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ARRT Radiology: Radiographic Procedures

STUDY
PLAY
Which of the following procedures will best demonstrate the cephalic, basilic, and subclavian veins?

(A) Aortofemoral arteriogram
(B) Upper-limb venogram
(C) Lower-limb venogram
(D) Renal venogram
(B) Upper-limb venogram
In which type of fracture are the splintered ends of bone forced through the skin?

(A) Closed
(B) Compound
(C) Compression
(D) DepressedAnswers and Explanations
(B) Compound
When performing tomography, it is of paramount importance that the radiographer

1. properly apply immobilization.
2. provide adequate radiation protection whenever possible.
3. obtain and check a scout film.

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
The sternoclavicular joints are best demonstrated with the patient PA and

(A) in a slight oblique position, affected side adjacent to the image recorder.
(B) in a slight oblique position, affected side away from the image recorder.
(C) erect and weight-bearing.
(D) erect, with and without weights.
(A) in a slight oblique position, affected side adjacent to the image recorder.
Which of the following articulates with the base of the first metatarsal?

(A) First cuneiform
(B) Third cuneiform
(C) Navicular
(D) Cuboid
(A) First cuneiform
The left sacroiliac joint is positioned perpendicular to the film when the patient is positioned in a

(A) left lateral position.
(B) 25 to 30º LAO position.
(C) 25 to 30º LPO position.
(D) 30 to 40º LPO position.
(B) 25 to 30º LAO position.
The advantages of digital subtraction angiography over film angiography include
1. greater contrast medium sensitivity.
2. immediately available images.
3. increased resolution.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
Which of the following positions will most effectively move the gallbladder away from the vertebrae in the asthenic patient?

(A) LAO
(B) RAO
(C) LPO
(D) Erect
(A) LAO
Which of the following bones participates in the formation of the knee joint?
1. Femur
2. Tibia
3. Patella
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(A) 1 and 2 only
The PA chest radiograph seen in Figure demonstrates
1. rotation.
2. scapulae removed from lung fields.
3. excessively high contrast.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
With the patient positioned as illustrated in Figure 2-18, which of the following structures is best demonstrated?

(A) Patella
(B) Patellofemoral articulation
(C) Intercondyloid fossa
(D) Tibial tuberosity
(C) Intercondyloid fossa
Which of the following skull positions will demonstrate the cranial base, sphenoidal sinuses, atlas, and odontoid process?

(A) AP axial
(B) Lateral
(C) Parietoacanthial
(D) Submentovertical (SMV)
(D) Submentovertical (SMV)
During a gastrointestinal examination, the AP recumbent projection of a stomach of average shape will usually demonstrate

1. anterior and posterior aspects of the stomach.
2. barium-filled fundus.
3. double-contrast body and antral portions.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 2 and 3 only
Which of the following is a radiologic procedure that functions to dilate a stenotic vessel?

(A) Percutaneous nephrolithotomy
(B) Percutaneous angioplasty
(C) Renal arteriography
(D) Surgical nephrostomy
(B) Percutaneous angioplasty
Which of the following techniques would provide a PA projection of the gastroduodenal surfaces of the barium-filled, high and transverse stomach?

(A) Place the patient in a 35 to 40º RAO position.
(B) Place the patient in a lateral position.
(C) Angle the central ray 35 to 45º cephalad.
(D) Angle the central ray 35 to 45º caudad.
(C) Angle the central ray 35 to 45º cephalad.
Which of the following are demonstrated in the oblique position of the cervical spine?
1. Intervertebral foramina
2. Apophyseal joints
3. Intervertebral joints
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(A) 1 only
What should be done if the patient is unable to extend his or her head sufficiently for the acanthioparietal projection (reverse Waters' method)?

1. Place a support behind the patient's shoulders.
2. Angle cephalad.
3. Angle caudad.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
Which of the following is (are) valid criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm?

1. The radius and ulna should be superimposed proximally and distally.
2. The coronoid process and radial head should be superimposed.
3. The radial tuberosity should face anteriorly.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 2 and 3 only
Which of the following statements is (are) correct regarding the parietoacanthial projection (Waters' method) of the skull?

1. The head is rested on the extended chin.
2. The OML is perpendicular to the film.
3. The maxillary antra should be projected above the petrosa.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 1 and 3 only
Patients are instructed to remove all jewelry, hair clips, metal prostheses, coins, and credit cards before entering the room for an examination in
(A) sonography.
(B) computed axial tomography (CAT).
(C) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
(D) nuclear medicine.
(C) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
What should the patient be instructed to remove prior to x-ray examination of the chest?
1. Dentures
2. Earrings
3. Necklaces
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 3 only
"Flattening" of the hemidiaphragms is characteristic of which of the following conditions?
(A) Pneumothorax
(B) Emphysema
(C) Pleural effusion
(D) Pneumonia
(B) Emphysema
An intrathecal injection is associated with which of the following examinations?
(A) IVP
(B) Retrograde pyelogram
(C) Myelogram
(D) Arthrogram
(C) Myelogram
During myelography, contrast medium is introduced into the
(A) subdural space.
(B) subarachnoid space.
(C) epidural space.
(D) epidermal space.
(B) subarachnoid space.
Arthrography requires the use of
1. general anesthesia.
2. sterile technique.
3. fluoroscopy.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 2 and 3 only
Ingestion of barium sulfate is contraindicated in which of the following situations?
1. Suspected perforation of a hollow viscus
2. Suspected large-bowel obstruction
3. Presurgical patients
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
In the lateral projection of the knee, the
1. femoral condyles are superimposed.
2. patellofemoral joint is visualized.
3. knee is flexed about 20 to 30º.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
To obtain an AP projection of the right ilium, the patient's
(A) left side is elevated 40º.
(B) right side is elevated 40º.
(C) left side is elevated 15º.
(D) right side is elevated 15º.
(A) left side is elevated 40º.
Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the carpal scaphoid?
(A) Lateral wrist
(B) Ulnar flexion
(C) Radial flexion
(D) Carpal tunnel
(B) Ulnar flexion
All of the following statements regarding large-bowel radiography are true except

