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127 terms

Psy 251 Exam 2 (Ch. 5-8)

STUDY
PLAY
______ play a larger role in chronic diseases than contagious diseases.
Lifestyles and stress
Hank continually loses his temper when waiting in lines. He has very little patience for other people and is driven to be highly successful. Hank's personality is called
Type A
Which of the following characteristics is most closely associated with the Type A personality?
Hostile
Which of the following characteristics is most closely associated with the Type B personality?

a. Impatient
b. Easy-going
c. Competitive
d. Time-conscious
Easy-going
Which of the following characteristics is least closely associated with the Type B personality?
a. Patient
b. Easy-going
c. Competitive
d. Relatively relaxed
Competitive
Which component of Type A behavior seems to be most responsible for the increased rate of heart attacks?
Anger and hostility
Bobby tends to suppress his feelings. He is more likely to _____ about events.
a. ruminate
b. have heightened negative feelings
c. be depressed
d. all of these
d. all of these
Depression _____ one's chance of developing heart disease.
doubles
The evidence linking psychological factors to the onset of cancer is
extremely weak.
Which of the following has been found to impair immune functioning in animals?
a. Shock
b. Restraint
c. Crowding
d. All of these
d. All of these
Who is most likely to have an impact on their immune function?
a. Ray, whose wife died
b. Janet, whose house burned down
c. George, who totaled his car
d. Beatrice, who cares for her child with cerebral palsy
d. Beatrice, who cares for her child with cerebral palsy
The strength of the relationship between stress and health is
modest.
The most likely explanation for people's tendency to act in self-destructive ways is that
a. people have an innate desire for sensation-seeking.
b. most people tend to believe that bad things happen to bad people.
c. many health-impairing habits involve activities that are quite pleasant at the time.
d. people engage in health-impairing behavior "on the spur of the moment," without giving much thought to the consequences.
c. many health-impairing habits involve activities that are quite pleasant at the time.
People have a tendency to ______ the risk of their own health-impairing habits, and ______ the risks associated with others' self-destructive behaviors.
underestimate; accurately view
In our society, alcohol is associated with which of the following crimes?
a. Murder
b. Child abuse
c. Spouse abuse
d. All of these
d. All of these
Researchers have found that in terms of their weight, adult adoptees tend to resemble their______ more than their ______.
biological parents; adoptive parents
People who are eager to seek medical care are most likely to be which of the following?
a. Highly psychotic
b. High in extroversion
c. High in neuroticism
d. High in sensation-seeking
c. High in neuroticism
Tolerance involves
a. physical dependence on a drug.
b. psychological dependence on a drug
c. gradual increase in responsiveness to a drug with continued use.
d. progressive decrease in responsiveness to a drug with continued use.
d. progressive decrease in responsiveness to a drug with continued use.
When a person must continue to take a drug in order to avoid withdrawal illness, the person has developed
a. abuse.
b. tolerance.
c. physical dependence.
d. psychological dependence.
c. physical dependence.
When a person must continue to take a drug in order to satisfy an intense emotional and mental craving the person has developed
a. abuse.
b. tolerance.
c. physical dependence.
d. psychological dependence.
d. psychological dependence.
Narcotics are
drugs derived from opium that are capable of relieving pain.
Which of the following drugs is NOT considered a narcotic?
a. Heroin
b. Cocaine
c. Codeine
d. Morphine
b. Cocaine
The use of sedatives may result in personal injury because they
a. trigger hallucinations such as flying.
b. produce a strong physical dependence.
c. cause motor coordination to deteriorate.
d. suppress pain warnings of physical harm.
c. cause motor coordination to deteriorate.
Which of the following drugs is considered a stimulant?
a. Heroin
b. Cocaine
c. Morphine
d. Marijuana
b. Cocaine
Which of the following is a risk associated with the use of stimulants?
a. Drug-induced psychosis
b. Deterioration of physical health
c. Strong psychological dependence
d. All of these
d. All of these
Which of the following drugs is NOT considered a hallucinogen?
a. LSD
b. Hashish
c. Psilocybin
d. Mescaline
b. Hashish
A spontaneous, vivid recurrence of a previous drug-induced experience is called a(n)
a. overdose.
b. flashback.
c. hallucination.
d. psychotic episode.
b. flashback.
