The use of an organism's biochemical processes to create a product is
The various techniques by which scientists manipulate DNA in the lab are called
A. genetic engineering.
The deliberate removal of genetic material from one organism and combining it with the genetic material of another organism is a specific technique called
C. recombinant DNA technology.
4. Labeled, known, short stretches of DNA used to detect a specific sequence of nucleotides in a mixture are
E. gene probes.
5. A technique that separates a readable pattern of DNA fragments is
D. gel electrophoresis.
6. DNA strands can be clipped crosswise at selected positions by using enzymes called
C. restriction endonucleases.
7. Geneticists can make complimentary DNA copies of messenger, transfer, and ribosomal RNA by using
B. reverse transcriptase.
8. EcoRI and HindIII are
C. restriction endonucleases. .
9. Sequences of DNA that are identical when read from the 5' to 3' direction on one strand and the 3' to 5' direction on the other strand are
10. Analysis of DNA fragments in gel electrophoresis involves
E. All of the choices are correct;A. larger fragments move slowly and remain closer to the wells; DNA has an overall negative charge and moves to the positive pole; DNA fragments are stained to see them;an electric current through the gel causes DNA fragments to migrate. .
11. Gene probes can be labeled for detection with
D. All of the choices are correct. ; enzymes. ; fluorescent dyes. ; radioisotopes.
12. Amplification of DNA is accomplished by
A. polymerase chain reaction.
13. DNA polymerases used in PCR
C. include Taq polymerases and Vent polymerase.
14. Which PCR step causes the denaturation of double-stranded DNA?
D. heat target DNA to 94C
15. Which PCR step synthesizes complementary DNA strands?
A. add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72C
16. The function of the dideoxy (dd) nucleotides that are used in the Sanger method of DNA sequencing is to
D. incorporate into newly replicated DNA strands and stop elongation.
17. The Western Blot technique detects
18. The fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) probes are applied to intact cells and observed microscopically for the presence and location of
E. specific genetic marker sequence on genes.
19. Thermococcus litoralis and Thermus aquaticus are thermophilic bacteria that are
B. sources of heat stable DNA polymerases.
20. The primers in PCR are
A. synthetic DNA oligonucleotides.
21. In order to ensure compatibility between the target DNA and the plasmid DNA,
A. target DNA is removed from cells and isolated. B. cloning host is treated with calcium chloride and receives plasmid. C. target DNA and plasmid are treated with the same restriction endonuclease. D. desired protein is produced by cloning host. E. gene is amplified by multiplication of cloning host.
22. Which step involves transformation?
B. cloning host takes up a plasmid
23. Which of the following is a serious concern when performing PCR?
C. introduction and amplification of contaminating DNA
24. The commercial product Frostban contains a genetically engineered strain of
D. Pseudomonas syringae.
25. Recombinant strains of this organism are released to colonize plant roots to produce an insecticide to destroy invading insects:
E. Pseudomonas fluorescens
26. Transgenic animals
E. All of the choices are correct.;. can be engineered to become factories for manufacturing proteins. ; are often obtained from germ line engineering. ; will pass the genes on to their offspring. ; commonly include mice.
27. When patient tissues are transfected with viruses carrying a needed, normal human gene, the technique is called
B. gene therapy. .
28. Both DNA sequencing and polymerase chain reactions require special __________ to initiate synthesis of a new DNA molecule.
A. RNA promoters B. fluorescent nucleotides C. primers D. thermophilic polymerases E. endonucleases
29. This is often used in forensic science to distinguish one sequence of DNA from another by comparing the sequence of the strands at specific loci:
D. DNA fingerprinting
30. All of the following are desirable features in a microbial cloning host, except it
B. has a slow growth rate.
31. Which of the following drugs is/are produced by genetic engineering and approved for human use?
E. All of the choices are correct.
32. Which of the following is less subject to degradation than is chromosomal DNA and is used as an evolutionary time clock?
A. mitochondrial DNA B. chloroplast DNA C. rRNA D. mRNA
33. Which technique will hopefully be used to identify and devise treatments for diseases based on the genetic profile of the disease?
A. PCR B. genetic engineering C. antisense technology D. microarray analysis E. DNA sequencing
34. Which of the following methods determines which genes are actively transcribed in a cell under a variety of conditions?
A. DNA fingerprinting B. microarray analysis C. gene mapping D. Western blot E. antisense therapy
35. The Southern Blot technique detects
E. specific genetic marker sequence on genes.
36. All of the following are characteristics that make plasmids good cloning vectors, except
E. they can accept a relatively large amount of foreign DNA.
37. The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) has been used in all of the following fields, except
A. forensics. B. evolutionary studies. C. gene mapping. D. medicine. E. None of the choices; it is useful for all these fields.
38. When DNA is heated to just below boiling (90oC - 95oC),
D. the two DNA strands separate completely.
39. All of the following are correct about DNA fingerprinting, except
C. it cannot be used on specimens older than five years.
40. When determining the sequence of nucleotides in an unknown sample of DNA, which method is used to sequence the DNA?
A. PCR B. Cloning C. Sanger D. Southern blot hybridization
41. The enzyme___ adds three nucleotides of DNA in the ___direction when DNA is being semi-conservatively replicated
A. DNA polymerase III, 3'->5' B. DNA polymerase I, 3'->5' C. DNA polymerase III, 5'->3' D. DNA polymerase I, 5'->3'
42. If you have the sequence of mRNA that is AUAUGC, then the DNA antisense strand is ____.
A. AUAUGC B. UAUACG C. TATACG D. CGUAUA
43. Restriction endonucleases are obtained from various species of bacteria. True False
44. Some genes in bacteria are repressed by antisense RNA that binds to them. True False
45. When DNA is heated, the two strands will separate. True False
46. After 3 replication cycles in PCR, there will be a total of 4 double-stranded DNA molecules. True False
47. An example of gene therapy is the insertion of the gene for human growth hormone into E. coli cells. True False
48. Reverse transcriptase is used to make cDNA from an RNA template. True False
49. Transformation and transfection are methods used to introduce DNA into host cells. True False
50. Sequencing a gene automatically identifies which gene it is. True False
51. The process of introducing a needed, normal gene, into human cells is called DNA mapping. True False
52. Vectors often contain a gene conferring drug resistance to their cloning host, in order to detect cells harboring the plasmid. True False
53. VNTRs and microsatellite polymorphisms are genetic markers seen in DNA fingerprinting. True False