(A) The large bowel must be completely empty prior to examination.
(B) Retained fecal material can simulate pathology.
(C) Single-contrast studies help to demonstrate polyps.
(D) Double-contrast studies help to demonstrate intraluminal lesions.
(C) Single-contrast studies help to demonstrate polyps.
The body habitus characterized by a long and narrow thoracic cavity and low, midline stomach and gallbladder is the
(A) asthenic.
(B) hyposthenic.
(C) sthenic.
(D) hypersthenic.
(A) asthenic.
Posterior displacement of a tibial fracture would be best demonstrated in the
(A) AP projection.
(B) lateral projection.
(C) medial oblique projection.
(D) lateral oblique projection.
(B) lateral projection.
Which of the following examinations require(s) special identification markers in addition to the usual patient name and number, date, and side marker?
1. IVP
2. Tomography
3. Abdominal survey
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
The ridge that marks the bifurcation of the trachea into the right and left primary bronchi is the
(A) root.
(B) hilus.
(C) carina.
(D) epiglottis.
(C) carina.
Peripheral lymphatic vessels are located using
(A) ethiodized oil.
(B) blue dye.
(C) a tiny scalpel.
(D) water-soluble iodinated media.
(B) blue dye.
Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the tarsal navicular free of superimposition?
(A) AP oblique, medial rotation
(B) AP oblique, lateral rotation
(C) Mediolateral
(D) Lateral weight-bearing
(A) AP oblique, medial rotation
Which of the following positions demonstrates all the paranasal sinuses?
(A) Parietoacanthial
(B) PA axial
(C) Lateral
(D) True PA
(C) Lateral
Which of the following examinations require(s) ureteral catheterization?
1. Retrograde pyelogram
2. Cystourethrogram
3. Cystoscopy
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(A) 1 only
What is the position of the gallbladder in an asthenic patient?
(A) Superior and medial
(B) Superior and lateral
(C) Inferior and medial
(D) Inferior and lateral
(C) Inferior and medial
The scapular Y projection of the shoulder demonstrates
1. an oblique projection of the shoulder.
2. anterior or posterior dislocation.
3. a lateral projection of the shoulder.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
What are the positions most commonly employed for a radiographic examination of the sternum?
1. Lateral
2. RAO
3. LAO
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(A) 1 and 2 only
Examples of synovial pivot articulations include the
1. atlantoaxial joint
2. radioulnar joint
3. temporomandibulon joint
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
Which of the following is a major cause of bowel obstruction in children?
(A) Appendicitis
(B) Intussusception
(C) Regional enteritis
(D) Ulcerative colitis
(B) Intussusception
In order to evaluate the interphalangeal joints in the oblique and lateral positions, the fingers
(A) rest on the cassette for immobilization.
(B) must be supported parallel to the film.
(C) are radiographed in natural flexion.
(D) are radiographed in palmar flexion.
(B) must be supported parallel to the film.
Tracheostomy and intubation are effective techniques used to restore breathing when there is (are)
(A) respiratory pathway obstruction above the larynx.
(B) crushed tracheal rings due to trauma.
(C) lower respiratory pathway closure due to inflammation and swelling.
(D) respiratory pathway obstruction below the larynx.
(A) respiratory pathway obstruction above the larynx.
All of the following are mediastinal structures except the
(A) esophagus.
(B) thymus.
(C) heart.
(D) terminal bronchiole.
(D) terminal bronchiole.
Which of the following is most likely to be the correct routine for a radiographic examination of the forearm?
(A) PA and medial oblique
(B) AP and lateral oblique
(C) PA and lateral
(D) AP and lateral
(D) AP and lateral
During chest radiography, the act of inspiration
1. elevates the diaphragm.
2. raises the ribs.
3. depresses the abdominal viscera.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 2 and 3 only
Which of the following statements regarding myelography is (are) correct?

1. Spinal puncture may be performed in the prone or flexed lateral position.
2. Contrast medium distribution is regulated through x-ray tube angulation.
3. The patient's neck must be in extension during Trendelenburg positions.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 1 and 3 only
Which of the following can be used to demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa?

1. Patient PA, knee flexed 40º, central ray directed caudad 40º to the popliteal fossa
2. Patient AP, cassette under flexed knee, central ray directed cephalad to knee, perpendicular to tibia
3. Patient PA, patella parallel to film, heel rotated 5 to 10º lateral, central ray perpendicular to knee joint

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
That portion of a long bone where cartilage has been replaced by bone is known as the
(A) diaphysis.
(B) epiphysis.
(C) metaphysis.
(D) apophysis.
(C) metaphysis.
The true lateral position of the skull uses which of the following principles?

1. Interpupillary line perpendicular to the film
2. MSP perpendicular to the film
3. Infraorbitomeatal line (IOML) parallel to the transverse axis of the film

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 1 and 3 only
All of the following are palpable bony landmarks used in radiography of the pelvis except the
(A) femoral neck.
(B) pubic symphysis.
(C) greater trochanter.
(D) iliac crest.
(A) femoral neck.
Which projection(s) of the abdomen would be used to demonstrate pneumoperitoneum?

1. Right lateral decubitus
2. Left lateral decubitus
3. Upright

(A) 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 2 and 3 only
Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint?

1. Scapular Y projection
2. Inferosuperior axial
3. Transthoracic lateral

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following bony landmarks is in the same transverse plane as the symphysis pubis?

(A) Ischial tuberosity
(B) Most prominent part of the greater trochanter
(C) Anterior superior iliac spine
(D) Anterior inferior iliac spine
(B) Most prominent part of the greater trochanter
Which of the following are demonstrated in the lateral projection of the thoracic spine?
1. Intervertebral spaces
2. Apophyseal joints
3. Intervertebral foramina
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 1 and 3 only
The medial oblique projection of the elbow demonstrates the
1. olecranon process within the olecranon fossa.
2. radial head free of superimposition.
3. coronoid process free of superimposition.

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 1 and 3 only
All of the following statements regarding respiratory structures are true except
(A) The right lung has two lobes.
(B) The uppermost portion of the lung is the apex.
(C) Each lung is enclosed in pleura.
(D) The trachea bifurcates into mainstem bronchi.
(A) The right lung has two lobes.
The pedicle is represented by what part of the "scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine?
(A) Eye
(B) Front foot
(C) Body
(D) Neck
(A) Eye
The AP projection of the sacrum requires that the central ray be directed

1. 15º cephalad.
2. 2 in superior to the pubic symphysis.
3. midline at the level of the lesser trochanter.

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
(A) 1 only
All of the following positions are likely to be employed for both single-contrast and double-contrast examinations of the large bowel except

(A) lateral rectum.
(B) AP axial rectosigmoid.
(C) right and left lateral decubitus abdomen.
(D) RAO and LAO abdomen.
(C) right and left lateral decubitus abdomen.
What is the name of the condition that results in the forward slipping of one vertebra on the one below it?
(A) Spondylitis
(B) Spondylolysis
(C) Spondylolisthesis
(D) Spondylosis
(C) Spondylolisthesis
Which of the following describe(s) the correct placement of mammographic markers?

1. In the mediolateral projection, they are placed along the upper border of the breast.
2. In the craniocaudal projection, they are placed along the lateral aspect of the breast.
3. In the oblique projection, they are placed along the lateral aspect of the breast.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
Which of the following projections of the ankle would best demonstrate the distal tibiofibular joint?
(A) Medial oblique 15 to 20º
(B) Lateral oblique 15 to 20º
(C) Medial oblique 45º
(D) Lateral oblique 45º
(C) Medial oblique 45º
Involuntary motion can be caused by
1. peristalsis.
2. severe pain.
3. heart muscle contraction.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
All of the following may be determined by oral cholecystography except
(A) liver function.
(B) ability of the gallbladder to concentrate bile.
(C) emptying power of the gallbladder.
(D) pancreatic function.
(D) pancreatic function.
When evaluating a PA axial projection of the skull with a 15º caudal angle, the radiographer should see
1. petrous pyramids in the lower third of the orbits.
2. equal distance from the lateral border of the skull to the lateral rim of the orbit bilaterally.
3. symmetrical petrous pyramids.

