Histology Shelf Questions
Terms in this set (226)
What organ contains involuntary skeletal muscle?
What do muscle cells look like really zoomed in on an individual cell?
Like a normal cell.
Round cell with a nucleus in the center.
Which part of the kidney contains a brush border?
The proximal convoluted tubule. Have carbonic anhydrase painted onto the brush border.
Where are the three locations you find elastic fibers?
1. Large arteries, like the aorta.
2. Vocal cords.
3. Ligamenta flava (which connect the vertebrate).
On CT what does the bladder look like?
What are the two cellular signs of apoptosis?
1. Cytoplasmic blebbing.
2. Nuclear blebbing.
What mechanism accounts for the restoration of the epidermis over an abraded area?
Growth of the epidermis from HAIR FOLLICLES and sweat glands IN THE DERMIS.
What type of epithelia is found in the esophagus?
Nonkeratinized, stratified, squamous epithelium for its entire length.
In what type of cell do you find the space of Disse?
In what type of cell do you find podocyte foot processes?
What type of cells are found with a Giemsa stain?
What do mast cells secrete?
These cells play an important role in IgE-mediated allergic responses.
They secrete histamine, serotonin and many leukotrienes and platelet aggregating factor.
What is spermiogenesis?
This is differentiation of sperm.
This is different from spermatocytogenesis which is spermatogonia dividing.
Why is cartilage more prone to bacterial infections?
Cartilage, like hyaline cartilage found in the knees, is has little blood cells going through it so the immune system can't really get to the infection in the cartilage.
What is the cell shape of a fibroblast?
Spindle-shaped with microfilaments inside.
When a bone is broken, what part of the bone is responsible to reunite the two fragments?
When the periosteum is torn, it supplies cells that develop into osteoblasts and are the major producers of new bone that reunite the two ends.
What type of cells are neurons in adults?
Permanent cells. These have left the cell cycle and can no longer undergo mitotic division.
Another example of such permanent cells are CARDIAC MYOCYTES.
What do eosinophils have in their cytoplasm that allows them to be recognized on TEM? What do these cells secrete?
Eosinophils contain eosinophilic granules that have crystalline cores. These look like rods on TEM.
These crystalline cores contain major basic protein.
What in the chest wall can get focal calcification?
Note: cartilage can get calcified.
What do the surfactant secreting cells of the lung look like?
These are called Type II pneumocytes. These are cuboidal with round nuclei and a washed out cytoplasm.
So they are lighter in color.
What are kuppfer cells found?
In the liver sinusoids.
Where are Ito cells found?
In the space of Disse. Vitamin A storage.
What organ contains cords of Billroth?
The red pulp of the spleen.
Note: the white pump contains lymphocytes around a central artery.
Red pulp filters the blood.
What part of the ear contains hair cells?
The organ of Corti.
This is the organ of hearing.
What feature of airway epithelial is found most distally and is last to disappear?
These are present through the respiratory bronchioles, but are not present in the alveolar ducts or alveoli.
Where are actin filaments bound?
To structural proteins at the Z-line. Called the I-band.
Note: myosin filaments are bound to the M-line. Called the A-band.
How do osteocytes remain connected to one another?
Via gap junctions.
What type of cell in the alveoli is responsible for recovery of damaged alveolar epithelium?
Type II pneumocytes.
Note: these also produce surfactant.
What causes RNA splicing?
Removal of introns occurs by small nuclear ribosomal proteins (snRNPs) plus some proteins.
SnRNPs are synthesized BY RNA polymerase II in the nucleus. They help to remove introns from the RNA transcript and are thus necessary for synthesis of messenger RNA.
Which region of the Gu system has the highest (most basic) pH?
Unique to the duodenum, the compound tubular Brunner's glands of the submucosa secrete alkaline mucous into ducts that empty into the crypts of Lieberkuhn.
What is a Koilocyte?
A Koilocyte is a squamous epithelial cell that has undergone a number of structural changes, which occur as a result of infection of the cell by human papillomavirus.
Kilocytosis is a hallmark of HPV infection.
What type of epithelium are the true vocal cords covered by?
Stratified squamous epithelium.
Note: In the respiratory tract, the nose, paranasal sinuses, nasopharynx, most of the larynx and the tracheobronchial tree are lined with pseudostratified, columnar, mucus-secreting epithelium.
