

39. The primary difference between active transport and facilitated diffusion is that active transport is the only one in which
A) the solute moves from High to Low concentration.
B) transporter proteins are required.
C) the solute moves from Low to High concentration
D) the concentration gradient provides the necessary energy for movement.
E) only water molecules move.

C

40. Choose the best matches from letter-labeled to number-labeled descriptions.
A) Both simple and facilitated diffusion
B) both facilitated diffusion and active transport
C) Simple diffusion
D) active transport
E) indirect active transport

____1) requires a specific integral membrane protein
____2) direction of transport is dependent on the concentration gradient of the solute
____3) requires cellular expenditure of energy
____4) Na+/glucose symport
____5) exclusively involves the transfer of small, nonpolar molecules

BADEC

41. An energy-yielding pathway is considered to be
A) metabolic.
B) anabolic.
C) catabolic.
D) hydrogenation.
E) all of the above

C

42. A phosphoanhydride bond
A) is a high-energy bond due to charge repulsion.
B) is a high-energy bond due to ionic interaction
C) is a high energy bond due to resonance stabilization.
D) both choices A and B
E) both choices A and C

E

43. The ATP is considered to be the Energy Currency because
A) ATP has high-energy bonds
B) The amount of energy being released by ATP hydrolysis is in the intermediate level comparing with other phosphorylated compounds
C) ATP is a nucleotide.
D) Both A and B
E) Both B and C

D

44. Which of the following best describes the special "high-energy" bond of ATP?
A) phosphoester
B) phosphoanhydride
C) hydrogen
D) ionic
E) hydrogenation

B

45. The net output of ATP from glycolysis is ________.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5

B

46. Which of the following statements best describes the role of NAD+/NADH in glycolysis?
A) NADH is used to produce energy by directly creating the phosphoanhydride bonds in ATP.
B) NAD+ is used to carry electrons.
C) NADH is capable of pumping ions during glycolysis.
D) all of the above
E) None of the above

B

47. How many enzymatic steps are involved in converting glucose to pyruvate?
A) 3
B) 6
C) 8
D) 10
E) 12

D

48. During strenuous exercise, you may notice that your muscles burn. Which of the following statements best explains this phenomenon?
A) Proteins are being digested to provide energy.
B) Carbon dioxide is building up in muscle and changing the pH.
C) Without oxygen, pyruvate is being converted to lactic acid.
D) ADP is accumulating, which produces a burning sensation.
E) Pyruvic acid causes muscle pain.

C

49. The process of glucose synthesis is called
A) glycolysis.
B) gluconeogenesis.
C) aglycolysis.
D) glucogenesis.
E) both choices B and C

B

50. Within animal cells, glycolysis and gluconeogenesis must be regulated. Which of the following(s) describes the regulation?
A) Spatial regulation
B) Allosteric regulation
C) Covalent modification
D) All of above
E) None of above

D

1. In Aerobic Respiration, the terminal electron acceptor is ___, being reduced to ___
A) oxygen  water
B) H+  H2
C) S  H2S
D) Fe3+  Fe2+

A

2. Of the five stages of Aerobic respiration in eukaryotes, which is not occurred in mitochondria:
A) Glycolysis
B) Pyruvate Oxidation:
C) TCA cycle:
D) Electron transport:
E) ATP synthesis

A

3. Match the functions to structures
A) Matrix
B) Inner membrane
C) intracristal spaces
D) F1 complexes
E) F0 complex

___1) TCA cycle
___2) protons accumulation
___3) Proton Channel
___4) electron transport
___5) active site of ATP synthase

ACEBD

4. As pyruvate is converted to acetyl-CoA, it undergoes a process of
A) reductive carboxylation.
B) oxidative decarboxylation.
C) oxidative carboxylation.
D) reductive decarboxylation.
E) CoQ reproduction.

D

As pyruvate is converted to acetyl-CoA, both CO2 and NADH are generated. True of False

TRUE

"TCA" is short for "Tricarboxylic acid", which is an intermediate of TCA cycle. True or False

TRUE

7. In the very first step of TCA cycle, Acetyl-CoA reacts with ____ to form citrate
A) a 3-carbon compound
B) a 4-carbon compound
C) a 5-carbon compound
D) a 6-carbon compound

B

8. In one round of TCA cycle, __ oxidations occur, generating ___ NADH and___ FADH2
A) 3; 4; 1
B) 4; 3; 1
C) 1; 4; 3
D) 4; 1; 3
E) 1; 3; 4

B

9. In one round of TCA cycles, two carbons enter the cycle as Acetyl-CoA and two carbons are released as CO2. True or false

TRUE

10. TCA cycle will be inhibited by
A) ATP
B) NADH
C) Both A and B
D) None of above

C

11. Through -oxidation, Fatty acids will be oxidized and converted to acetyl-CoA. If a Fatty acid is 16-carbon long, complete oxidation of it will generate____ acetyl-CoA
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
E) 9

D

12. The intermediate molecules in TCA Cycle also serve as a source of precursors for Anabolic Pathways. True or False

TRUE

13. By the end of TCA cycle, when all 6 carbons from glucose are released as CO2,
A) Most of the energy within glucose was converted into ATP
B) Most of the energy within glucose was stored in NADH and FADH2
C) A fraction of its energy was converted into ATP
D) Both A and B
E) Both B and C