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following structures is (are) located in the LUQ?
1. Stomach
2. Spleen
3. Cecum
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 1 and 2 only
Which of the following articulations participate(s) in formation of the ankle mortise?
1. Talotibial
2. Talocalcaneal
3. Talofibular
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 3 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
Which of the following is recommended to demonstrate small amounts of air within the peritoneal cavity?
(A) Lateral decubitus, affected side up
(B) Lateral decubitus, affected side down
(C) AP Trendelenburg
(D) AP supine
(A) Lateral decubitus, affected side up
Which of the following tube angle and direction combinations is correct for an axial projection of the clavicle, with the patient in the AP recumbent position on the x-ray table?
(A) 10 to 15º caudad
(B) 10 to 15º cephalad
(C) 25 to 30º cephalad
(D) 25 to 30º caudad
(C) 25 to 30º cephalad
With the patient PA, MSP centered to the grid, the OML forming a 37º angle with the film, and the central ray perpendicular and exiting the acanthion, which of the following is best demonstrated?
(A) Occipital bone
(B) Frontal bone
(C) Facial bones
(D) Basal foramina
(C) Facial bones
Which of the following projection(s) require(s) that the shoulder be placed in internal rotation?
1. AP humerus
2. Lateral forearm
3. Lateral humerus
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 3 only
Which of the following describes correct centering for the lateral position of a barium-filled stomach?

(A) Midway between the vertebrae and the left lateral margin of the abdomen
(B) Midway between the midcoronal plane and the anterior surface of the abdomen
(C) Midway between the midsagittal plane and the right lateral margin of the abdomen
(D) Midway between the midcoronal plane and the posterior surface of the abdomen
(B) Midway between the midcoronal plane and the anterior surface of the abdomen
AP erect left and right bending films of the thoracic and lumbar vertebrae, to include 1 in of the iliac crest, are performed to demonstrate
(A) spondylolisthesis.
(B) subluxation.
(C) scoliosis.
(D) arthritis.
(C) scoliosis.
Which of the following is a condition in which an occluded blood vessel stops blood flow to a portion of the lungs?
(A) Pneumothorax
(B) Atelectasis
(C) Pulmonary embolism
(D) Hypoxia
(C) Pulmonary embolism
Which of the following sinus groups is demonstrated with the patient positioned as for a parietoacanthial projection (Waters' method) and the central ray directed through the patient's open mouth?
(A) Frontal
(B) Ethmoidal
(C) Maxillary
(D) Sphenoidal
(D) Sphenoidal
During atrial systole, blood flows into the right ventricle by way of what valve?
(A) Pulmonary semilunar
(B) Aortic
(C) Mitral
(D) Tricuspid
(D) Tricuspid
What instructions might a patient be given following an upper GI examination?
1. Drink plenty of fluids.
2. Take a mild laxative.
3. Increase dietary fiber.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
With the patient in the PA position and the OML and central ray perpendicular to the film, the resulting radiograph will demonstrate the petrous pyramids
(A) below the orbits.
(B) in the lower one-third of the orbits.
(C) completely within the orbits.
(D) above the orbits.
(C) completely within the orbits.
The ileocecal valve is normally located in which of the following body regions?
(A) Right iliac
(B) Left iliac
(C) Right lumbar
(D) Hypogastric
(A) Right iliac
The four major arteries supplying the brain include the
1. brachiocephalic artery.
2. common carotid arteries.
3. vertebral arteries.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 2 and 3 only
During intravenous (IV) urography, the prone position is generally recommended to demonstrate
1. filling of obstructed ureters.
2. the renal pelvis.
3. the superior calyces.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
The sigmoid colon is located in the
(A) left upper quadrant (LUQ).
(B) left lower quadrant (LLQ).
(C) right upper quadrant (RUQ).
(D) right lower quadrant (RLQ).
(B) left lower quadrant (LLQ).
Which of the following projections is most likely to demonstrate the carpal pisiform free of superimposition?
(A) Radial flexion
(B) Ulnar flexion
(C) AP oblique
(D) AP 6.
(C) AP oblique
The uppermost portion of the iliac crest is at approximately the same level as the
(A) costal margin.
(B) umbilicus.
(C) xiphoid tip.
(D) fourth lumbar vertebra.
(D) fourth lumbar vertebra.
Which of the following positions would be obtained with the patient lying prone recumbent on the radiographic table, and the central ray directed horizontally to the iliac crest?
(A) Ventral decubitus position
(B) Dorsal decubitus position
(C) Left lateral decubitus position
(D) Right lateral decubitus position
(A) Ventral decubitus position
Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the left axillary portion of the ribs?
(A) Left lateral
(B) PA
(C) LPO
(D) RPO
(C) LPO
The inhalation of liquid or solid particles into the nose, throat, or lungs is referred to as
(A) asphyxia
(B) aspiration
(C) atelectasis
(D) asystole
(B) aspiration
In the lateral projection of the scapula, the
1. vertebral and axillary borders are superimposed.
2. acromion and coracoid processes are superimposed.
3. patient may be examined in the erect position.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 1 and 3 only
Which of the following positions will demonstrate the right axillary ribs?
1. RAO
2. LAO
3. RPO
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 2 and 3 only
Inspiration and expiration projections of the chest may be performed to demonstrate
1. pneumothorax.
2. foreign body.
3. atelectasis.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
To best visualize the lower ribs, the exposure should be made
(A) on normal inspiration.
(B) on inspiration, second breath.
(C) on expiration.
(D) during shallow breathing.
(C) on expiration.
To demonstrate the entire circumference of the radial head, exposure(s) must be made with the

1. epicondyles perpendicular to the cassette.
2. hand pronated and supinated as much as possible.
3. hand lateral and in internal rotation.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
The plane that passes vertically through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior halves, is termed the
(A) median sagittal plane.
(B) midcoronal plane.
(C) sagittal plane.
(D) transverse plane.
(B) midcoronal plane.
In which projection of the foot are the sinus tarsi, cuboid, and tuberosity of the fifth metatarsal best demonstrated?
(A) Lateral oblique foot
(B) Medial oblique foot
(C) Lateral foot
(D) Weight-bearing foot
(B) Medial oblique foot
The contrast media of choice for use in myelography are
(A) ionic non-water-soluble.
(B) ionic water-soluble.
(C) nonionic water-soluble.
(D) gas.
(C) nonionic water-soluble.
A patient is usually required to drink barium sulfate suspension in order to demonstrate which of the following structures?
1. Esophagus
2. Pylorus
3. Ilium
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
The stomach of an asthenic patient is most likely to be located
(A) high, transverse, and lateral.
(B) low, transverse, and lateral.
(C) high, vertical, and toward the midline.
(D) low, vertical, and toward the midline.
(D) low, vertical, and toward the midline
What portion of the humerus articulates with the ulna to help form the elbow joint?
(A) Semilunar / trochlear notch
(B) Radial head
(C) Capitulum
(D) Trochlea
(D) Trochlea
Which of the following precaution(s) should be observed when radiographing a patient who has sustained a traumatic injury to the hip?