Which of the following is least likely to be a risk associated with the use of hallucinogens?
a. Flashbacks
b. Death from overdose
c. Acute panic during a "bad trip"
d. Precipitation of psychological disorders
b. Death from overdose
Marijuana, hashish, and THC are all derived from
a. opium.
b. cannabis.
c. the peyote cactus.
d. Central American mushrooms.
b. cannabis.
Which of the following is NOT a cannabis derivative?
a. THC
b. MDMA
c. Hashish
d. Marijuana
b. MDMA
Which of the following is a risk associated with the use of cannabis?
a. Overdose
b. Chromosome damage
c. Physical dependence
d. Psychological dependence
d. Psychological dependence
An organized set of beliefs about one's personal qualities and typical behavior constitute one's _______.
Self Concept
Another term for self-concept is
Self-Schema
The self-concept that you have in mind at a given time is referred to as a _________ self-concept.
Working
According to your textbook, people are motivated to maintain a(n) __________ view of the self.
Consistent
Hazel Markus uses the term ______ selves to refer to one's conceptions about the kind of person one might become in the future.
Possible
Some researchers believe that self-concept is most likely to change when a person _______________.
moves to a new city.
A mismatching of self-perceptions is termed _________.
Self-discrepancy.
A discrepancy between the actual self and the ideal self is most likely to trigger which of the following emotions?
a. Dejection
b. Agitation
c. Apprehension
d. Ambivalence
a. Dejection
A woman who describes herself as "frank and honest" but who, in fact, lies frequently is manifesting her
a. self-concept.
b. self-conflict.
c. self-discrepancy.
d. self-ambivalence.
c. self-discrepancy.
As actual-ideal discrepancies outnumber actual-ideal congruencies, cheerfulness decreases and ________.
Sadness increases.
Substance use in response to feelings of self-discrepancy is an example of a type of coping technique known as
blunting self-awareness.
Taking tennis lessons in response to a self-discrepancy in the area of athleticism is an example of a coping technique called
changing one's behavior.
Research has shown that children's self-perceptions are more strongly related to their ______ than to their parents' attitudes toward them.
perceptions of their parents' attitudes toward them
There is evidence that a close partner's support and affirmation can bring a loved one's actual self-views and behavior more in line with his or her ideal self. Researchers refer to this as the
a. Michelangelo phenomenon.
b. stage-manage phenomenon.
c. significant-construct experience.
d. exceptional person experience.
a. Michelangelo phenomenon.
"Look out for number one" is an attitude that is most likely associated with an individual
a. from an individualistic culture.
b. with an interdependent view.
c. with a shared sense of responsibility.
d. from a collectivistic culture.
a. from an individualistic culture.
People assess personal worth through
a. authentic self.
b. public self.
c. self-esteem.
d. self-ideal.
c. self-esteem.
The self-views of those who appear to have low self-esteem are _____________ than those of people with high self-esteem.
a. more confused
b. more negative
c. less accurate
d. less culturally based
a. more confused
Which of the following is NOT consistent with empirical data?
a. Self-esteem is strongly related to happiness.
b. Low self-esteem has been shown to be a reliable cause of improvement in academic performance.
c. Self-esteem is unrelated to how quickly love relationships end.
d. Objective data gathered from peers indicates that people with high self-esteem are more likeable and make better impressions than those with low self-esteem.
d. Objective data gathered from peers indicates that people with high self-esteem are more likeable and make better impressions than those with low self-esteem.
Research on narcissism may have practical use for professionals who are trying to rehabilitate
a. those who engage in domestic violence.
b. drug addicts.
c. women with eating disorders.
d. college professors.
a. those who engage in domestic violence.
