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Exam Study Guide: New Chapters 19-24
Terms in this set (102)
An operon is:
A. a region of DNA consisting of the promoter, operator, and coding sequence for structural proteins.
B. a single molecule of RNA coding for more than one protein.
C. a region of DNA consisting of the promoter and operator sequences needed to regulate one or more structural genes.
D. a region of DNA consisting of the operator and coding sequence for structural proteins.
E. a gene coding for a repressor protein.
For the lactose operon, the CRP-cAMP is a(n):
The process by which a single primary RNA transcript is used to make multiple proteins is called:
A. combinatorial control.
B. alternative splicing.
C. regulatory splicing.
D. polymerization control.
E. translational control.
In humans and other mammals, dosage compensation is achieved by:
A. females randomly inactivating one X chromosome in each cell.
B. females decreasing transcription of both X chromosomes by ½.
C. females eliminating one X chromosome in each cell.
D. females inactivating the paternal X chromosome in each cell.
E. males transcribing double the normal amount of copies of X-chromosome genes.
In RNA editing:
A. spliceosomes change the base sequence of the primary transcript and therefore the protein for which it codes.
B. different enzymes in different cells create different primary RNA transcripts from the same DNA sequence.
C. different spliceosomes in different cells create different RNA sequences from the same primary transcript.
D. enzymes change the base sequence of the primary transcript and therefore the protein for which it codes.
E. a combination of spliceosomes and enzymes creates different primary RNA transcripts from the same DNA sequence.
Gene regulation by siRNA is ____________ in eukaryotes and may have evolved originally as a ____________.
A. rare; way to regulate gene expression
B. rare; defense against viruses
C. rare; defense against mutations that may cause cancer
D. widespread; way to regulate gene expression
E. widespread; defense against viruses
In prokaryotes, inducers are small molecules that:
A. bind to repressors and promote transcription.
B. None of these choices is correct.
C. bind to activators and inhibit transcription.
D. bind to repressors and inhibit transcription.
E. bind to activators and promote transcription.
Gene regulation can occur at which of the following steps in the path from DNA to protein?
A. during transcription from a chromosome and during translation from DNA to RNA
B. during translation from DNA to RNA
C. during transcription from a chromosome
D. after protein synthesis
E. during transcription from a chromosome, during translation from DNA to RNA and after protein synthesis
Epigentic mechanisms of gene regulation ___________ and are ___________.
A. can be inherited by daughter cells; permanent
B. are not inherited by daughter cells; permanent
C. are not inherited by daughter cells; reversible and responsive to environmental change
D. can be inherited by daughter cells; random with respect to the environment
E. can be inherited by daughter cells; often reversible and responsive to environmental change
A. can change over time in response to environmental cues, but this has no effect on gene expression.
B. is fixed; once a histone is modified, it stays that way and the genes with which it is associated are turned on or off permanently.
C. is fixed, but this has no effect on whether genes are expressed.
D. can change over time in response to environmental cues, allowing genes to be turned on or off as needed.
E. is random―sometimes the lysines are modified and sometimes they're not, but the state is independent of the environment or cell type.
Differentiation refers to the process by which:
A. changes in gene expression allow cells to produce the correct proteins at the correct time.
B. cells become progressively more specialized during development.
C. gene regulation determines which proteins are produced in a given cell during development.
D. None of these choices are correct.
E. fertilized eggs undergo multiple rounds of cell division to become embryos.
Nanos _______________ caudal mRNA translation.
B. does not affect
A cell in the epithelium lining the human gut is very different in structure and function from, for example, a white blood cell. How would you describe the genetic basis for this difference?
A. The genes evolve as the body develops the specialized tissues needed for full development.
B. These different cell types contain different sets of genes as a result of modifications during development.
C. Genes are gradually lost as these cell types differentiate into specialized tissues.
D. These different cell types express different sets of genes, although their genomes are identical.
In the ABC model of floral development, A, B, and C stand for the activities of different ____________.
B. transcription factors
C. translational regulators
If you were collecting fish and found that some had extra eyes, which of the genes listed below would you suspect to be the cause of abnormality?
Bicoid ____________ caudal mRNA translation.