Stratified squamous epithelium is found only in the oropharynx, laryngopharynx, anterior epiglottis, upper half of the posterior epiglottis, and vocal folds (true vocal cords).
What is atelectasis?
Collapse of a certain part of the lung.
What is the primary abnormality of Paget's disease of the bone?
The primary abnormality in Paget's disease is the increase in osteoclastic bone resorption.
What makes up the glycocalyx?
Glycoproteins on the extracellular aspect of the plasma membrane.
What does an increase in cholesterol do to the cell membrane?
Decrease fluidity. This make sense since the phospholipids are bumping into cholesterol and have less room to move about.
What are annexins? Give an example.
These are proteins that modify the relationship with other peripheral proteins.
An example is Spectrin, which is is network seen on the intracellular aspect of RBC.
What are ATP-binding cassette transporters?
These are transmembrane proteins that have an ATP binding domain and a transmembrane domain.
These export materials from cells. Such as toxins or even Rx. This is how you can get multi-drug resistant proteins.
What type of proteins are membrane receptors?
Integral membrane GLYCOPROTEINS.
Note: for some reason most proteins in the PM are glycoproteins.
What are Integrins?
Important: These associate the plasma membrane with the cytoskeleton.
What is the difference between integral and peripheral proteins?
Integral proteins span the entire membrane.
Peripheral proteins are just on the cytoplasmic side.
What is spectrin? Actin? Band 4.1? and Ankyrin in a RBC?
Spectrin - the long, flexible protein that forms the scaffold.
Actin - Attaches to the binding sites on spectrin and holds them together.
Band 4.1 - Stabilizes spectrin-actin.
Ankyrin - a protein that anchors spectrin to membrane protein band 3.
How do most venoms affect the PNS?
Inactivation of Ach receptors on skeletal muscle sarcolemma at NM junction.
How does Cholera toxin affect G-proteins?
It alters the Gs protein so that it is unable to hydrolyse GTP. So have high cAMP (so always on because GTP always present) and get excessive diarrhea.
How does Pertussis toxin affect G-proteins?
Inserts ADP-ribose into the X subunit of G-protin and causes accumulation of inactive form of G-protin. This results in irritation of the mucosa of the bronchial passages.
So always off because can't do anything with ADP.
What defect is seen in Hereditary spherocytosis?
Defective spectrin that can't bind band 4.1.
This results in spherocytes in the spleen that leads to anemia.
Where are all forms of RNA synthesized?
In the nucleus.
Describe the nuclear envelope.
It is two parallel membranes that have fusion points for nuclear pores.
The outer layer is continuous with the RER and the inner layer has a lamina that separates it from the DNA. In fact, have ribosomes on the outer surface.
On both sides have scaffolding of intermediate filaments.
What types of transport occurs at nuclear pores?
What does the nucleolus mainly contain?
What is a nucleosome composed of?
Chromatin and histone.
What does the Giemsa stain for?
A-T rich regions.
What are nucleotides composed of?
Deoxyribose SUGAR and a phosphate group.
What do RNA pol 1, 2, and 3 do?
RNA pol 1 - makes rRNA.
RNA pol 2 - makes mRNA.
RNA pol 3 - makes tRNA.
Makes sense if you just think of the order of making a protein.
Describe the sequence of events to make mRNA from pre-mRNA.
Lose introns and get hnRNP.
Have splicing of exons and get mRNP.
Lose proteins and get mRNA.
What is the the size of the small subunit of the ribosome?
So all the other ones are of the large subunit.
In what stage can you see the nucleolus?
This is the interval between cell divisions. During interphase the cell doubles in size and DNA content.
What are the three phages of interphase?
G1 (gap one), S (synthetic), and G2 (gap two).
What do cyclin-dependent kinases regulate?
Progression through the cell cycle.
D - From G1 to S
E - From G1 to S
A - From S to G2
B - From G2 to Mitosis
Don't Eat Alone Babe.
What is the composition of the kinetochore spindles?
This is important since compounds can inhibit microtubules and thus inhibit mitosis. (Ex. Vinca alkaloids).
What happens during prophase I?
Have crossing over and the five stages of prophase 1.
What are the two components of the extracellular matrix?
1. Ground substance (GAG, proteoglycans, glycoproteins).
2. Fibers (Collagen and Elastic).
What is the composition of the ground substance of the extracellular matrix?
