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What is the rationale for vomiting with increased intracranial pressure?
Pressure on the emetic center in the medulla
Which of the following statements is TRUE about malignant brain tumors?
Primary brain tumors rarely metastasize outside of the CNS
All of the following apply to CVA EXCEPT:
Maximum necrosis and infarction develop within several hours of onset
Which of the following statements about berry aneurysms in the brain is NOT true?
Rupture causes signs of circulatory shock
What are the significant signs of acute bacterial meningitis?
severe headache, nuchal rigidity, and photophobia
All of the following apply to tetanus infection EXCEPT:
Signs of infection include fever, vomiting, stiff neck, and paralysis
In cases of Guillain-Barré syndrome, what does the pathophysiology include?
inflammation and demyelination of peripheral nerves, leading to ascending paralysis
How does a depressed skull fracture cause brain damage?
A section of skull bone is displaced below the level of the skull, causing pressure on the brain.
13. Following an injury at L2 to L3, what would indicate recovery from spinal shock?
15. Which statement best describes herniation resulting from increased intracranial pressure?
displacement of brain tissue downward toward the spinal cord
17. What are the significant early signs of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm?
severe headache, nuchal rigidity, and photophobia
18. With regard to meningitis, choose the correct combination of microbe and the age group commonly affected.
N. meningitides: children and youth
19. Which statement applies to Huntington's disease? It:
presents with choreiform movements in the upper body and decreased ability to concentrate
20. Common manifestations of rabies infection include:
headache, foaming at the mouth, and difficulty swallowing
21. Herpes zoster can be identified by a typical:
unilateral rash and pain along a cranial nerve or dermatome
23. In cases of noncommunicating hydrocephalus, why does excess cerebrospinal fluid accumulate?
An obstruction is present in the aqueduct of Sylvius or other channel.
24. The best description of a myelomeningocele is:
herniation of the meninges, CSF, and spinal cord or nerves through a vertebral defect
25. How is the presence of spina bifida diagnosed?
prenatally by ultrasound or detection of AFP in maternal blood or amniotic fluid
26. Which of the following applies to cerebral palsy?
nonprogressive brain damage to the fetus or neonate
27. Which of the following is characteristic of generalized seizures?
the uncontrolled discharge of neurons in both hemispheres
28. Which statement does NOT apply to the pathophysiology of multiple sclerosis?
progressive random degeneration of peripheral nerves
29. Which of the following are common early manifestations of Parkinson's disease?
tremors at rest in the hands and difficulty initiating voluntary movements
30. In which type of neuron is progressive degeneration occurring with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)?
upper and lower motor neurons
3. Which of the following indicates hypoglycemia in a diabetic?
staggering gait, disorientation, and confusion
4. Visual impairment may develop in diabetics, primarily because of:
abnormal metabolism in the lens
Which of the following may cause goiter?
3. lack of iodine in the diet
1, 2, 3
11. Characteristics of Cushing's syndrome include all of the following EXCEPT:
staring eyes with infrequent blinking
12. Which of the following is an effect of long-term glucocorticoid therapy?
decreased secretion from the adrenal cortex gland
13. Why does glucosuria occur in diabetics?
The amount of glucose in the filtrate exceeds the renal tubule transport limit.
15. What is the recommended treatment for insulin shock if the patient remains conscious?
oral administration of concentrated glucose
17. Differences between Type I and Type II diabetes include:
Type 1 diabetes occurs more frequently in children and adolescents, and Type II diabetes occurs more often in adults
18. Which of the following often causes hyperparathyroidism?
radiation involving the thyroid gland and neck area
20. A benign tumor of the adrenal medulla that secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine is called:
5. Which of the following is characteristic of osteoarthritis?
Degeneration of articulating cartilage occurs in the large joints.
6. What is the typical joint involvement with rheumatoid arthritis?
bilateral small joints, symmetrical progression to other joints
7. What is a common effect of long-term use of glucocorticoids to treat rheumatoid arthritis?
8. Which of the following distinguishes septic arthritis?
purulent synovial fluid present in a single, swollen joint
9. Which of the following may precipitate an attack of gout?
a sudden increase in serum uric acid levels
10. What is a common outcome of fibrosis, calcification, and fusion of the spine in ankylosing spondylitis?
rigidity, postural changes, and osteoporosis
11. What is the likely immediate result of fat emboli from a broken femur?
pulmonary inflammation and obstruction
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