C. does not affect
A. All of these choices are correct.
B. are found in a wide variety of animals with bilateral symmetry, from fruit flies to vertebrates.
C. specify the identities of individual body parts or segments during development.
D. are controlled by segment-polarity genes expressed earlier in development.
E. encode transcription factors.
Gehring tested the hypothesis that the Pax6 gene acts as a master regulator of eye development by engineering Drosophila Pax6 genes to be expressed in Drosophila antennae. What happened, and did it support or refute his hypothesis?
A. A compound eye developed on the head; this supports the hypothesis.
B. The antenna developed normally; this falsified the hypothesis.
C. The antenna developed where the eye normally would be; this supports the hypothesis.
D. The antenna developed where the eye would normally be; this falsified the hypothesis.
E. A compound eye developed on the antenna; this supports the hypothesis.
The three germ layers are established:
A. once the cells of the inner cell mass reorganize themselves into the gastrula.
B. once the blastula forms.
C. once the gastrula implants into the uterine wall.
D. once the blastula implants into the uterine wall.
E. once the inner cell mass of the blastula forms.
Stem cells are cells that are capable of:
A. producing an entire organism.
B. differentiating into different cell types.
C. differentiating into any type of cell.
D. producing the three germ layers.
E. differentiating into a limited number of different cell types.
When the conditions of the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium are met: (select all correct choices)
A. gene frequencies in the population change over time.
B. evolution does not occur.
C. gene frequencies in the population do not change over time.
D. none of these occur when conditions of the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium are met.
E. evolution occurs.
B and C
At the genetic level, evolution is:
A. a population change over time.
B. a change in fitness over time.
C. an increase in fitness over time.
D. a change in the frequency of an allele or genotype over time.
E. natural selection.
With few exceptions, we can't use observable traits to measure genetic variation in populations because:
A. we can't identify enough observable traits to be useful, even if they could be measured.
B. observable traits don't vary enough among individuals to measure.
C. Many traits are encoded by large numbers of genes, and observable traits are products of the environment as well as the genome.
D. observable traits are products of the environment as well as the genome.
E. many traits are encoded by large numbers of genes.
____________ refers to a system in which individuals select their mates according to phenotype.
A. Sexual selection
B. Differential mating
C. Random mating
D. Assortative mating
E. All of these
All the alleles present in all individuals in a species are referred to as the ____________ of that species.
A. gene pool
B. allele frequency
E. genotype frequency
Genetic drift is the ____________ in allele frequencies from generation to generation and is especially important in ____________ populations.
A. none of these
B. change due to selection; large
C. change due to selection; small
D. random change; small
E. random change; large
The differential success of alleles is called ____________.
C. genetic drift
The result of migration is to ____________ genetic differences among populations.
Which of the following is NOT a condition of the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
A. All of the conditions listed ARE conditions of the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
B. Random mating
C. No mutation
D. No differences in the survival and reproductive success of individuals
E. No migration
In contrast to positive and negative selection, ____________ acts to maintain two or more alleles in a population.
A. directional selection
B. stabilizing selection
C. disruptive selection
D. balancing selection
A drawback of the biological species concept is that it cannot be applied to:
A. polymorphic species.
B. asexual organisms such as bacteria.
C. All of the answer options are correct.
D. extinct organisms (e.g., fossils).
E. extinct and asexual organisms.
When you use a field guide to identify a species by its appearance, you are applying the ____________.
A. ecological species concept
B. evolutionary species concept
C. morphospecies concept
D. biological species concept
Two species of frog mate in the same pond. One breeds in early summer and one in late summer. This is an example of what kind of reproductive isolation?
A. post-zygotic, ecological separation
B. pre-zygotic, temporal separation
C. post-zygotic, temporal separation
D. pre-zygotic, behavioral isolation
E. pre-zygotic, ecological separation
When taxonomists recognize subspecies, they are identifying:
A. populations with restricted enough gene flow to develop some population-specific traits, but that can still interbreed.
B. populations that are reproductively isolated from one another.
C. populations that will, within a few generations, become separate species as reproductive isolation is nearly complete.
D. populations with extremely restricted gene flow due to allopatric isolation.
E. none of these
____________ is a special case of speciation in which new species form rapidly in response to numerous "open" ecological niches.