The ground substance of the extracellular matrix is composed of:
1. GAG - these are usually sulfated and linked to a core protien (heparin sulfate, chondroitin sulfate). So they are negatively charged. The unsulfated one that is not linked to a core protein is hyaluronic acid.
2. Proteoglycans - these are the core protein GAG attach to. These bind growth factors.
3. Glycoproteins - Have different types:
-Fibronectin - for cell adhesion. Involved in wound healing.
-Laminin - interacts with epitheial cells and the EC matrix.
-Entactin - binds laminin
-Tenascin - cell migration.
Describe the synthesis of collagen.
Intracellularly have mRNA making alpha chains. Then get hydroxylation and gycosylation of the chain. THen get a triple helix formed.
Then extracellular;y get cleavage of the procollagen ends and get tropocollagen. This self-assembes into a fibril.
What cofactor is needed for collagen synthesis? What happens if you don't have it?
Need vit. C.
If don't have it get Scurvy.
What is the pathology of Ehlers-Danlos type IV syndrome?
Have a genetic defect in transcription of type III collagen. This is a major component of reticular fibers.
How is synthesis of type IV collagen unique?
This collagen is a meshwork as opposed to a fibril. So don't cut off the ends of procollagen and instead leave it to get a meshwork.
What is the pathology with Marfan syndrome?
Mutation in genes encoding fibrillin. A critical component of elastic fibers.
What is Fibrillin?
A glycoprotein that organizes elastin fibers into elastic fibers. Form fibrillin microfibrils and elastin forms bundles around these microfibrils.
Fibroblasts synthesize elastic fibers.
Smooth muscles synthesize elastic fibers.
Chondroblasts synthesize elastic fibers.
How do epithelia get blood supply?
Epithelia are avascular and rest on a basement membrane.
So they have to get nourishment via diffusion from the basal lamina. Which is the connective tissue basement membrane that has blood going through it.
Describe tight junctions.
Note: only in columnar epithelial cells.
These are also called zonula occludens.
Tight junctions occur along the entire apical perimeter. They are fusions of the outer leaflets.
On freeze fracture will see strands since will have proteins attached in to cell membranes.
Describe intermediate junctions.
Note: only in columnar epithelial cells.
These are also called zonula adherens.
These are located just under tight junctions. They are a mat of actin filaments on each side on the cytoplasmic surfaces attached by E-cadherins.
Note: only in columnar epithelial cells.
These are also called macula adherens.
These are located below the intermediate junctions.
These are dense plaques of intracellular proteins called desmoplakins. They are linked by cadherin molecules and keratin intermediate filaments in bundles.
Describe gap junctions.
Note: only in columnar epithelial cells.
These junctions are composed of Connexons. With are six cylindrical subunits.
What is the definition of the basement membrane? Define each component.
Basement membrane = basal lamina + reticular lamina.
The basal lamina is composed to type IV collagen, laminin, entactin and proteoglycans that have heparin sulfate.
The basal lamina is two layers. Lamina densa next to the CT and lamina rara next to the epi cells.
These are on the basal aspect of epithelial cells. These provide adhesion of epithelial cells to the underlying matrix (basement membrane).
The hemidesmosomes link to the cytoskeleton.
What is Bullous pemphigoid?
An autoimmune disease in which Ab attack hemidesmosomes.
This produced blisters on the skin since the epithelial is separating from the underlying substratum.
Describe microvilli, sterocillia, and cilia.
Microvilli - have actin filaments that run throughout them. Found in the brush border of the proximal tubule of the kidney and in the striated border of intestinal absorptive cells.
Sterocillia - Long microvilli. Not cilia. Seen in the epididymis and vas deferens.
Cilia - Actively motile. Have microtubules inside (9+2 arrangement). The BASAL BODY is a clindrical structure at the base of each cilium that is triplet microtubules in a 9+0 configuration.
What is the difference between parenchyma and stroma?
Parenchyma is the functional part of a gland.
Stroma is the supportive part of a gland.
Define merocrine, apocrine and holocribe.
Merocrine - Just exocytosis.
Apocribe - some of the PM is lost with the vesicle.
Holocrine - HAve rupture of cell and all contents released.
What is metaplasia? How is this seen in Barrett's esophagus?
The conversion of one type of differential epithelium to another.
In Barrett's esophagus the esophageal epithelium goes from stratified squamous nonkeratinized to glandular mucus-secreting epithelium that is found in the stomach.