E

Electron carriers could accept and donate electrons because they contain at least one prosthetic group that could be reduced and oxidized. True or False

TRUE

15. Given that the redox pair "NAD+/NADH" has a lower standard reduction potential and the "CoQ/CoQH2" has a higher standard reduction potential. Which of following statement is correct:
A) NAD+ could donate electron to CoQ
B) NAD+ could donate electron to CoQH2
C) NADH could donate electron to CoQ
D) NADH could donate electron to CoQH2

C

16. When the proton pass through the proton channel of F0 complex, most of the energy stored in the electrochemical gradient was
A) Converted into mechanical energy
B) Driving the c-ring rotation
C) Used to synthesize ATP
D) Ultimately converted into chemical energy
E) All of above

E

17. Which of the following statements is not true of the TCA cycle?
A) Oxidation occurs at four steps in the TCA cycle.
B) Decarboxylation occurs at two steps in the TCA cycle.
C) No ATP/GTP is generated in the TCA cycle.
D) Acetyl-CoA enters the TCA cycle and joins a four-carbon acceptor molecule to form citrate.
E) FAD+ is an electron acceptor in the cycle.

C

18. In electron transport, which respiratory complex is not involved in the flow of electrons from FADH2?
A) complex I
B) complex II
C) complex III
D) complex IV
E) all of the above

A

19. Of the following sequences, which shows the correct order of molecules through which electrons flow when delivered to the electron transport system by NADH?
A) complex I, cytochrome c, complex III, coenzyme Q, complex IV, oxygen
B) complex I, coenzyme Q, complex IV, cytochrome c, oxygen
C) complex I, coenzyme Q, complex III, cytochrome c, complex IV, oxygen
D) complex II, coenzyme Q, complex III, complex IV, oxygen

C

20. Match the complex with the electron donor.

A) NADH
B) succinate/FADH2
C) cytochrome c
D) coenzyme Q

___1) complex I
___2) complex II
___3) complex III
___4) complex IV

ABDC

21. Which of the following descriptions is true about Photosynthesis:
A) Is the conversion of light energy to chemical energy by phototrophs
B) Use captured light energy for the synthesis of organic molecules
C) Occur in the chloroplasts of plants
D) Consists two continuous processes: energy transduction and carbon assimilation in plants
E) All of above

E

22. Match the terms to their descriptions in the photosynthetic electron transport process:
A) H2O
B) Photon
C) NADP+
D) PSI
E) PSII

___1) Ultimate driving force for photosynthesis
___2) Electron donor
___3) Electron Acceptor
___4) Capture light energy and accept electron from H2O
___5) Capture light energy and pass electron from PC to FD

BACED

23. The process by which photosynthetic organisms use light energy for ATP production is known as
A) photorespiration.
B) photosynthesis.
C) phototaxis.
D) photophosphorylation.
E) photoligase

D

24. Which of the following initially traps solar energy in the process of photosynthesis?
A) water
B) chlorophyll
C) triose phosphate
D) NADP+
E) ATP

B

25. Which of the following statements correctly characterizes the relationship between NADP+/NADPH and NAD+/NADH?
A) Both are used extensively during photosynthesis in phototrophs.
B) Neither is helpful to phototrophs.
C) NADP+/NADPH has an extra phosphate compared to NAD+/NADH.
D) NADP+/NADPH is used primarily for catabolic reactions.
E) Only NAD+/NADH is used to transport electrons and protons.

C

26. Which of the following statements correctly described photosystem I (PSI) and photosystem II (PSII)?
A) PSI absorbs only short wavelengths of light.
B) Electrons are excited by PSI or PSII, but not both.
C) The reaction center of PSI is designated P700, whereas the reaction center of PSII is designated P680.
D) The absorption maximum of PSII is 700 nm.
E) The absorption maximum of PSI is 680 nm.

C

27. Plastoquinol (QB) transfers electrons from
A) cytochrome b6/f complex to coenzyme Q.
B) photosystem II to cytochrome b6/f complex.
C) water to photosystem II.
D) light harvesting complex II to photosystem II.
E) cytochrome b6/f to plastiquinone.

B

28. The Chloroplast ATP synthase complex
A) contains an embedded CF1 component and a protruding CFo component.
B) is identical to the FoF1 complex of mitochondria.
C) performs ATP synthesis in Photosynthesis.
D) contains an assembly of only hydrophobic polypeptides that function in ATP synthesis.
E) all of the above

C

29. The transfer of energy from a photoexcited electron to another electron of an adjacent pigment molecule is known as
A) photoexcitation.
B) quantum leap.
C) photophosphorylation.
D) resonance energy transfer.
E) photorespiration.

D

30. A house plant seems to be growing slowly and lacks its normal bright green color. You call a botanist for advice. She suggests that the plant may be deficient in magnesium (Mg2+). Why are these symptoms associated with Mg2+ deficiency?
A) Mg2+ is important in the structure of many amino acids.
B) Lack of Mg2+ in the soil allows pathogenic bacteria to grow.
C) Mg2+ is required before NADPH can function.
D) Mg2+ is an important structural component in chlorophyll.
E) Cytochromes require Mg2+ to function properly.