B. Adaptive radiation
C. Peripatric speciation
D. Sympatric speciation
E. Allopatric speciation
Horses and donkeys can interbreed, but their offspring (mules) are infertile. This is an example of what kind of reproductive isolating mechanism?
A. post-zygotic, ecological separation
B. pre-zygotic, behavioral isolation
C. pre-zygotic, temporal separation
E. pre-zygotic, ecological separation
A bacteriologist is studying two asexually reproducing strains of E. coli. The two require different amounts of trace minerals for survival; on these grounds, the bacteriologist determines that they are separate species. In making his determination, he is using which species concept?
A. ecological species concept
B. biological species concept
C. none of these
D. evolutionary species concept
E. morphospecies concept
____________ is the process in which two groups of organisms living in the same habitat diverge into separate species.
B. Peripatric speciation
C. Sympatric speciation
D. Allopatric speciation
E. Adaptive radiation
____________ is the process in which two groups of organisms speciate in response to each other and at the same time.
A. Allopatric speciation
B. Sympatric speciation
C. Adaptive radiation
E. Peripatric speciation
In some large groups of plants, including dandelions, oaks, and willows, the biological species concept is complicated because the process of ____________ allows gene flow to occur between good ____________ that can be easily distinguished based on appearance.
A. polyploidy; ring species
B. hybridization; ecological species
C. allopatric speciation; ring species
D. polyploidy; evolutionary species
E. hybridization; morphospecies
With the advent of tools to incorporate molecular data, phylogenetic analysis can be used to:
A. track shipments of endangered species or their products (such as elephant ivory or bushmeat).
B. track the spread of a pathogen, such as a fungus or virus, from place to place.
C. All of the answer options are correct.
D. identify the origin of invasive pest species.
E. reconstruct the evolutionary history of a group of organisms over millions of years.
What is a trace fossil?
A. a small fossil
B. fossil evidence of organisms other than conventional fossils of hard body parts
C. a fossil which is part of a series of fossils that trace the evolution of a group of species
D. a fossil that allows scientists to trace the movement of the fossilized organism
What is the first event in the fossilization process?
A. hardening of sediments in to rock
B. burial of the organism by sediments
C. erosion of soils around the organism
D. conversion of organic tissue to minerals (rock)
How does the fossil record corroborate phylogenetic history?
A. Events in the fossil record occur randomly throughout a phylogenetic tree, so the two are not related to one another.
B. Events that occur early in the fossil record are represented by branching events nearer to the tips of a phylogenetic tree.
C. Fossil record events are too old to be represented on phylogenetic trees, which reconstruct the more recent past.
D. Events that occur early in the fossil record are represented by branching events nearer to the root of a phylogenetic tree.
E. The timing of evolutionary events in the fossil record is not consistent with the branching order of a phylogenetic tree.
How do fossils provide evidence of evolutionary history?
A. Fossils provide an accurate account of the number of species that exist at any particular time.
B. Fossils provide a record of extinct species.
C. Fossils provide complete information on extinct species.
D. Older fossils are an excellent source of DNA from which we can construct molecular phylogenies.
A taxon that includes a single common ancestor and all its descendants is a ____________ group.
In a phylogenetic tree, a node or branching point represents:
A. A node could be any of these, depending on the nature of the phylogenetic tree.
B. the species in the fossil record from which the descendent species diverged.
C. the ancestral species from which all species in the phylogeny arose.
D. the common ancestor from which the descendent species diverged.
E. one of the descendent species in the phylogeny.
The largest mass extinction occurred at the end of the:
____________ was the first hominin to leave Africa and did so around ____________ million years ago.
A. Homo ergaster (H. erectus); 2
B. H. habilis; 1.7
C. Ardipithecus ramidus; 4
D. Australopithecus afarensis; 3.2
E. H. neanderthalensis; 0.6
If the multiregional hypothesis of human origins is correct, modern human populations last shared a common ancestor around two million years ago. If the out-of-Africa hypothesis is correct, we last shared a common ancestor around ____________ years ago.
Humans and chimpanzees last shared a common ancestor around ____________ million years ago, and our genomes now differ by about ____________%.
A. 10-20; 10
B. 5-7; 1
C. 10-20; 1
D. 20-50; 50
E. 5-7; 10
In addition to the shift to bipedalism, what major trend or trends do we see in hominin evolution as we look across our entire fossil record? Select all that apply.