What is a first degree burn?
Have damage to the superficial layers of the epithelium. Mitotically active cells remain viable in the deeper layers of the epidermis.
What are the major components of connective tissue?
Have extracellular matrix that consists and ground substance. This ground substance contains GAG, proteoglycans, and glycoproteins.
Also have fibers in which CT cells are embedded. Have collagen fibers, reticular fibers, and elastic fibers.
What do fibroblasts synthesize?
CT collagen is of type I and type III.
When do mast cells become activated?
During Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction. This is when IgE binds (made during first exposure) to Fc and get release of primary and secondary mediators.
Mast cells secrete primary mediators like histamine and heparin. They also cause release of secondary mediators like prostaglandins and bradykinins and leukotrienes.
What is hay fever?
Nasal congestion caused by excessive release of histamine from mast cells in the nasal mucosa.
What is asthma?
Bronchospasms results from leukotrienes released in the lungs.
Histologically what do plasma cells look like?
What are the different types of granulocytes?
These are all WBC that have cytoplasmic granules.
Neutrophils - kills and digest bacteria. Produce pus.
Eosinophils - bind to Ag-Ab complexes on surface of parasites.
Basophils - Like mast cells. But basophils circulate in the blood stream, mast cells are stuck in CT proper.
What type of collagen is found in reticular fibers?
What does the endomysium surround? The perimysium? The epimysium?
The endomysium surround individual muscle fibers (cells).
The perimysium surrounds fasicles (small bundles) of muscle cells.
The epimysium surrounds entire muscle and forms aponeuroses with other muscles and tendons.
Note on skeletal muscle.
It is multinucleated, enveloped by external lamina and reticular fibers.
The T-tubule is located at the A-I junction. This is where you will find the triad.
What holds myofibrils in alignment?
Desmin and Plectin.
What is desmin-related myopathy?
A rare inherited disease where mutation in desmin for disorganized myofilaments. Get weakness of muscles all over body.
What do satellite cells do in muscle?
There are regenerative cells that differentiate and fuse with another skeletal muscle cell.
What is myostatin?
A protein make by muscle cells that restricts the size of muscle cells so they don't get too big.
Describe all the bands of a sarcomere.
A band - thin and thick filaments.
I band - thin
H band - thick
M line (myomesin) - down H-band.
Z line - down I-band.
How do the thin filaments anchor to Z disks?
Via alpha-actinin, Cap Z, and nebulin.
Recall: Desmin and Plectin anchor Z-disks to one another.
What is Duchenne muscular dystrophy?
Sex-linked recessive genetic disorder so can't synthesize dystrophin.
These is an actin binding protein that anchors the Z-disk to the sarcolemma. These are called costameres.
What does titin do?
It anchors the Z-disk to the thick filaments.
What is Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS or Lou Gehrig disease)?
Degeneration of motor neurons of the spinal cord. This results in muscle atrophy because can't stimulate the myoneural junction.
What is myasthenia gravis?
An autoimmune disease in which Ab block Ach receptors at myoneural junctions. So can't depolarize sarcolemma.
What does Botulism do?
This is a form of food poisioning in which the botulinum toxin inwhich Act release from myoneural junctions.
What do the muscle spindle and golgi tendon organ do?
THe muscle spindle prevents over stretching and the golgi tendon organ prevents over contraction.
Both of these actions are done by activating or inhibiting efferent motors neurons.
Where are the T-tubules located in skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle?
In skeletal at A-i junction in cardiac at Z-disks.
Note about cardiac muscles.
They contain fasciae adherentes, desmosomes and gap junctions so that have ionic coupling.
What are caveloae in smooth muscles?
These are the sarcolemmal vesicles that are like a sarcoplasmic reticulum.
What does the pineal gland produce?
Serotonin during the day and melatonin during the night.
What do mammary glands produce?
Milk and Colostrum (a protein rich yellow fluid that is producing during the first few days after birth. It contains IgA).
What signs will you see with testicular cancer in the plasma?
Increase in hCG. Also will see increase in alpha-fetoprotein.
What signs will you see with adenocarcinoma of the prostate?
Increase in plasma PSA and hard nodules on the prostate via digital exam.
What happens to the membrane fluidity when an Ab binds to a cell receptor?
This is due to lateral diffusion of the lipid bilayer.
What causes asymmetry of the lipid bilayer?