Maccoby and Martin's research suggests that parental ___________ and ___________ are major determinants of a child's self esteem.
d. acceptance; control
Which of the following best describes the correlation of parenting style with self-esteem from highest to lowest?
a. Authoritarian > permissive > authoritative > neglectful
b. Authoritative > authoritarian > permissive > neglectful
c. Permissive > authoritative > neglectful > authoritarian
d. Authoritative > permissive > neglectful > authoritarian
b. Authoritative > authoritarian > permissive > neglectful
________ are the inferences that people make about what causes their behavior.
Self-attributions
Internal attributions ascribe causes of behavior to ______ factors.
personal
Which of the following would be considered an example of an internal-stable factor in attribution?
a. One's effort at the task
b. One's feelings about one's boss
c. One's health at the time of the task
d. One's ability for the task in question
d. One's ability for the task in question
Which of the following is an example of an external-unstable factor in attribution?
a. Bad luck
b. One's self-esteem
c. Lack of ability
d. The nature of the task
a. Bad luck
All of the following are dimensions of the attributional process except
a. internal versus external.
b. automatic versus controlled.
c. stable versus unstable.
d. controllable versus uncontrollable.
b. automatic versus controlled.
The tendency to use similar causal explanations for a wide variety of events in one's life is known as
explanatory style.
Research indicates that people with negative self-views preferred partners who viewed them
a. positively.
b. negatively.
c. realistically.
d. unrealistically.
b. negatively.
Advertisers of personal care products are tapping into the _____________ motive.
self-improvement
Illusions of control and the "better than average effect" are examples of
a. self-enhancement.
b. self-improvement.
c. self-assessment.
d. self-verification.
a. self-enhancement.
Who of the following does NOT provide an illustration of self-enhancement?
a. Juan asserts that he has above average intelligence.
b. June prefers to be with partners who hold a similar view of her as she does of herself.
c. Jimmy picks his own lottery numbers.
d. Janey predicts that she will have below average problems in her future.
b. June prefers to be with partners who hold a similar view of her as she does of herself.
The tendency to use various strategies to maintain a positive view of the self is called
a. self-verification.
b. self-serving bias.
c. self-enhancement.
d. fundamental attribution error
c. self-enhancement.
The notion of "basking in reflected glory" was proposed by
Robert Cialdini.
The tendency to sabotage one's performance to provide an excuse for possible failure is called
a. self-centered bias.
b. self-serving bias.
c. self-handicapping.
d. basking in reflected failure.
c. self-handicapping.
Someone who says, "I probably won't do well on the exam because I was up all night with a sick friend," is using the strategy of
a. projection.
b. reaction formation.
c. self-handicapping.
d. basking in reflected glory.
c. self-handicapping.
Even though she never met him, Jane told all of her friends that the new mayor of their town was her second cousin. Jane was using the method of self-enhancement known as
a. downward social comparison.
b. upward social comparison.
c. basking in reflected glory.
d. "CORFing."
c. basking in reflected glory.
Some negative self-views can lead to success by
a. strengthening resolve.
b. working hard to avoid worst-case scenarios.
c. providing emotional dividends when one outperforms one's goal.
d. all of these.
d. all of these.
Self-regulation refers to
directing and controlling one's behavior.
If you use self-control resources by resisting temptation in a given situation,
you may have a hard time resisting the next temptation.
Unlike her coworkers, Susan resisted the temptation to overeat at the company retreat potluck. Following the potluck, the coworkers were put into groups and asked to tackle some difficult work-related tasks. The likelihood that Susan would give up more quickly than her coworkers is consistent with
a. the ego depletion model of self-regulation.
b. the ego integrity model of self-efficacy.
c. self-handicapping.
d. self-sandbagging.
a. the ego depletion model of self-regulation.
Which of the following is NOT a source of self-efficacy?
a. Mastering new skills
b. Watching others perform a skill one wants to learn
c. Soliciting encouragement and advice from others
d. Comparing one's self to others who are less fortunate
d. Comparing one's self to others who are less fortunate
The habitual use of misguided or ineffective strategies for achieving desirable outcomes is called
Counterproductive.