A. increase in tooth size
B. None of the above.
C. significant increase in the difference in size between males and females
D. increase in body size
E. increase in brain size
D and E
Genetic sequence data from mitochondrial and Y chromosome DNA agree that the human family is ____________ and it arose ____________.
A. young; in Europe
B. old; in Europe
C. old; in many regions around the world
D. young; in Africa
E. old; in Africa
The fossil Lucy (Australopithecus afarensis) is significant because, at ____________ years old, hers is the first species to ____________.
A. 20 million; have been fully bipedal
B. 600,000; have homin brow ridges
C. 3.2 million years; be fully bipedal
D. 1.3 million; have hominin brow ridges
E. 1.3 million; migrate out of Africa
Chromatin remodeling refers to the process by which:
A. nucleosomes are repositioned to expose different stretches of DNA to the nuclear environment.
B. methylation occurs in CpG islands.
C. mutations change DNA structure and therefore chromatin structure.
D. DNA strands are "straightened out" to allow access to the proteins that carry out transcription.
E. DNA strands are "unzipped" to allow access to the proteins that carry out transcription.
Combinatorial control refers to the fact that:
A. each gene has a unique combination of several different enhancers.
B. each gene has a unique combination of several enhancers plus several dozen regulatory transcription factors.
C. each gene has a unique combination of thousands of different enhancers.
D. each gene has a unique combination of several regulatory transcription factors, each of which can combine with up to three dozen transcriptional complexes.
E. each gene has its own unique enhancers found nowhere else on that chromosome.
In general, when cytosine bases in CpG islands are methylated:
A. translation is repressed.
B. transcription is active, but slow.
C. translation is active and rapid.
D. transcription is repressed.
E. transcription is active and rapid.
The CRP-cAMP complex binds the lactose operon when:
A. glucose levels are high and cAMP levels are low.
B. glucose levels and cAMP levels are low.
C. None of these choices are correct.
D. glucose levels and cAMP levels are high.
E. glucose levels are low and cAMP levels are high.
Both miRNA and siRNA work in conjunction with:
A. a protein complex called RISC to bind primary RNA transcripts in the cytoplasm.
B. a protein complex called RISC to bind primary RNA transcripts in the nucleus.
C. RNA polymerase to bind primary RNA transcripts in the nucleus.
D. hairpin structures to bind primary RNA transcripts in the cytoplasm.
E. a combination of rRNA and a protein complex called RISC to bind primary RNA transcripts in both the cytoplasm and the nucleus.
Positive and negative transcriptional regulation differ in that:
A. in positive regulation, the absence of a regulatory protein promotes transcription; in negative regulation, the absence of a regulatory protein promotes transcription.
B. in positive regulation, the binding of a regulatory protein to the DNA is necessary for transcription to occur; in negative regulation, no such protein is necessary.
C. None of these choices is correct.
D. in positive regulation, the binding of a regulatory protein to the DNA is necessary for transcription to occur; in negative regulation, such binding prevents transcription.
E. positive regulation requires that a promoter be present; it's not necessary in negative regulation.
X chromosome inactivation is caused by the accumulation of:
A. non-coding RNA produced by the Xist gene, which coats the X chromosome and induces methylation, histone modification, and other changes associated with preventing transcription.
B. proteins produced by the Xist gene; these proteins induce methylation, histone modification, and other changes associated with preventing transcription.
C. coding RNA produced by the Xist gene; this RNA, in addition to coding for Xist proteins, binds to and coats the X chromosome undergoing inactivation and physically prevents it from being transcribed.
D. non-coding RNA produced by the Xist gene, which coats the X chromosome and physically prevents it from being unwound, "unzipped," and transcribed.
E. None of these choices accurately describe the process of X chromosome inactivation.
Small interfering RNA (siRNA) regulates gene expression by:
A. inhibiting translation by binding to RNA transcripts.
B. inhibiting transcription.
C. inhibiting translation by degrading RNA transcripts.
D. inhibiting splicing.
E. inhibiting rRNA synthesis.
A typical gene has ____________ enhancer sequence(s); each enhancer sequence has ____________ regulatory transcription factor(s).