D

31. Which of the following statements accurately describes the Calvin cycle?
A) It is a carbon assimilation process.
B) In this process, carbon dioxide is reduced to organic sugars.
C) It occurs in the chloroplast stroma.
D) The Calvin cycle is a means of carbon fixation.
E) all of the above

E

32. The Calvin cycle occurs in the ________ region of the chloroplast.
A) stroma
B) grana
C) thylakoid lumen
D) thylakoid membrane
E) outer membrane

A

33. In the Calvin cycle, the enzyme that catalyzes the capture of carbon dioxide and the formation of 3-phosphoglycerate is
A) phosphoglycerokinase.
B) ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase/oxygenase (Rubisco).
C) triose phosphate isomerase.
D) phosphoribulokinase.
E) glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase.

B

34. The regeneration of what CO2 acceptor molecule allows for continuous carbon assimilation in the Calvin cycle?
A) glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P)
B) dihydroxyacetone phosphate
C) ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate (RuBP)
D) glycerate-1,3-bisphosphate
E) 3-phosphoglycerate

C

35. When light is available, Photophosphorylation will increase ATP concentration, which in turn will activate Rubisco activase and therefore activate the Rubisco. True or False

TRUE

36. Which three organelles are involved in the glycolate pathway?
A) lysosome, chloroplast, rough endoplasmic reticulum
B) mitochondrion, nucleus, lysosome
C) peroxisome, smooth endoplasmic reticulum, chloroplast
D) peroxisome, chloroplast, mitochondrion
E) Golgi complex, peroxisome, lysosome

D

37. Biosynthesis of sucrose occurs in the
A) cytosol.
B) stroma.
C) thylakoid lumen.
D) intermembrane space.
E) stroma thylakoids

A

38. Which of the following products cannot be used in the Calvin cycle?
A) phosphoglycolate
B) NADPH
C) 3-phosphoglycerate
D) CO2
E) ribulose-1, 5-bisphosphate

A

39. Match the plant process or characteristic with the location in which it occurs in the cell.

A) thylakoid lumen
B) cytosol
C) thylakoid membrane
D) stroma
E) Stomata

____1) sucrose synthesis
____2) starch synthesis
____3) Photosynthetic electron transport
____4) concentration of protons in photosynthesis
____5) CO2 in and out of plant leaf

BDCAE

40. Match the term on the left with its definition or description on the right.

A) Light excited electron transfers from Chlorophyll to another molecule
B) Light-dependent splitting of H2O to produce O2 and H+
C) Light dependent ATP synthesis
D) Light-dependent Oxygen uptake and CO2 release
E) Light-dependent generation of NADPH

___1) photoreduction
___2) photolysis
___3) Photochemical reduction
___4) Photophosphorylation
___5) Photorespiration

EBACD

41. Which of the following descriptions is true of the characters of Endomembrane system
A) Functionally and physically related membrane system
B) Refer to both membranes & internal compartments of the membranes
C) Involving both protein & lipid Synthesis
D) Involving protein processing, sorting and trafficking
E) All of above

E

42. The Smooth ER and Rough ER are isolated membrane system (no physical connection between them). True or False

FALSE

43. The Movement from ER through Golgi to plasma membrane is called retrograde transport. True or False

FALSE

44. In glycosylation, the synthesis of oligosaccharide core is started in cytosolic side of ER membrane and ended in the lumen side of ER membrane. True or Flase

TRUE

45. The import of a given protein into ER lumen starts after the protein translation is completed. True or False

FALSE

46. The continuous release of mucus by the epithelial cells lining the intestine tract is an example of
A) regulated secretion.
B) constitutive secretion.
C) the mucus response.
D) the formation of clathrin-coated pits.
E) phagocytosis.

B

47. Which of the following organelles are not part of the endomembrane system?
A) peroxisomes
B) Golgi complexes
C) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
D) endosomes
E) rough endoplasmic reticulum

A

48. You have genetically engineered a yeast cell to make a protein that will ultimately be secreted from the cell. If all is functioning well, in which order (from first to last) do you expect to find the protein in the cell until it is secreted?
A) Rough ER → Golgi → transport vesicle → environment
B) Rough ER → Golgi → Smooth ER → nucleus → environment
C) Nucleus → Rough ER → Golgi → transport vesicle → environment
D) Smooth ER → Golgi → transport vesicle → environment

A

49. In general, the origin of a coated vesicle defines the destination of the vesicle. True or False

TRUE

50. Match the terms with the proper descriptions.

A) lysosome
B) Smooth ER
C) Golgi apparatus
D) Transport vesicle
E) Mannose-6-phosphate

___1) Storage of calcium ion in muscle cell
___2) Presence of acid hydrolases
___3) The tag guiding transfer of lysosomal enzymes into a lysosome
___4) Protein transport from ER to Golgi
___5) Terminal glycosylation to generate oligosacchride diveristy

BAEDC

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