During membrane synthesis in the ER.
Carbohydrates are associated with the N-terminal of the transmembrane proteins on the EC surface. We don't have such glycosylation on the intracellular surface.
What two things can G-proteins do?
1. Activate cascades.
2. Open and close ion channels!
What is lamin?
These are intermediate filaments that make up the nuclear lamina.
When phosphorylated, the lamina dissembles and get release of DNA to go mitosis.
What is E2F?
A TF that is turned on by phosphorylation of the retinoblastoma protein that causes the initiation of G1 to S.
What happens when a cell in a any phase of the cell cycle is fused with a mitotic cell?
The mitotic cell dominated and get mitosis.
What is trademark of apoptosis? What is trademark of necrosis?
apoptosis - degradation by endonuclease.
necrosis - inflammation, swelling, and random DNA degradation.
Contraction of what filament causes neural tube formation?
Microfilament bundles associated with the zonula adherens.
What does the basement membrane of the epithelium do?
What is Kartagner syndrome?
Immotile cilia syndrome. Have a problem with dynein arms.
What is fibronectin?
An adhesive glycoprotein in cell-to-cell attachment and adhesion.
What do integrins do for leukocytes?
Allow them to do from the blood to the lymphoid compartment.
Mast cells cause edema.
How do you identify a plasma cell?
Big ass eccentric nuclei with coarse granules of heterochromatin.
What are Nissl bodies?
These are composed of polyribosomes and RER. There are in the soma of neurons.
So this is the site of protein synthesis.
What are filaments are tubules are found in neurons?
Neurofilaments, which are intermediate filaments found in the soma of neurons.
What are arborized terminals?
There are multiple branching ends of dendrites.
Where do you find Golgi in a neuron?
Only in the soma.
Do not find it in the dendrites or axon.
What is the pathology of Alzheimer disease?
Loss of neurons and synapses within the cerebral cortex.
Develop Beta-amyloid plaques.
Where do you find neuroglial cells? List them and their functions.
These are ONLY in the CNS.
1. Astrocytes - largest neuroglial cells. Scavenge ions and debris and supply energy for metabolism to neurons. So like nursemaids. Help make blood-brain barrier. (Have protoplasmic and fibrous astrocytes).
2. Oligodendrocytes - myelin on CNS.
3. Schwann cells - myelin on PNS.
4. Microglia - macrophages of CNS.
5. Ependymal cells - epithelial of CNS.
What is the pathology of Parkinson disease?
Loss of dopaminergic neurons.
There are only found in the CNS.
What is the pathology of Huntington disease?
Loss of GABA producing neurons.
What does osmium tetroxide do?
Stain myelin sheath black.
What are the three characteristics that you can see in myelin histologically?
1. Major dense lines - fused myelin.
2. Intraperiod lines - lose contact myelin.
3. Clefts/incisures - discontinuities of myelin due to Schwann cell cytoplasm.
What is the pathology of multiple sclerosis?
Due to demyelination of CNS.
What is the pathology of Meningitis?
Bacterial (can be viral) infection of meninges.
What are ganglia?
Encapsulated aggregation of neuronal cell bodies outside of CNS.
What does the choroid plexus do?
Produce CNS fluid!
What do the nodes of Ranvier do?
Sequestration of sodium entry into the axon.
What does cisterna mean?
What are the functions of the SEM?
1. Steroid hormone synthesis.
2. Drug detoxification in heptatocytes. Ex. in response to phenobarbital.
3. Muscle contraction since Ca is stored in SER.
Where are the protons stored in the mitochondria?
In the intermembrane space.
What is occurring in condensed mitochondria?
See this in brown fat cells. Have uncoupled respiration from ATP synthesis so produce heat.
What proteins are used with clathrin coats?
Dynamin - help pinch off vesicle.
What are coatomer vesicles used for?
Movement between RER, VTC, Golgi, and PM. So moving from big components.
Use COP II and COP I. And use V-snare and T-snare.
How does Botox work?
v-SNARES with t-SNAREs are essential for neurotransmitter release via exocytosis.
Botox claves SNAP-25, which is used by t-SNARE. So prevent neuromuscular transmission and contraction because the neurotransmitter is not released.
What enzymes do lysosomes contain?
What enzyme do peroxisomes contain?
This is used in FA oxidation and detoxification.
What is Zellweger syndrome?