1. When a fracture is suspected, manipulation of the affected extremity should be performed by a physician.
2. The AP axiolateral projection should be avoided.
3. To evaluate the entire region, the pelvis is typically included in the initial examination.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(B) 1 and 3 only
Fluoroscopic imaging of the ileocecal valve is generally part of a(n)
(A) esophagram.
(B) upper GI series.
(C) small-bowel series.
(D) ERCP.
(C) small-bowel series.
Which of the following would be the best choice for a right shoulder exam to rule out fracture?
(A) Internal and external rotation
(B) AP and tangential
(C) AP and AP axial
(D) AP and scapular Y
(D) AP and scapular Y
T-tube cholangiography is performed
(A) preoperatively.
(B) during surgery.
(C) postoperatively.
(D) with a Chiba needle.
(C) postoperatively.
At what level do the carotid arteries bifurcate?
(A) Foramen magnum
(B) Trachea
(C) Pharynx
(D) C4
(D) C4
The fifth metacarpal is located on which aspect of the hand?
(A) Medial
(B) Lateral
(C) Ulnar
(D) Volar
(A) Medial
Which of the following vertebral groups form(s) lordotic curve(s)?
1. Cervical
2. Thoracic
3. Lumbar
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
In the posterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the central ray should be directed
(A) parallel to C4.
(B) perpendicular to C4.
(C) 15º cephalad to C4.
(D) 15º caudad to C4.
(C) 15º cephalad to C4.
Examination of the pars petrosae in the posterior profile position (Stenvers method) requires
1. the use of the IOML.
2. the MSP to be rotated 45º.
3. that the head rest on the forehead, nose, and chin.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
Which of the following is (are) required for a lateral projection of the skull?

1. The IOML is parallel to the film.
2. The MSP is perpendicular to the film.
3. The central ray enters 2 in superior to the external auditory meatus (EAM).

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(B) 1 and 3 only
Which of the following conditions is often the result of ureteral obstruction or stricture?
(A) Pyelonephrosis
(B) Nephroptosis
(C) Hydronephrosis
(D) Cystourethritis
(C) Hydronephrosis
In a lateral projection of the nasal bones, the central ray is directed

(A) 1/2 in posterior to the anterior nasal spine.
(B) 3/4 in posterior to the glabella.
(C) 3/4 in distal to the nasion.
(D) 1/2 in anterior to the EAM.
(C) 3/4 in distal to the nasion.
Which of the following positions is essential in radiography of the paranasal sinuses?
(A) Erect
(B) Recumbent
(C) Oblique
(D) Trendelenburg
(A) Erect
Which of the following radiologic examinations can demonstrate ureteral reflux?
(A) Intravenous urogram
(B) Retrograde pyelogram
(C) Voiding cystourethrogram
(D) Nephrotomogram
(C) Voiding cystourethrogram
Which of the following is (are) recommended when positioning the patient for a lateral projection of the chest?

1. The patient should be examined upright.
2. The shoulders should be depressed.
3. The shoulders should be rolled forward.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(A) 1 only
In myelography, the contrast medium is generally injected into the
(A) cisterna magna.
(B) individual intervertebral disks.
(C) subarachnoid space between the first and second lumbar vertebrae.
(D) subarachnoid space between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae.
(D) subarachnoid space between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae.
Which of the following will best demonstrate acromioclavicular separation?
(A) AP recumbent, affected shoulder
(B) AP recumbent, both shoulders
(C) AP erect, affected shoulder
(D) AP erect, both shoulders
(D) AP erect, both shoulders
Which of the following is a functional study used to demonstrate the degree of AP motion present in the cervical spine?
(A) Open-mouth projection
(B) Moving mandible AP
(C) Flexion and extension laterals
(D) Right and left bending AP
(C) Flexion and extension laterals
The two palpable bony landmarks that are generally used for accurate localization of the hip are the

(A) anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and symphysis pubis.
(B) iliac crest and greater trochanter.
(C) symphysis pubis and greater trochanter.
(D) iliac crest and symphysis pubis.
(A) anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and symphysis pubis.
Which of the following structures is (are) located in the right lower quadrant (RLQ)?
1. Gallbladder
2. Hepatic flexure
3. Cecum
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 3 only
Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding lower-extremity venography?

1. The patient is often examined in the semierect position.
2. Contrast medium is injected through a vein in the foot.
3. Filming begins at the hip and proceeds inferiorly.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
A lateral projection of the hand in extension is often recommended to evaluate
1. a fracture.
2. a foreign body.
3. soft tissue.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
Which of the following radiologic procedures requires that a contrast medium be injected into the renal pelvis via a catheter placed within the ureter?
(A) Nephrotomography
(B) Retrograde urography
(C) Cystourethrography
(D) IV urography
(B) Retrograde urography
Which of the following equipment is necessary for ERCP?

1. A fluoroscopic unit with spot film and tilt table capabilities
2. A fiberoptic endoscope
3. Polyethylene catheters

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
Operative cholangiography may be performed to

1. visualize biliary stones or a neoplasm.
2. determine function of the hepatopancreatic ampulla.
3. examine the patency of the biliary tract.

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
Knee arthrography may be performed to demonstrate a
1. torn meniscus.
2. Baker's cyst.
3. torn rotator cuff.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(A) 1 and 2 only
What process is best seen using a perpendicular CR with the elbow in acute flexion and with the posterior aspect of the humerus adjacent to the image recorder?
(A) Coracoid
(B) Coronoid
(C) Olecranon
(D) Glenoid
(C) Olecranon
Which of the following interventional procedures can be used to increase the diameter of a stenosed vessel?

1. percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA)
2. stent placement
3. peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC line)

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
To make the patient as comfortable as possible during a single-contrast barium enema (BE), the radiographer should

1. instruct the patient to relax the abdominal muscles to prevent intraabdominal pressure.
2. instruct the patient to concentrate on breathing deeply to reduce colonic spasm.
3. prepare a warm barium suspension (98 to 105ºF) to aid in retention.