A. one; from 2-10
B. several; several
C. several; one
D. from 10-20; from 2-10
E. one; several
At the molecular level, the "choice" between lytic and lysogenic pathways is determined by:
A. the positive regulatory effects of a large number of bacteriophage proteins produced soon after infection.
B. the positive regulatory effects of a small number of bacteriophage proteins produced soon after infection.
C. the negative regulatory effects of a large number of bacteriophage proteins produced soon after infection.
D. the positive and negative regulatory effects of a small number of bacteriophage proteins produced soon after infection.
E. the negative regulatory effects of a small number of bacteriophage proteins produced soon after infection.
Mature cells are terminally differentiated. What could cause this permanent change? Select all correct answers.
A. epigenetic change
B. changes in chromosome content
C. changes in cell signaling
D. changes in gene expression
A and D
Bicoid protein is a transcription factor that promotes transcription of the hunchback gene. This is an example of:
A. hierarchical control of gene regulation during development.
B. oocyte polarization.
C. maternal developmental effect.
D. translational control of development.
E. translational control of gene expression during development.
Which of the following correctly lists the stages of human development?
A. fertilized egg, blastocyst, gastrula, morula
B. fertilized egg, blastocyst, morula, gastrula
C. fertilized egg, gastrula, morula, blastocyst
D. fertilized egg, morula, blastocyst, gastrula
E. fertilized egg, morula, gastrula, blastocyst
During morula development the divisions are more rapid than in most normal adult cells and the individual cells get progressively smaller. Which stage(s) of the cell cycle are probably truncated (made shorter)?
B. M and S
D. All stages are truncated.
E. G1 and G2
Which of the following correctly orders the sequence in which genes controlling the development of the anterior-posterior axis of Drosophila larvae are expressed?
A. gap genes, pair-rule genes, segment-polarity genes, maternal-effect genes
B. pair-rule genes, maternal-effect genes, segment-polarity genes, gap genes
C. maternal-effect genes, gap genes, pair-rule genes, segment-polarity genes
D. maternal-effect genes, segment-polarity genes, pair-rule genes, gap genes
E. maternal-effect genes, gap genes, segment-polarity genes, pair-rule genes
During vulval development in the roundworm Caenorhabditis elegans, the progenitor cell that is closest to the anchor cell:
A. receives the largest dose of EGF.
B. induces the adjacent cells to differentiate into Type 2 cells.
C. activates genes for differentiation into a Type 1 cell.
D. prevents the adjacent cells from differentiating into a Type 1 cell.
E. All of these choices are correct.
Which of the following correctly pairs a germ layer with the cells that will form from it?
A. ectoderm: inner layer of the skin, muscles
B. mesoderm: lining of the digestive tract and lungs
C. mesoderm: inner layer of the skin, muscles
D. endoderm: epithelial and pigment cells of the skin
E. ectoderm: lining of the digestive tract and lungs
Remember that, in Mendel's garden peas, the yellow gene determines flower color, with the A (yellow) allele dominant to the a (green) allele. In a population of 200 plants, the genotype frequencies are 50% AA, 25% Aa, and 25% aa. What are the allele frequencies?
A. 75% A, 25% a
B. 87.5% A, 12.5% a
C. 50% A, 25% a
D. 50% A, 50% a
E. 62.5% A, 37.5% a
In a population of Mendel's garden peas, the frequency of the dominant A (yellow flower) allele is 80%. Let p represent the frequency of the A allele and q represent the frequency of the a allele. Assuming that the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what are the genotype frequencies?
A. 16% AA, 40% Aa, 44% aa
B. 75% AA, 15% Aa, 10% aa
C. 50% AA, 25% Aa, 25% aa
D. 64% AA, 32% Aa, 4% aa
E. 80% AA, 10% Aa, 10% aa
Examine Figure 21.14. If you wanted to use a molecular clock to date a relatively recent divergence event―say, one that occurred in the last 100 million years or so―which of the four types of genes would make the best clock? Why?