A genetic disease in which normal peroxisomes are absent.
What proteins are involved in movement with microtubules?
Kinesin and dynein.
What is the gross structure of microfilaments?
This is actin.
Gross structure is a double helix.
What is the pathology of familial hypercholesterolemia?
Inability to synthesize LDL receptors.
What are some examples of intermediate filaments?
Keratin, vimentin, neurofilaments and Lamins.
What tag targets a vesicle for lysosome degradation?
What is the pathology of Tay-Sachs disease?
Glycolipids accumulating in the lysosomes of neurons due to deficiency in hexosaminidase A.
What is the pathology of Hurler syndrome?
GAG and mucopolysaccharides accumulate in the heart, brain, liver and other organs.
Deficiency in lysosomal enzymes.
Use clathrin coats to move vesicles away from trans-golgi.
What type of collagen is in hyaline cartilage? In elastic? In fibrocartilage?
Hyaline - type II
Elastic - type II
Fibrocartilage - type I
What type of collagen is in perichondrium?
Type 1 collagen.
What happens during interstitial growth? During appositional growth?
Interstitial is when have division of preexisting chondrocytes. This makes the bone long.
Appositional growth is differentiation of chondrogenic cells in the perichondrium. This makes the cartilage wides.
What is the pathology of arthritis?
Degeneration of hyaline cartilage.
What is the pathology of osteoarthritis?
Caused by wear and tear of hyaline cartilage to the point where it is worn away.
What is the pathology of rheumatoid arthritis?
Ab attach on joints.
What does fibrocartilage look like histologically and how does it differ from hyaline cartilage?
It lacks a perichondrium and has type I cartilage.
What does the endosteum line?
The marrow cavities.
What is the pathology os osteopetrosis?
Genetic disorder affect osteoclasts so they can't breath down bone. Get increase bone density and anemia.
What are the five zones of the epiphyseal plate?
Zone of reserve
Zone of proliferation
Zone of cell hypertrophy
Zone of calcification
Zone of ossification
What is the pathology of osteoporosis?
Disease characterized by low bone mass and deterioration of bone tissue. Due to loss of estrogen, so get more resorption and decreased bone formation.
Describe the function of the inner and outer layers of the periosteum.
The inner layer contain osteoprogenitor cells.
The outer layer is fibrous and contains blood vessels. So appositional bone growth takes place here.
What do metarterioles have?
Smooth muscle that gives them func. as precapillary sphincters.
Ach from nerve terminal stimulates what to release NO?
The endothelial cells.
What type of filaments do capillaries contain?
Intermediate filaments. Desmin and vimentin.
How can you bypass the capillaries?
Via throughfare channels.
Where do you find elastic arteries?
These are called conducting arteries. Only find in the aorta and major branches of it. No where else.
All of the other arteries are called muscular distributing arteries.
What does the carotid sinus do? The carotid body? Aortic bodies?
Carotid sinus - a baroreceptor.
Carotid body - a chemoreceptor.
Aortic body - a chemoreceptor.
What distinguishes somatic from visceral capillaries?
The presence or absence of fenestrae.
How can capillaries affect clots?
They inhibit clot formation.
What type of artery contains distinct internal elastic lamina?
What does the vasa vasorum do?
Supply blood to arteries themselves.
What type of globulins are Ab?
How many RBC in a male and female?
How many platelets in a body?
How many neutrophils and lymphocytes?
How biochem pathways can RBC do?
Since they have NO organelles...
2. Hexose monophosphate pathway.
What are the components of HbA1, HbA2, HbF?
HbA1: alpha, beta.
HbA2: alpha, delta.
HbF: alpha, gamma.
Describe the morphology of neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils.
Neutrophils - Lobulated, many granules, light pink.
Eosinophils - Bilobed, few granules, dark pink.
Basophils - S-shaped, few granules, dark blue.
What is the pathology of infectious mononucleosis?
Caused by Epstein-Barr virus.
Get fatigue, swollen and tender lymph nodes, fever, sore throat, and increase in lymphocytes.
What is the pathology of Burkitt lymphoma?
Caused by Epstein-Barr virus.
See in central africa. Get lymphoma in nonlymph node regions like brain, CSF, blood and bone marrow.
What is the pathology of acute and chronic leukemia?
Acute: mostly in children. Involves immature cells. Rapid onset.
Chronic: mostly in adults. Involved mature cells. Slow onset.