(A) 2 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
Which projection of the foot will best demonstrate the longitudinal arch?
(A) Mediolateral
(B) Lateromedial
(C) Lateral weight-bearing
(D) 30º medial oblique
(C) Lateral weight-bearing
In which of the following projections is the talofibular joint best demonstrated?
(A) AP
(B) Lateral oblique
(C) Medial oblique
(D) Lateral
(C) Medial oblique
Which of the following barium-filled anatomic structures is best demonstrated in the LAO position?
(A) Hepatic flexure
(B) Splenic flexure
(C) Sigmoid colon
(D) Ileocecal valve
(B) Splenic flexure
Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) usually involves

1. cannulation of the hepatopancreatic ampulla.
2. introduction of contrast medium into the common bile duct.
3. introduction of barium directly into the duodenum.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
Movement of a part toward the midline of the body is termed
(A) eversion.
(B) inversion.
(C) abduction.
(D) adduction.
(D) adduction.
In the posterior profile projection (Stenvers method) of the petrous pyramids, the

1. central ray is directed 12º cephalad.
2. MSP is 45º to the film.
3. head rests on the zygoma, nose, and chin.

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(A) 1 and 2 only
When the patient is recumbent and the central ray is directed horizontally, the patient is said to be in the
(A) Trendelenburg position.
(B) Fowler's position.
(C) decubitus position.
(D) Sims position.
(C) decubitus position.
Which of the following is located at the interspace between the fourth and fifth thoracic vertebrae?
(A) Manubrium
(B) Jugular notch
(C) Sternal angle
(D) Xiphoid process
(C) Sternal angle
In the lateral projection of the knee, the central ray is angled 5º cephalad in order to prevent superimposition of which of the following structures on the joint space?
(A) Lateral femoral condyle
(B) Medial femoral condyle
(C) Patella
(D) Tibial eminence
(B) Medial femoral condyle
The manubrial notch is at approximately the same level as the
(A) fifth thoracic vertebra.
(B) T2-3 interspace.
(C) T4-5 interspace.
(D) costal margin.
(B) T2-3 interspace.
The apophyseal articulations of the thoracic spine are demonstrated with the
(A) coronal plane 45º to the film.
(B) midsagittal plane 45º to the film.
(C) coronal plane 70º to the film.
(D) midsagittal plane 70º to the film.
(C) coronal plane 70º to the film.
To demonstrate esophageal varices, the patient must be examined in
(A) the recumbent position.
(B) the erect position.
(C) the anatomic position.
(D) Fowler's position.
(A) the recumbent position.
With which of the following does the trapezium articulate?
(A) Fifth metacarpal
(B) First metacarpal
(C) Distal radius
(D) Distal ulna
(B) First metacarpal
The short, thick processes that project posteriorly from the vertebral body are the
(A) transverse processes.
(B) vertebral arches.
(C) laminae.
(D) pedicles.
(D) pedicles.
Which of the following is recommended in order to better demonstrate the tarso-metatarsal joints in the dorsoplantar projection of the foot?

(A) Invert the foot
(B) Evert the foot
(C) Angle the central ray 10º posteriorly
(D) Angle the central ray 10º anteriorly
(C) Angle the central ray 10º posteriorly
The AP axial projection, or "frog leg" position, of the femoral neck places the patient in a supine position with the affected thigh
(A) adducted 25º from the horizontal.
(B) abducted 25º from the vertical.
(C) adducted 40º from the horizontal.
(D) abducted 40º from the vertical.
(D) abducted 40º from the vertical.
Which of the following is (are) located on the posterior aspect of the femur?
1. Intercondyloid fossa
2. Intertrochanteric crest
3. Intertubercular groove
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
Place the following anatomic structures in order from anterior to posterior:
1. Trachea
2. Apex of heart
3. Esophagus
(A) Trachea, esophagus, apex of heart
(B) Esophagus, trachea, apex of heart
(C) Apex of heart, trachea, esophagus
(D) Apex of heart, esophagus, trachea
(C) Apex of heart, trachea, esophagus
The usual patient preparation for an upper GI series is
(A) clear fluids 8 h prior to exam.
(B) NPO after midnight.
(C) enemas until clear before exam.
(D) light breakfast the day of the exam.
(B) NPO after midnight.
The tissue that occupies the central cavity within the shaft of a long bone in an adult is
(A) red marrow.
(B) yellow marrow.
(C) cortical tissue.
(D) cancellous tissue.
(B) yellow marrow.
In order to better demonstrate the mandibular rami in the PA position, the

(A) skull is obliqued toward the affected side.
(B) skull is obliqued away from the affected side.
(C) central ray is angled cephalad.
(D) central ray is angled caudad.
(C) central ray is angled cephalad.
Which of the following are characteristics of the hypersthenic body type?
1. Short, wide, transverse heart
2. High and peripheral large bowel
3. Diaphragm positioned low
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(A) 1 and 2 only
Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in the AP projection of the cervical spine?
1. Intervertebral disk spaces
2. C3-7 cervical bodies
3. Apophyseal joints
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the left apophyseal articulations of the lumbar vertebrae?
(A) LPO
(B) RPO
(C) Left lateral
(D) PA
(A) LPO
Double-contrast examinations of the stomach or large bowel are performed to better visualize the
(A) position of the organ.
(B) size and shape of the organ.
(C) diverticula.
(D) gastric or bowel mucosa.
(D) gastric or bowel mucosa.
Which of the following articulations may be described as diarthrotic?
1. Knee
2. Intervertebral joints
3. Temporomandibular joint (TMJ)
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 1 and 3 only
Which of the following positions is required in order to demonstrate small amounts of fluid in the pleural cavity?

(A) Lateral decubitus, affected side up
(B) Lateral decubitus, affected side down
(C) AP Trendelenburg
(D) AP supine
(B) Lateral decubitus, affected side down
When the erect position is requested as part of an IVP, it is used to demonstrate
(A) the adrenal glands.
(B) the renal surfaces.
(C) kidney mobility.
(D) the bladder neck.
(C) kidney mobility.
Which of the following projections of the elbow should demonstrate the coronoid process free of superimposition and the olecranon process within the olecranon fossa?
(A) AP
(B) Lateral
(C) Medial oblique
(D) Lateral oblique
(C) Medial oblique
Blowout fractures of the orbit are best demonstrated using the
(A) lateral projection of the facial bones.
(B) parietoacanthial projection (Waters' method).
(C) posteroanterior projection with a 15º caudal angle.
(D) Sweet's localization method.
(B) parietoacanthial projection (Waters' method).
Which of the following examinations involves the introduction of a radiopaque contrast medium through a uterine cannula?
(A) Retrograde pyelogram
(B) Voiding cystourethrogram
(C) Hysterosalpingogram
(D) Myelogram
(C) Hysterosalpingogram
Which of the following statements is (are) correct with respect to evaluation criteria for a PA projection of the chest for lungs?

1. The sternoclavicular joints should be symmetrical.
2. The sternum is seen lateral without rotation.
3. Ten anterior ribs are demonstrated above the diaphragm.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(A) 1 only
Which of the following positions will demonstrate the lumbosacral apophyseal articulation?
(A) AP
(B) Lateral
(C) 30º RPO
(D) 45º LPO
(C) 30º RPO
Angulation of the central ray may be required

1. to avoid superimposition of overlying structures.
2. to avoid foreshortening or self-superimposition.
3. in order to project through certain articulations.