A. Fibrinopeptides, because they have changed relatively little over that time.
B. Hemoglobin, because of its moderate rate of change.
C. A histone gene, because it has changed relatively little over that time.
D. Fibrinopeptides, because they have changed the most over that time period.
E. A histone gene, because it has changed the most over that time period.
The non-adaptive mechanisms of evolutionary change are:
A. migration (gene flow), sexual selection, and genetic drift.
B. migration (gene flow), mutation, and genetic drift.
C. mutation, sexual selection, and genetic drift.
D. migration (gene flow), balancing selection, and genetic drift.
E. mutation, genetic drift, and heterozygote advantage.
What does it mean to say that an allele is "fixed" in the population?
A. It has been repaired by typical mechanisms in the cell.
B. It is an indication of no genetic variation at that locus in the population.
C. It is an indication of high genetic variation at that locus in the population.
D. It is an indication that locus cannot undergo mutation.
E. It is an indication of low genetic variation at that locus in the population.
Natural selection that increases the frequency of a favorable allele is called ____________.
A. positive selection
B. sexual selection
C. balancing selection
The phrase "Modern Synthesis" refers to:
A. the synthesis of Darwin's ideas about evolution with Malthus' ideas about population growth.
B. the synthesis of Darwin's and Wallace's independently developed ideas about natural selection and adaptation.
C. the synthesis of Darwin's ideas about natural selection and Mendelian genetics.
D. All of the answer options are correct.
E. the synthesis of Darwin's ideas about natural selection and modern DNA sequencing technology.
Both Charles Darwin and Alfred Russel Wallace acknowledged the influence of the economist Thomas Malthus in the development of their ideas about natural selection. Specifically, Malthus' ideas about geometric population growth implied that:
A. all of the answer options are correct.
B. organisms should have a few, very fit offspring who can compete for scarce resources.
C. only the largest and strongest individuals would survive.
D. resources in every generation would be limited, so individuals in every generation would have to compete for those resources.
E. organisms should have as many offspring as possible.
In a population of Mendel's garden peas, the frequency of green flowered plants (genotype aa) is 49%. The population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. What are the frequencies of the AA and Aa genotypes?
A. 49% AA, 2% Aa
B. Can't determine from this information.
C. 42% AA, 9% Aa
D. 33% AA, 18% Aa
E. 9% AA, 42% Aa
In general, sympatric speciation requires the action of ____________ selection acting against hybrids.
If speciation occurred because of changes in chromosome counts between the original parents and the offspring, would this be an example of speciation by natural selection?
A. No. Speciation occurred, but natural selection was not involved.
B. Yes, because natural selection is involved whenever there is a difference in the genome size between the parents (species 1) and the offspring (species 2).
C. No. Natural selection can only act on populations, not on individuals.
D. Yes, because there is genetic variation present due to differences in chromosome numbers.
E. Yes, because all speciation events involve natural selection.
You are studying reproduction in a species of frog. Say there was a mistake in meiosis such that all the gametes produced by two individuals are diploid rather than haploid. Two of these gametes fuse. This zygote is:
Biochemical systems within the stigma of a flowering plant prevent the pollen from a different species from developing a pollen tube and fertilizing its eggs. This is an example of what kind of reproductive isolation?
A. post-zygotic, ecological separation
B. pre-zygotic, temporal separation
C. pre-zygotic, behavioral isolation
D. pre-zygotic, lock and key
E. post-zygotic, temporal separation
Instantaneous speciation: (select all correct choices)
A. often involves the multiplication of chromosome sets, or polyploidy.
B. is, by definition, a type of sympatric speciation.
C. is typically caused when hybridization between species produces fertile, viable offspring that are reproductively isolated from both parental species.
D. none of these
E. is relatively common in plants but not in animals.
A, B, C, and E
Ring species such as the greenish warbler complicate the biological species concept because:
A. at least some of their populations overlap spatially, but individuals in those populations do not interbreed with one another.
B. none of these
C. ring species comprise populations that are in the process of allopatric speciation.
D. at least some of their populations are reproductively isolated from one another but can still exchange genetic material.
E. individuals in at least some populations interbreed with individuals from other species.
All else being equal, selection should more strongly favor reinforcement of reproductive isolation among related species:
A. in allopatric populations over sympatric populations.
B. in peripatric populations over allopatric populations.
C. in peripatric populations over sympatric populations.
D. in allopatric populations over peripatric populations.
E. in sympatric populations over allopatric populations.
The extinction of the ____________ during the end-Cretaceous mass extinction allowed mammals to diversify through the process of ____________.
