Microbiology Test B practice test
Terms in this set (71)
How is Kilger's iron agar inoculated?
streaking the slant and stabbing the butt with a needle
A phenol red glucose broth with a durham tube that has been inoculated and incubated. After 48 hours, the broth is turbed and bright yellow and approximately half of the contents of the Durham tube have been displaced with agas. Interpret these results.
the organism is fermenting glucose
A bacterial culture is being tested for its ability to reduce nitrate. After incubation and growth of the bacteria in nitrate broth, there is no accumulation of gas in the Durham tube. The test for the presence of nitrate is colorless. When zinc powder is added, a bright color develops. Interpret these results.
the bacteria were unable to reduce nitrate
How would a result be reported if the organism does not grow on citrate agar and the color stays green?
Which of the following biochemical traits can be determined from observing growth of colonies on MacConkey agar?
ability to ferment lactose
Using antigen-antibody reactions to identify bacteria is an example of
the immunological approach to bacterial identification
The presence of urease is detected by
an increase in pH causing a color change of a phenol red indicator to bright pink
The cytochrome oxidase enzyme defected by the oxidase test functions within the cell as part of:
the election transport chain
What color will indicate a positive urease test?
bright hot pink
Which of the following must happen prior to attempting to identify a bacterial species?
isolation of the bacteria in pure culture
What is the role of phenol red in the urea medium?
What is the most widely respected resource for bacterial identification?
Bergey's Manual of Determinative Bacteriology
A yellow slant and butt in Kilgers iron agar indicates?
both glucose and lactose were fermented
An organism that ferments glucose via the mixed acid fermentation pathway will be:
red in the methyl red test
What is the carbon source in citrate agar?
You have isolated a coagulase negative staphylococcus species (CNS) from a urine specimen. What should be done next?
do a novobiocin susceptibility test
Which of the following set of results would indicate that a mixed culture may have been used to inoculate these tests?
coagulase +, DNase -, novobiocin R
The identification schema within Bergey's Manual of Determinative Bacteriology are based on
morphological and physiological characteristics
Cell shape, arrangement, presence of flagella, presence of endospores, and appearance of colonies on agar plates are all examples of ________ characteristics that can be helpful in the identification of bacteria
Which test can be used to differentiate a streptococcus pneumoniae from an alpha hemolytic viridans streptococcus?
Which of the following is inoculated to test for the presence of coagulase enzyme?
Please choose the statement that explains why patient specimens have to be plated and cultured using differential and selective media for laboratory diagnosis of staphylococcal infections
staphylococcus grows in the areas of the body that are highly populated with normal flora, so these media inhibit other microorganisms so that it is easier to find the staphylococci
Please select the description below that correctly represents the most serious pathogen from the genus streptococcus
group A beta-hemolytic s. pyogenus
Partial lysis of the red blood cells surroundign a bacterial colony indicate that they colony is:
Once an unknown bacterium has been isolated in pure culture, what is the first step in the identification process?
determine the gram stain morphology
What test will differentiate and Enterococcus from a streptococcus?
growth and blackening on bile esculin medium
Which of the following would be most useful for differentiating a colon of staphylococcus from a colony of streptococcus?
Which reagent is used to perform a catalase test?
H2O2 (hydrogen peroxide)
In gel electrophoresis, what is the agarose used for?
making the legal
In the DNA isolation process, ________ is used to break down the protein complexes, and
In the DNA isolation process, how was the DNA stabilized?
the test tube was placed in an ice bath
Any change in the normal nucleotide sequence that codes for an amino acid is called a _______
DNA can be collected on a glass rod in a technique called
Why does DNA flow toward the positive side of the gel chamber?
DNA has a negative charge and is attracted by the positive side
Where would the DNA be located within a eukaryotic cell?
In translation, what would be the correct tRNA anticodon for the codon ACC?
The building blocks (i.e. code letters) for making amino acids are called
In the gel electrophoresis experiment, you determined the ______ of 3 different DNA samples
Using the correct base pairing rules for DNA replication, what would be the complementary strand for the strand TACCGATGC?
In order to prevent the DNA from breaking, the glass rod should be spun
in one direction
What is the process of breaking down large fat globules into smaller fat globules?
In protein synthesis, adenine pairs with ______ and guanine pairs with ________
In the DNA isolation process, detergent was used to
emulsify cellular and nuclear membranes
Which of the following would be the most difficult to destroy?
The process that destroys or removes all microorganisms and microbial forms including bacterial endospores on inanimate object is
The method of removing vegetative microbial life forms from inanimate object is termed
Which of the organisms listed below would be the most difficult to remove or destroy?
An organism that is resistant to a drug in on disk diffusion antimicrobial susceptibility test is:
not affected by the drug an can grow in its presence
Which part of a cell is damage by UV radiation?
An organism that is intermediate in response to a drug in a disk diffusion antimicrobial sensitivity test is:
is moderately inhibited by the drug
______ would destroy endospores
In the Myeller-Hinton Test, what factors influence the size of the zone of inhibition for and antibiotic?
inhibition of growth by and diffusion rate of the antibiotic
The method of removing vegetative life forms from living surface is termed
The two microbial forms most resistant to chemical and physical control measures are _______ or proteinanceous infectious particles, and _______ produced by Bacillus and Clostridium species
prions and endospores
The removal of all life forms from inanimate objects is termed
Select which of the following is a non ionizing form of radiation that is more often used for disinfection purposes
A ________ agent would be used to destroy bacteria on a counter top whereas an ________ agent would be used on skin prior to making an incision
disinfectant , antiseptic
What factors influence the size of the zone of inhibition of an antibiotic?
diffusion rate of the antibiotic and inhibition of growth by the antibiotic
What white blood cells comprise 3-7% of circulating WBCs are phatocytic, and can migrate out into body tissues to differentiate into macrophages?
Which of the antibodies below would be present in the blood of a person with a type B blood?
produce and secrete antibodies
Which white blood cells comprise 20% to 30% of the circulating WBCs and are the cells that function in the body's specific immune system?
________ function in humoral immunity, while _________ function in cell-mediated immunity
b cells, t cells
Which of the antibodies below would be present in the blood of a person with type A blood?
Where are the A, B, and Rh antigens located?
The most numerous WBCs that have multilobed nuclei and are very phagocytic are
The blood cells that function in allergic reactions and inflammation, contain proxidose and lysozyme, and particularly target parasitic worms and fungi are
Which of the antibodies below would be present in the blood of a person with type O blood?
anti-A and anti-B
All of the following are granulocytes except
The least numerous of all white blood cells that release histamine during inflammation and allergic reactions are
Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are called _______ because they have prominent cytoplasmic inclusions that, in a stained blood smear, appear with identifying, characteristic color