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
Shoulder arthrography may be performed to evaluate
(A) humeral dislocation.
(B) complete or incomplete rotator cuff tears.
(C) osteoarthritis.
(D) acromioclavicular joint separation.
(B) complete or incomplete rotator cuff tears.
In the lateral projection of the ankle, the
1. talotibial joint is visualized.
2. talofibular joint is visualized.
3. tibia and fibula are superimposed.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 1 and 3 only
What should you do if you discover while taking the patient history that a patient scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram (IVP) takes Glucophage (metformin hydrochloride) daily?

1. Proceed with the exam.
2. Reschedule the exam until the patient has been off Glucophage for 48h.
3. Instruct the patient to withhold the Glucophage for 48 h after the exam.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 1 and 3 only
Which of the following are part of the bony thorax?
1. 12 thoracic vertebrae
2. Scapulae
3. 24 ribs
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 1 and 3 only
In order to demonstrate a profile view of the glenoid fossa, the patient is AP recumbent and obliqued 45º
(A) toward the affected side.
(B) away from the affected side.
(C) with the arm at the side in the anatomic position.
(D) with the arm in external rotation.
(A) toward the affected side.
Which of the following women is likely to have the most homogeneous, glandular breast tissue?
(A) A postpubertal adolescent
(B) A 20 year old with one previous pregnancy
(C) A menopausal woman
(D) A postmenopausal 65 year old
(A) A postpubertal adolescent
Which type of articulation is evaluated in arthrography?
(A) Synarthrodial
(B) Diarthrodial
(C) Amphiarthrodial
(D) Cartilaginous
(B) Diarthrodial
Which of the following articulate(s) with the bases of the metatarsals?

1. The heads of the first row of phalanges
2. The cuboid
3. The cuneiforms

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 2 and 3 only
Standard radiographic protocols may be reduced to include two views, at right angles to each other, in which of the following situations?

(A) Barium examinations
(B) Spine radiography
(C) Skull radiography
(D) Emergency and trauma radiography
(D) Emergency and trauma radiography
Which of the following is (are) effective in reducing breast exposure during scoliosis examinations?

1. Use of a high-speed imaging system
2. Use of breast shields
3. Use of compensating filtration

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
A flat and upright abdomen is requested on an acutely ill patient, to demonstrate the presence of air-fluid levels. Because of the patient's condition, the x-ray table can be tilted upright only 70º (rather than the desired 90º). How should the central ray be directed?

(A) Perpendicular to the film
(B) Parallel to the floor
(C) 20º caudad
(D) 20º cephalad
(B) Parallel to the floor
Prior to the start of an IV urogram, which of the following procedures should be carried out?

1. Have patient empty the bladder.
2. Review the patient's allergy history.
3. Check the patient's creatinine level.

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
What angle is formed by the median sagittal plane and the film in the parietoorbital projection (Rhese method) of the optic canal?
(A) 90º
(B) 37º
(C) 53º
(D) 45º
(C) 53º
During a double-contrast BE, which of the following positions would afford the best double-contrast visualization of both colic flexures?
(A) LAO and RPO
(B) Lateral
(C) Left lateral decubitus
(D) AP or PA erect
(D) AP or PA erect
Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely to lodge in the
(A) right main bronchus.
(B) left main bronchus.
(C) esophagus.
(D) proximal stomach.
(A) right main bronchus.
The contraction and expansion of arterial walls in accordance with forceful contraction and relaxation of the heart is called
(A) hypertension.
(B) elasticity.
(C) pulse.
(D) pressure.
(C) pulse.
Which of the following devices should not be removed before positioning for a radiograph?

1. A ring when performing hand radiography
2. An antishock garment
3. A pneumatic splint

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 2 and 3
Which of the following fracture classifications describes a small bony fragment pulled from a bony process?
(A) Avulsion fracture
(B) Torus fracture
(C) Comminuted fracture
(D) Compound fracture
(A) Avulsion fracture
Which of the following would best demonstrate arthritic changes in the knees?
(A) AP recumbent
(B) Lateral recumbent
(C) AP erect
(D) Medial oblique
(C) AP erect
The cross-table or axiolateral projection of the hip requires the cassette to be placed

1. in contact with the lateral surface of the body, with the top edge slightly above the iliac crest.
2. in a vertical position and exactly perpendicular to the long axis of the femoral neck.
3. just above the iliac crest and adjacent to the lateral surface of the affected hip.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 1 and 3 only
Which of the following is demonstrated in a 25º RPO position with the central ray entering 1 in medial to the elevated ASIS?
(A) Left sacroiliac joint
(B) Right sacroiliac joint
(C) Left ilium
(D) Right ilium
(A) Left sacroiliac joint
Which of the following is (are) associated with a Colles' fracture?

1. Transverse fracture of the radial head
2. Chip fracture of the ulnar styloid
3. Posterior or backward displacement

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 2 and 3 only
Mammography of the augmented breast is best accomplished using
(A) the Cleopatra method.
(B) the Eklund method.
(C) magnification films.
(D) the cleavage view.
(B) the Eklund method.
Which of the following criteria is (are) required for visualization of the greater tubercle in profile?
1. Epicondyles parallel to the film
2. Arm in external rotation
3. Humerus in AP position
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the proximal tibiofibular articulation?
(A) AP
(B) 90º mediolateral
(C) 45º internal rotation
(D) 45º external rotation
(C) 45º internal rotation
Which of the following projections or positions will best demonstrate subacromial or subcoracoid dislocation?
(A) Tangential
(B) AP axial
(C) Transthoracic lateral
(D) PA oblique scapular Y
(D) PA oblique scapular Y
The coronoid process should be visualized in profile in which of the following positions?
(A) Scapular Y
(B) AP scapula
(C) Medial oblique elbow
(D) Lateral oblique elbow
(C) Medial oblique elbow
In the posterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the intervertebral foramina that are best seen are those
(A) nearest the film.
(B) furthest from the film.
(C) seen medially.
(D) seen inferiorly.
(B) furthest from the film.
For the AP projection of the scapula, the

1. patient's arm is abducted at right angles to the body.
2. patient's elbow is flexed with the hand supinated.
3. exposure is made during quiet breathing.

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following positions is used to demonstrate vertical patellar fractures and the patellofemoral articulation?
(A) AP knee
(B) Lateral knee
(C) Tangential patella
(D) "Tunnel" view
(C) Tangential patella
The best way to control voluntary motion is
(A) immobilization of the part.
(B) careful explanation of the procedure.
(C) short exposure time.
(D) physical restraint.
(B) careful explanation of the procedure.
In the AP projection of the ankle, the

1. plantar surface of the foot is vertical.
2. fibula projects more distally than the tibia.
3. calcaneus is well visualized.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
With which of the following is zonography associated?