A. dinosaurs; adaptive radiation
B. dinosaurs; peripatric speciation
C. cephalopods; adaptive radiation
D. ammonites; adaptive radiation
E. ammonites; peripatric speciation
How can fossils provide evidence for macroevolutionary processes, such as the divergence of two species from a common ancestor?
A. by providing a complete record of the history of life
B. by preserving the bones, rather than the soft parts of ancient organisms
C. by exhibiting some features of ancestral organisms and some features of more derived organisms
D. by preserving a large number of organisms present in one place and one time, as is seen in Messel Shale
To conduct a phylogenetic analysis, we need an out group to:
A. determine which character states are ancestral and which are derived.
B. determine which characteristics to include in our analysis.
C. decide which molecular data to use.
D. All of the answer options are correct.
E. decide which characters are analogous and which are homologous.
Characters that are similar because of descent from a common ancestor are ____________; characters that are similar due to convergent evolution are ____________.
A. homologous; analogous
B. analogous; homologous
How do mass extinction events influence subsequent species composition and diversity?
A. by permanently altering climate
B. by immediately increasing species diversity
C. by reducing competition among surviving organisms
D. by eliminating smaller organisms instead of larger organisms
Our species, H. sapiens, derived from:
A. H. ergaster/H. erectus.
B. H. floriensis.
C. H. rudolfensis.
D. H. neanderthalensis.
E. H. habilis.
Why do African populations of humans have higher levels of genetic variation compared to non-African populations?
A. Humans originated in Africa, and subsequent migrations resulted in populations seeded by small groups with relatively small amounts of variation.
B. Numerous migrations to Africa throughout early human history has increased genetic diversity there.
C. Because African populations show strong patterns of assortative mating.
D. High levels of UV radiation in equatorial regions of the world have increased levels of genetic mutations in Africa.
Why do we only see Neanderthal input in non-African genomes?
A. Only mtDNA can be inherited.
B. Neanderthals were adapted to a cold European climate.
C. Neanderthals never interbred with Homo sapiens in Africa.
D. Only Y chromosome DNA can be inherited.
Human language differs from language in nonhuman animals in that: (select all that apply)
A. human infants strive to learn grammatical language and nonhuman animals don't.
B. humans understand metaphor and nonhuman animals don't.
C. None of these accurately describe differences between human and non-human language.
D. human language is more complex than is nonhuman language.
E. only human language includes distinct words―specific sets of sounds that can identify specific objects in the environment.
A, B, D, and E
According to the multiregional hypothesis of human origins, modern H. sapiens evolved via ____________ from ____________ of H. ergaster.
A. adaptive radiation; a single Old World population
B. parallel evolution; multiple Old World populations
C. peripatric speciation; a single Old World population
D. allopatric speciation; a single Old World population
E. convergent evolution; multiple Old World populations
Interbreeding between Neanderthals and modern H. sapiens likely took place in ____________ around ____________ years ago, before H. sapiens spread around the world.
A. the Middle East; 200,000
B. the Middle East; 1.4 million
C. Africa; 60,000
D. Africa; 200,000
E. the Middle East; 60,000
You inherited from your mom both her crooked nose and her recipe for chocolate chip cookies (both favorable traits). Which trait will be spread more quickly through the population?
A. the recipe because it can be passed on to all relatives
B. the nose because it is a genetically based trait
C. the recipe because it is a genetically based trait
D. It depends on if you are male or female.
E. the nose because it can be passed on to all relatives
F. They are both advantageous traits and spread at the same rate.
According to the most recent genetic analyses, approximately ____________% of the genome of every non-African is derived from Neanderthals.
The neoteny hypothesis is supported by which of the following characteristics? Select all that apply.
A. a foramen magnum positioned at the base of the skull
B. None of the above.
C. large heads
D. relative hairlessness
E. relatively flat faces and small noses
A, C, D, and E
Although we must be cautious about oversimplifying, when visible traits are markedly different among human races, a likely explanation is that the differences have been favored by:
A. diversifying selection and/or stabilizing selection.
B. sympatric selection and/or sexual selection.
C. disruptive selection and/or natural selection.
D. allopatric speciation and/or sexual selection.
E. natural selection and/or sexual selection.
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