Self-defeating behaviors include all of the following except
a. self-efficacy failure.
b. counterproductive strategies.
c. deliberate self-destruction.
d. trade-offs.
a. self-efficacy failure.
Which of the following does NOT typically underlie most self-defeating trade-offs?
a. Poor judgment
b. Emotional distress
c. Intentional self-harm
d. High self-awareness
c. Intentional self-harm
People engage in counterproductive strategies because
a. they are intent on self-defeat.
b. they believe they will eventually be successful.
c. they are masochistic.
d. they are experiencing only minimal emotional arousal.
b. they believe they will eventually be successful.
Most of us have
a. no public self.
b. one public self.
c. a number of public selves.
d. a public self for family and friends, and another for strangers.
c. a number of public selves.
Which of the following is NOT considered a self-presentation strategy?
a. Ingratiation
b. Intimidation
c. Identification
d. Exemplification
c. Identification
With the self-presentation strategy of ______, people try to present themselves as weak and dependent in order to get favors from others.
Supplication
Which of the following is NOT an example of ingratiation?
a. Theo gives a sincere compliment to his psychology instructor.
b. Ted does a favor for a neighbor.
c. Theresa plays up her strong points to her boss.
d. Terry goes along with some new friends to a movie that he doesn't really want to see.
c. Theresa plays up her strong points to her boss.
Jerry is very careful to dress for events in a manner that fits the style of those with whom he will be socializing, and he spends a great deal of time familiarizing himself with the interests of his companions. Jerry would best be classified as a
High self-monitor.
Perceiver expectations include
self-fulfilling prophecy
You make a new acquaintance at a football game, and you ask him only questions about sports and athletics. This is an example of probable
confirmation bias.
The process whereby expectations about a person cause the person to behave in ways that confirm the expectations is called
the self-fulfilling prophecy.
Explaining the behavior of outgroup members on the basis of the characteristic that sets them apart is known as the
outgroup homogeneity effect.
After reading about a rape that occurred in the neighborhood, Jane says, "all men are violent, sex-crazed, and dangerous." This is an example of the
outgroup homogeneity effect.
Which of the following is NOT consistent with the "what-is-beautiful-is-good" stereotype?
a. Attractive people have an advantage in the social arena.
b. Attractive individuals are judged as less assertive than unattractive individuals.
c. Attractive individuals are perceived in a more favorable light than is actually the case.
d. The tendency to associate attractiveness with positive qualities occurs outside the United States.
b. Attractive individuals are judged as less assertive than unattractive individuals.
Compared to those who are less attractive, physically attractive people are actually likely to
a. be more competent.
b. be more assertive.
c. have better social skills.
d. have better mental health.
c. have better social skills.
In explaining the causes of behavior, the fundamental attribution error refers to the overestimation of the role of ______ factors
personal
______ is a tendency to blame victims for their misfortune, so that one feels less likely to be victimized in a similar way.
Defensive attribution
Melissa grew up in the South and is prejudiced against New Yorkers. She sees a TV program about a kind-hearted but clumsy New Yorker and afterward she talks about how the program made the New Yorker appear to be bumbling, stupid, and ignorant. Melissa's behavior best illustrates which of the following?
a. Self-serving bias
b. The selectivity of person perception
c. Defensive attribution
d. The fundamental attribution error
b. The selectivity of person perception
Jane thinks that women don't need sexual harassment laws anymore because men get by with much worse anyway. Jane's attitudes are examples of
a. "old-fashioned" discrimination.
b. modern discrimination.
c. situational prejudice.
d. nondiscrimination.
b. modern discrimination.
When people say it is more important to encourage boys than girls in athletics, they are engaging in
a. "old-fashioned" discrimination.
b. modern discrimination.
c. defensive discrimination.
d. perceptual discrimination.
a. "old-fashioned" discrimination.