1. Thick tomographic cuts
2. Long exposure amplitude
3. Less blurring than with pluridirectional tomography because a narrow exposure angle is used

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
For which of the following conditions is operative cholangiography a useful tool?
1. Biliary tract calculi
2. Patency of the biliary ducts
3. Function of the sphincter of Oddi
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following statements regarding the male pelvis is (are) true?

1. The angle formed by the pubic arch is less than that of the female.
2. The pelvic outlet is wider than that of the female.
3. The ischial tuberosities are further apart.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(A) 1 only
AP stress studies of the ankle may be performed

1. to demonstrate fractures of the distal tibia and fibula.
2. following inversion or eversion injuries.
3. to demonstrate a ligament tear.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 2 and 3 only
With the patient's head in a PA position and the central ray directed 20º cephalad, which part of the mandible will be best visualized?
(A) Symphysis
(B) Rami
(C) Body
(D) Angle
(B) Rami
In order to demonstrate the first two cervical vertebrae in the AP projection, the patient is positioned so that

(A) the glabellomeatal line is vertical.
(B) the acanthiomeatal line is vertical.
(C) a line between the mentum and the mastoid tip is vertical.
(D) a line between the maxillary occlusal plane and the mastoid tip is vertical.
(D) a line between the maxillary occlusal plane and the mastoid tip is vertical.
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events when performing a double-contrast upper GI series?

(A) Patient is given gas-producing substance, then given a small amount of high-density barium, then placed recumbent.
(B) Patient is placed recumbent, given a small amount of high-density barium, then given a gas-producing substance.
(C) Patient is given a gas-producing substance, placed recumbent, then given a small amount of high-density barium.
(D) Patient is given a small amount of high-density barium, placed recumbent, then given a gas-producing substance.
(A) Patient is given gas-producing substance, then given a small amount of high-density barium, then placed recumbent.
Following the ingestion of a fatty meal, what hormone is secreted by the duodenal mucosa to stimulate contraction of the gallbladder?
(A) Insulin
(B) Cholecystokinin
(C) Adrenocorticotropic hormone
(D) Gastrin
(B) Cholecystokinin
Indications for a myelographic cervical puncture include

1. demonstration of the upper level of a spinal block.
2. suspected mass lesion in the upper cervical canal.
3. failure of lumbar puncture.

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(B) 1 and 3 only
To better demonstrate the ribs below the diaphragm,

1. suspend respiration at the end of full exhalation.
2. suspend respiration at the end of deep inhalation.
3. perform the exam in the recumbent position.

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
All of the following statements regarding an exact PA projection of the skull, with the central ray perpendicular to the film, are true except

(A) The orbitomeatal line is perpendicular to the film.
(B) The petrous pyramids fill the orbits.
(C) The midsagittal plane (MSP) is parallel to the film.
(D) The central ray exits at the nasion.
(C) The midsagittal plane (MSP) is parallel to the film
Lateral deviation of the nasal septum may be best demonstrated in the
(A) lateral projection.
(B) PA axial (Caldwell method) projection.
(C) parietoacanthial (Waters' method) projection.
(D) AP axial (Grashey / Towne method) projection.
(C) parietoacanthial (Waters' method) projection.
For the average patient, the central ray for a lateral projection of a barium-filled stomach should enter

(A) midway between the midcoronal line and the anterior abdominal surface.
(B) midway between the vertebral column and the lateral border of the abdomen.
(C) at the midcoronal line at the level of the iliac crest.
(D) perpendicular to the level of L2.
(A) midway between the midcoronal line and the anterior abdominal surface.
Which of the following criteria are used to evaluate a PA projection of the chest?

1. Ten posterior ribs should be visualized.
2. Sternoclavicular joints should be symmetrical.
3. The scapulae should be lateral to the lung fields.

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following positions / projections of the skull will result in the most shape distortion? (A) 0º PA
(B) 23º Caldwell
(C) 37º Towne / Grashey
(D) 25º Haas
(C) 37º Towne / Grashey
Which of the following will best demonstrate the size and shape of the liver and kidneys?
(A) Lateral abdomen
(B) AP abdomen
(C) Dorsal decubitus abdomen
(D) Ventral decubitus abdomen
(B) AP abdomen
The junction of the transverse colon and the descending colon forms the
(A) hepatic flexure.
(B) splenic flexure.
(C) transverse flexure.
(D) sigmoid flexure.
(B) splenic flexure.
The axiolateral position (Law method) of examining the mastoids uses which of the following?
1. OML
2. MSP parallel to the tabletop
3. 15º caudad angulation
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
When modifying the PA axial projection of the skull to demonstrate superior orbital fissures, the central ray is directed
(A) 20 to 25º caudad.
(B) 20 to 25º cephalad.
(C) 30 to 35º caudad.
(D) 30 to 35º cephalad.
(A) 20 to 25º caudad.
A "blowout" fracture is usually related to which of the following structures?
(A) Foot
(B) Elbow
(C) Orbit
(D) Pelvis
(C) Orbit
Which of the following projections of the calcaneus is obtained with the leg extended, the plantar surface of the foot vertical and perpendicular to the film, and the central ray directed 40º caudad?
(A) Axial plantodorsal projection
(B) Axial dorsoplantar projection
(C) Lateral projection
(D) Weight-bearing lateral projection
(B) Axial dorsoplantar projection
Which of the following structures is (are) most likely to be demonstrated in a right lateral decubitus position of a double-contrast BE?

1. Lateral wall of the descending colon
2. Medial wall of the ascending colon
3. Lateral wall of the ascending colon

(A) 1 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
During GI radiography, the position of the stomach may vary depending on
1. respiratory phase.
2. body habitus.
3. patient position.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
The term that refers to parts closer to the source or beginning is
(A) cephalad.
(B) caudad.
(C) proximal.
(D) medial.
(C) proximal.
Which of the following will separate the radial head, neck, and tuberosity from superimposition on the ulna?
(A) AP
(B) Lateral
(C) Medial oblique
(D) Lateral oblique
(D) Lateral oblique
All the following positions may be used to demonstrate the sternoclavicular articulations except
(A) weight-bearing.
(B) RAO.
(C) LAO.
(D) PA.
(A) weight-bearing.
Which of the following projections of the abdomen may be used to demonstrate air or fluid levels?
1. Dorsal decubitus
2. Lateral decubitus
3. AP Trendelenburg
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
In the lateral projection of the foot, the

1. plantar surface should be perpendicular to the film.
2. metatarsals are superimposed.
3. talofibular joint should be visualized.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
Which of the following should be performed to rule out subluxation or fracture of the cervical spine?

(A) Oblique cervical spine, seated
(B) AP cervical spine, recumbent
(C) Horizontal beam lateral
(D) Laterals in flexion and extension
(C) Horizontal beam lateral
Which of the following are appropriate techniques for imaging a patient with a possible traumatic spine injury?

1. Instruct the patient to turn slowly and stop if anything hurts.
2. Maneuver the x-ray tube head instead of moving the patient.
3. Call for help and use the log-rolling method to turn the patient.