At what age does an infant do hemopoiesis in bone marrow?
At this time stop liver and spleen hemopoiesis.
What is integument?
All of the appendages on the skin.
These are sweat glands, hair follicles, sebaceous glands and nails.
Which layer of the epithelium contains intercellular bridges?
The stratum spinosum.
These are desmosomes.
Which layers of the epidermis make it waterproof?
The stratum spinosum and granulosum.
What is the last layer of nucleated cells in the epidermis?
The stratum granulosum.
Where do you find stratum lucidium?
Only in thick skin.
Called palmar and planter skin.
Stratum lucidum is beneath the stratum corneum.
What is the pathology of Psoriasis?
Have increased mitotic activity of cells in malpihian layer of the epidermis (stratum basale and spinosum).
Describe the three types of sweat glands in the skin.
1. Eccrine sweat glands - a single duct of cuboidal cells doing to skin. Have dark cells, light cells, and myoepithelial cells. The clear cells secrete a water-electrolyte rich material.
2. Apocrine sweat glands - large specialized sweat glands that only being to function at puberty. Located in axilla, areola and perianal region.
3. Sebaceous glands - branched acinar glands. Duct empties into the neck of a hair follicle. Holocrine glands releasing sebum.
What is the pathology of hyperhidrosis?
Excessive sweating caused by over perspiration from secretion by eccrine sweat glands in the skin.
Where in the respiratory system do you find Bowman's glands?
In the olfactory epithelium. It secretes fluid that odors dissolve into and are picked up by the non-motile cilia of olfactory epithelia.
What is the final portion of the conducting portion of the airways?
The terminal bronchioles.
Where is respiratory epithelium?
Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epi.
When do you start to have smooth muscle in the airways?
At the secondary bronchi.
What do primary and terminal bronchioles lack?
Cartilage and glands.
What do clara cells do?
1. Divide and form ciliated cells.
2. Secrete Glycosaminoglycans.
3. Metabolize airborne toxins.
What type of epi do you have in the respiratory portion of the epithelium?
Simple cuboidal. Also have Clara cells.
What is the most distal portion of the respiratory system to contain smooth muscle cells?
What is hyaline membrane disease?
Also called infant respiratory distress syndrome. In which a premature infant (<28 weeks) lacks enough surfactant.
Surfactant is produced by type II pneumocytes.
What externally observed morphologically feature can be observed in emphysema?
Barrel chest due to the lungs expanding and enlarging in the thoracic cavity.
What enzyme is produced by lung macrophages than can be damaged if the lung is not properly functioning.
Macrophages produce elastase that is inactivated by anti-trypsin. This inactivator is not present in emphysema.
What type of epithelium is in most places of the oral region?
Stratified squamous epi.
What is the type of epi throughout the alimentary canal?
Stratified squamous in the esophagus and simple columnar all the way down to the proximal anal canal.
Then it becomes non-keratinized then keratinized squamous epi.
What do Brunner glands produce? Where are they located?
Located in the duodenum.
Produce urogastrone, which inhibits HCl secretion. Also produces alkaline fluid.
What do paneth cells do? Where are they located?
Located in the small intestine.
They have the antibacterial enzyme lysozyme. They also have defensins.
What vitamins do the bacteria in the large intestine produce?
Vit B12 and Vit K.
Histologically how can you differentiate mucosa of SI and LI?
No villi with the large intestine.
What ions are removed and added to saliva?
Bicarb added, NaCl removed.
Do salivary glands contain myoepithelial cells?
What do lysozyme, lactoferrin, and IgA do in saliva?
Control bacterial flora.
What causes the pancreas to release alkaline content? What causes the release of digestive enzymes.
Alkaline content = Secretin.
Digestive enzymes = CCK.
Why does tripsin not activate all the enzymes in the pancreas? (i.e. Tripsin, chymotripsin, carboxypeptidase A and B).
The pancreas contains a trypsin inhibitor.
What is the name of the capsule around the kidney?
Are hepatocytes directly in contact with the blood stream?
No, the space of Disse is the intermediary. The hepatocyte has microvilli on the Disse aspect of the cell to increase absorption and release of content.
What is the endocrine function of the liver?
Producing plasma proteins. Like prothrombin, fibrinogen, albumin etc.
What does the exocrine pancreas acinar cells produce?
What does the submandibular acinar cells product?
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