84 terms

Test 3

one of the main differences between protozoans and helminths is that protozoans are
_______, whereas helminths are ________
unicellular; multicellular
which of the following is not an organelle used for locomotion by protozoans?
which of the following is a mismatched pair?
a. flagellates; schizogony
b. rhizopods: gametogony
all of the following are possessed by helminths except _____
circulatory system
the three classes of helminth that are parasitic in humans include all of the following except
a. trophozoites
b. sporozoans
which of the following parasites uses more than one host to complete its life cycle?
a. plasmodium falciparum
b. taenia saginata
c. trypanosoma cruzii
7. which of the folling is a mismatched pair?
a. trichomonas vaginalis: fecal - oral route of transmission
match the parasite in column 1 with the pathological effect in column 2
a. plasmodium vivax - red blood cell depletion
b. giardia lamblia - malabsorption
c. schitosoma spp. - organ obstruction
d. hookworm - iron loss
e. trypansoma cruzii - demyelinating panencephalitis
all of the following are possible symptoms of malaria except _____
elevated red blood cell level
which of the following is not associated with cerebral malaria
low mortality
all of the following are matched correctly except
trypanosomiasis: fecal - oral transmission
example of rhizopod parasite is ____
the american form of trypanosomiasis is called _____
Chagas' disease
which of the following diseases is not caused by a nematoad
a. clonorchiasis
b. schistosomiasis
which of the following describes the infectious circuit of ascaris lumbricoides
a. ingestion of infectious eggs -> larval stage -> invasion of intestinal epithelium ->liver -> heart -> lung -> coughed into mouth -> intestinal tract
17.all of the following are examples of diseases caused by trematodes except _____
a. enterobiasis
Schistosomiasis is often treated with ______ to limit severe infections
cestodes are associated with all of the following characteristics except _____
known as roundworm
_____ can reach a length exceeding 10 meters while inhabiting the human jejunum
taenia saginata
unicellular fungi are referred to as _____
asexual reproduction in fungi involves the use of _____
sexual reproduction in fungi involves the use of ______
a. zygospores
b. basidiospores
c. ascospores
fungi that can grow in either the yeast or mold form depending on environmental conditions exhibit _____
which of the following is not an example of an oportunistic fungus of medical significance
sporothrix spp..
which of the following is a correctly matched pair
a. tinea capitis: scalp and eyebrows
b. keratitis: colonization of corneal epithelium
c. vulvovaginitis: candida albicans
all of the following are examples of deep mycoses except
all of the following are characteristics or components of innate immunity except
____ released from injured tissues recruits responding leukocytes to damaged sites
chemotactic factor
the cells of the epidermis contain _____, waterproofing protein that provides strength to the outer layer of skin
which of the following cell types produce mucus in the lower respiratory tract?
goblet cell
tears contain of all the following except ____
which of the following is a mismatched pair?
urine: alkaline
all of the following lysozyme except ____
stomach acid
low pH is associated with all of the following except ______
which of the following is a cellular mechanism that participates in the second line of defense in innate immunity
all of the following are examples of granulocytes except _____
B lymphocytes
differentiate into macrophages at the sites of inflammation
if the bone marrow reserve of neutrophils is depleted during a long lasting infection, then _____
immature neutrophils are exported from the bone marrow, but they are not as effective as mature neutrophils
if a neutrophil response is overstimulated during an infection, all of the following might occur except
elevated blood pressure
during parasitic infection and allergy, the number of circulating _____ increases significantly.
which of the following is a mismatched pair
microglial cells: spleen
which of the following make up the two major cytokine families?
tumor necrosis family
an example of a cytokine that recruits white blood cells to infected tissues is ____
all of the following describe the activity of mast cells except
release peforin and granzyme to kill target cells
dendritic cells located in the skin are referred to as ____-
langerhans cells
which of the following is incorrect regarding natural killer cells
recognize target cells using toll-like receptors
pathogens are internalized by phagocytes through the formation of ____
which of the following is not a trigger of vasodilation?
leukocyte endogenous mediator
examples of acute phase proteins include ______
mannose - binding protein
C - reactive protein
body temperature is regulated by the _____
which of the following is a mismatched pair?
alternative pathway of complement: mannose - binding protein
all three component pathways follow the same sequence once ______ participates in the cascade
which of the following are outcomes of complement activation
1. membrane attack complex
3. inflammation
antiviral proteins are synthesized by neighboring cells but require ____ to become activated
double stranded RNA
the concentration of antibody in the serum generated in response to an infectious pathogen is called the _____
a ____ is an foreign substances that provokes an immune response
which of the following is a mismatched pair?
tolerance: foreign antigens
the b-cell antigen receptor is called a _____
T - cell receptors have _____ of antigen - binding sites in comparison with B - cell receptors
half the number
T lymphocytes mature in the ____
specialized antigen - collecting cells of the gastrointestinal tract are called _____
M cells
which of the following explains T cell homeostasis in the elderly
long lived t cells divide by mitosis in periphery
lymphocytes bearing antigen receptors that have a high degree of affinity for self antigen undergo ______ during B cell development
clonal deletion
long lived lymphocytes that respond more rapidly and effectively on antigen encounter at a later time are known as ____ cells
which of the following is correctly matched?
MHC class I: cytotoxic T cells
cytotoxic T cells: CD8
MHC class II: antigen derived from vesicular compartments
humoral immune response: B cells
the isotype of an antibody is determined by the ____
constant region of the heavy chain
the location on the immunoglobulin that contributes to the unique antigen-binding site is referred to as the ____
hypervariable region
all of the following are examples of chemical interactions used to facilitate the binding of antigen to antibody except
peptide bonds
which of the following is not a function of the immunoglobulin constant region?
binds non-covalently to foreign antigens during infection
____ is the predominant antibody made during a primary immune response, and it consists of ____ antigen binding sites
IgM; ten
which of the following explains why IgM activates complement so effectively?
pentameric IgM has five constant regions available to interact with C1
the movement of antibodies across epithelial barriers is called ____?
when antigen binds to _____ on the surface of mast cells, inflammatory mediators are released, provoking vomiting, coughing, and sneezing
Babies who breast feed are afforded passive immune protection of their gastrointestinal tracts by the presence of ____ in colostrum
_____ protects the mucosal surfaces of the gastrointestinal, respiratory, and genitourinary tracts by inhibiting the adherence of pathogens to host cell surfaces
which of the following accurately describes the morphological appearance of a mast cell after it has been activated
the absence of dark granules in the cytoplasm
____ control antibody synthesis and isotype switching
CD4 T Cells
circulating T lymphocytes that have never before encountered antigen to which they are specific are referred to as _____ cells
naive T
which of the following is a mismatched pair?
CD4 T cells; class I MHC molecules
the production of armed effector T cells is made possible by all of the following except ____
mast cells
cytotoxic T cells use all of the following to destroy target cells with the exception of ____
transforming growth factor - beta
all of the following are consequences of macrophage activation except ____
the release of perforin
all of the following are characteristics of memory cells except ______
once generated they do not undergo cell division
chemicals included in vaccines to enhance their efficacy are called _____