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 2 and 3 only
Which of the following is an important consideration in order to avoid excessive metacarpophalangeal joint overlap in the oblique projection of the hand?

(A) Oblique the hand no more than 45º.
(B) Use a support sponge for the phalanges.
(C) Clench the fist to bring the carpals closer to the film.
(D) Utilize ulnar flexion.
(A) Oblique the hand no more than 45º.
All of the following statements regarding pediatric positioning are true, except
(A) For radiography of the kidneys, the central ray should be directed midway between the diaphragm and the symphysis pubis.
(B) If a pediatric patient is in respiratory distress, a chest radiograph should be obtained in the AP projection rather than the standard PA projection.
(C) Chest radiography on a neonate should be performed in the supine position.
(D) Radiography of pediatric patients with a myelomeningocele defect should be performed in the supine position.
(D) Radiography of pediatric patients with a myelomeningocele defect should be performed in the supine position.
Which of the following structures should be visualized through the foramen magnum in the AP axial projection (Grashey method) of the skull for occipital bone?
1. Posterior clinoid processes
2. Dorsum sella
3. Posterior arch of C1
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
If the patient's zygomatic arch has been traumatically depressed or the patient has flat cheekbones, the arch may be demonstrated by modifying the SMV projection and rotating the patient's head
(A) 15º toward the side being examined.
(B) 15º away from the side being examined.
(C) 30º toward the side being examined.
(D) 30º away from the side being examined.
(A) 15º toward the side being examined.
In order to demonstrate the pulmonary apices with the patient in the AP position, the

(A) central ray is directed 15 to 20º cephalad.
(B) central ray is directed 15 to 20º caudad.
(C) exposure is made on full exhalation.
(D) patient's shoulders are rolled forward.
(A) central ray is directed 15 to 20º cephalad.
Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the PA axial projection of the paranasal sinuses?

1. The central ray is directed caudally to the OML.
2. The petrous pyramids are projected into the lower third of the orbits.
3. The frontal sinuses are visualized.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
The pars interarticularis is represented by what part of the "scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine?
(A) Eye
(B) Front foot
(C) Body
(D) Neck
(D) Neck
To better demonstrate contrast-filled distal ureters during IV urography, it is helpful to

1. use a 15º AP Trendelenburg position.
2. apply compression to the proximal ureters.
3. apply compression to the distal ureters.

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
(A) 1 only
The structure(s) best demonstrated on an AP axial projection of the skull with the central ray directed 40 to 60º caudally is (are) the

(A) entire foramen magnum and the jugular foramina.
(B) petrous pyramids.
(C) occipital bone.
(D) rotundum foramina.
(A) entire foramen magnum and the jugular foramina.
With a patient in the PA position and the OML perpendicular to the table, a 15 to 20º caudal angulation would place the petrous ridges in the lower third of the orbit. In order to achieve the same result in a baby or a small child, it is necessary for the radiographer to modify the angulation to
(A) 10 to 15º caudal.
(B) 25 to 30º caudal.
(C) 15 to 20º cephalic.
(D) No change in angulation is necessary.
(A) 10 to 15º caudal.
In the AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull, with the central ray directed 30º caudad to the orbitomeatal line (OML) and passing midway between the external auditory meatus, which of the following is best demonstrated?
(A) Occipital bone
(B) Frontal bone
(C) Facial bones
(D) Basal foramina
(A) Occipital bone
The patient positioned for an operative cholangiography is in a
(A) 15 to 20º LPO.
(B) 15 to 20º RPO.
(C) 45º LPO.
(D) 45º RPO.
(B) 15 to 20º RPO.
Hysterosalpingography may be performed for demonstration of

1. uterine tubal patency.
2. mass lesions in the uterine cavity.
3. uterine position.

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
When examining a patient whose elbow is in partial flexion, how should the AP projection be obtained?

1. With humerus parallel to film, central ray perpendicular
2. With forearm parallel to film, central ray perpendicular
3. Through the partially flexed elbow, resting on the olecranon process, central ray perpendicular

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
In which of the following positions / projections will the talocalcaneal joint be visualized?

(A) Dorsoplantar projection of the foot
(B) Plantodorsal projection of the os calcis
(C) Medial oblique position of the foot
(D) Lateral foot
(B) Plantodorsal projection of the os calcis
All of the following bones are associated with condyles except the
(A) femur.
(B) tibia.
(C) fibula.
(D) mandible.
(C) fibula.
Which of the following bones participate in the formation of the acetabulum?
1. Ilium
2. Ischium
3. Pubis
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following sequences correctly describes the path of blood flow as it leaves the left ventricle?

(A) Arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins
(B) Arterioles, arteries, capillaries, veins, venules
(C) Veins, venules, capillaries, arteries, arterioles
(D) Venules, veins, capillaries, arterioles, arteries
(A) Arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins
During lower-limb venography, tourniquets are applied above the knee and ankle to

1. suppress filling of the superficial veins.
2. coerce filling of the deep veins.
3. outline the anterior tibial vein.

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(A) 1 and 2 only
The AP Trendelenburg position is often used during an upper GI examination to demonstrate
(A) the duodenal loop.
(B) filling of the duodenal bulb.
(C) hiatal hernia.
(D) hypertrophic pyloric stenosis.
(C) hiatal hernia.
Which of the following is proximal to the carpal bones?
(A) Distal interphalangeal joints
(B) Proximal interphalangeal joints
(C) Metacarpals
(D) Radial styloid process
(D) Radial styloid process
Deoxygenated blood from the head and thorax is returned to the heart by the
(A) pulmonary artery.
(B) pulmonary veins.
(C) superior vena cava.
(D) thoracic aorta.
(C) superior vena cava.
Which of the following is (are) true regarding radiographic examination of the acromioclavicular joints?

1. The procedure is performed in the erect position.
2. Use of weights can improve demonstration of the joints.
3. The procedure should be avoided if dislocation or separation is suspected.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2
When the patient is unable to assume the upright body position, how should a lateral projection of the sinuses be obtained?
(A) Horizontal beam lateral
(B) Transthoracic lateral
(C) Recumbent RAO or LAO
(D) Recumbent RPO or LPO
(A) Horizontal beam lateral
Which of the following are components of a trimalleolar fracture?
1. Fractured lateral malleolus
2. Fractured medial malleolus
3. Fractured posterior tibia
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
Myelography is a diagnostic examination used to demonstrate

1. extrinsic spinal cord compression resulting from disk herniation.
2. post-traumatic swelling of the spinal cord.
3. internal disk lesions.

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
Which of the following positions will provide an AP projection of the L5-S1 interspace?
(A) Patient AP with 30 to 35º angle cephalad
(B) Patient AP with 30 to 35º angle caudad
(C) Patient AP with 0º angle
(D) Patient lateral, coned to L5
(A) Patient AP with 30 to 35º angle cephalad