Which of the following is generally NOT considered as a contributor to racial prejudice?
a. Egocentrism
b. Stereotyping
c. Defensive attribution
d. The fundamental attribution error
a. Egocentrism
Which of the following researchers conducted the classic study of group competition at Robbers' Cave State Park in Oklahoma?
a. Albert Bandura
b. Muzafer Sherif
c. Robert Cialdini
d. Mark Snyder
b. Muzafer Sherif
Threats to personal and social identity motivate individuals to restore
self-esteem
Which of the following statements about the routes of persuasive messages is true?
a. Persuasion usually occurs via the central route.
b. Attitudes formed via the central route are longer lasting than those formed via the peripheral route.
c. Attitudes formed via the peripheral route are better predictors of behavior than those formed via the central route.
d. Attitudes formed via the central route are longer lasting, but those formed via the peripheral route are more resistant to challenge.
b. Attitudes formed via the central route are longer lasting than those formed via the peripheral route.
The elaboration likelihood model states that
a. the more elaborate the message, the likelier the attitude will change.
b. the thoughts about a message rather than the content of the message determines whether an attitude will change.
c. peripheral routes are more important than central routes.
d. attitudes change mainly when the person cannot elaborate on their reasoning for their initial attitude.
b. the thoughts about a message rather than the content of the message determines whether an attitude will change.
In Asch's studies, ______ and ______ were found to be key determinants of conformity.
a. task difficulty; group size
b. group size; group unanimity
c. group size; the participants' intelligence
d. the group leader's personality; group unanimity
b. group size; group unanimity
Researchers think that the reason the foot-in-the-door technique is effective is that people have a tendency to
a. please others.
b. behave consistently.
c. use the reciprocity norm.
d. engage in fundamental attribution
b. behave consistently.
The local animal shelter sends you cute return address labels with cuddly kittens on them. They are hoping that you will send a donation based on the effects of
a. compliance.
b. the lowball technique.
c. the reciprocity norm.
d. the foot-in-the-door technique.
c. the reciprocity norm.
______ occurs when someone's number of choices has been restricted and he or she pursues the choices that have been denied.
Reactance
One fraternity has only 3 openings, but during pledge week, the number of pledges increases from 4 to 9. Another fraternity has 8 openings, but only 2 pledges by the end of the week. This discrepancy was likely influenced by
a. scarcity only.
b. scarcity and reactance only.
c. compliance only.
d. scarcity, reactance, and compliance.
b. scarcity and reactance only.
Bill's use of the word "broad" in conversation when referring to women offends Betty and makes it hard for her to follow his meaning. This type of miscommunication is called
noise
Various confounding factors can lead to misinterpretation of eye contact between individuals. This may cause such nonverbal communication to become a form of ________ in interpersonal communication.
noise
Gender patterns in eye contact are most likely to be confounded by which of the following?
a. Age
b. Atatus
c. Height
d. Culture
b. Atatus
Which of the following statements about interpersonal touching of friends is NOT true?
a. Men seldom touch male friends on the face.
b. Women quite often touch female friends on the face.
c. Men very often touch female friends on the hips.
d. Women often touch male friends on the leg.
c. Men very often touch female friends on the hips.
Which of the following is NOT associated with lying?
a. Higher pitch
b. Pupil dilation
c. Relatively short responses
d. Excessive shifting of posture
d. Excessive shifting of posture
Deception on the part of another person may be signaled by
a. pauses before speaking.
b. slowness in speech patterns.
c. giving short answers.
d. shifts in body posture.
c. giving short answers.
Nonverbal sensitivity varies by all of the following except
a. social competence.
b. age.
c. academic competence.
d. gender.
b. age.
Dwayne seemed more aware when friends were fearful and offered assistance more often than others. It is likely that Dwayne has _____ facial expressions.
a. a high sensitivity to encoding
b. a high sensitivity to decoding
c. a low sensitivity to encoding
d. a low sensitivity to decoding
b. a high sensitivity to decoding
Which of the following types of opening lines is likely to be least effective in initiating a conversation with another-gender stranger?
a. Direct
b. Cute/flippant
c. Innocuous
d. Complimentary
b. Cute/flippant
Which of the following would be considered the best strategy for reducing the risks of engaging in self-disclosure?
a. You should discuss a variety of superficial topics.
b. You should move gradually when using self-disclosure.
c. You should emphasize the number of personal problems you have.
d. You should avoid revealing truthful information until you know you can trust the other person.
b. You should move gradually when using self-disclosure.
Aaron is just getting to know Debbie. He is more likely to disclose
a. his parents' divorce when he was 10.
b. only events with positive emotions.
c. the time he broke into the library at school.
d. all of these.
a. his parents' divorce when he was 10.
Once relationships are well established, self-disclosure tends to
a. taper off.
b. become more reciprocal.
c. increase in breadth, but not depth.
d. increase in depth, but not breadth.
a. taper off.
When relationships are in distress, self-disclosure patterns
a. decrease in breadth, but not depth.
b. increase in breadth, but not depth.
c. decrease in breadth and depth.
d. increase in breadth and depth.
c. decrease in breadth and depth.
Which of the following statements about self-disclosure is NOT true?
a. In the U.S., females tend to be more openly self-disclosing than males.
b. Females share more personal information with same-gender friends than males in the U.S.
c. Japanese and Chinese are less open about their status than U.S. males.
d. Japanese males share more with same-gender friends than American males.
c. Japanese and Chinese are less open about their status than U.S. males.
In the beginning stages of a relationship with a person of the opposite sex,
a. women typically disclose more than men.
b. men often disclose more than women.
c. there is very little reciprocal self-disclosure.
d. men tend to disclose more about negative emotions.
b. men often disclose more than women.
Close contact between same-gender friends is encouraged
a. in all cultures.
b. in Jordan, where male and female friends are discouraged.
c. in the U.S., where male friends disclose personal information.
d. in the U.S., where female friends share more impersonal information.
b. in Jordan, where male and female friends are discouraged.
Which of the following is NOT likely to promote effective listening?
a. Paraphrasing the speaker's message
b. Asking the other person for clarification
c. Attending to the other person's nonverbal signals
d. Assuming a body posture with arms and legs crossed
d. Assuming a body posture with arms and legs crossed
Anxiety caused by having to talk with others is called communication
a. aversion.
b. disruption.
c. avoidance.
d. apprehension.
d. apprehension
The root of communication apprehension is thought to be
a. the context in which the communication is to take place.
b. the strength of one's physiological reactions to communication.
c. the interpretation of one's own physiological reactions.
d. the audience to whom one is going to communicate.
c. the interpretation of one's own physiological reactions.
Which of the following is NOT considered one of the common barriers to effective communication?
a. Defensiveness
b. Ambushing
c. Cognitive restructuring
d. Motivational distortion
c. Cognitive restructuring
Which of the following styles of managing conflict is characterized by low concern for self and others?
a. Avoiding
b. Competing
c. Compromising
d. Accommodating
a. Avoiding
Otis, the union president, has explained to the CEO that he is flexible and willing to modify his position. He is using
a. a competing style of conflict management.
b. a key principle in dealing constructively with conflict.
c. an accommodating style of conflict management.
d. a manipulation style of constructive management
b. a key principle in dealing constructively with conflict.
Which of the following is an accurate statement reflecting cultural attitudes toward assertiveness?
a. Israelis distain assertiveness.
b. Some Native American tribes have a confrontational interactional style whereby vigorous debate is expected.
c. Collectivist societies place a higher value on interpersonal harmony than assertiveness.
d. All of these are true.
c. Collectivist societies place a higher value on interpersonal harmony than assertiveness.
Which of the following is NOT a step in assertiveness communication training?
a. Understanding
b. Monitoring
c. Adopting an aggressive attitude
d. Practicing
c. Adopting an aggressive attitude