How can we help?

You can also find more resources in our Help Center.

144 terms

Clinical Lab Block 3

Blood banking
STUDY
PLAY
blood banking is regulated by...
FDA
blood is classified as a...
drug
goals of the FDA in blood banking are...
safety for blood supply, donor, recipient, hc workers
GMPs are...
good manufacturing practices
donating blood for donor's own use...
autologous
community donation, unknown donor and recipient is...
allogenic donation
donation for a specific recipient is...
directed donation
apheresis donation is...
automated collection procedure where blood is separated, centrifuged, and the remainder is returned to donor
blood is collected (before separation into components) as...
whole blood
packed RBCs are known as...
packed RBCs
components are...
parts that are separated out from blood
a sterile system of blood collection is...
closed system
open system is...
when collection is exposed to air - decreasing expiration date
apheresis platelet is also known as...
single donor platelets
physical assessment for blood donation includes...
arm check, age (16 or 17), weight (110+), temp (99.5), Hg (12.5+), BP <180/100, pulse 50-100 (45 - athlete)
autolous donations have relaxed requirements...
Hg - 11, weight >100, no age requirement (over 75 - MD clearance)
individuals disqualified from donation is called...
deferral (temporary or permanent)
infectious diseases tested for at blood donation include...
HBV, HCV, HIV, RPR (Syphilis), NAT (nucleic acid amplification testing for HIV), Trypsinoma cruzi, West Nile
people who need fibrinogen (and fibrin blue) are given...
cryoprecipitate
% of RBCs compared to the total volume is...
hematocrit
anemia - inadequate producrion is...
aplastic
excessive breakdown anemia is...
hemolytic
lack of sufficient iron is...
iron deficiency anemia
abnormal Hg anemia is...
sickle cell
one unit of RBC can raise pt hematocrit by...
3%
plasma can be stored frozen for...
1 year
plasma exchange is done by...
aphoresis
cryoprecipitate is...
cold insoluble portion of FFP
primary immune response includes...
IgM
secondary immune response includes...
IgG
father of blood banking is...
Karl Landsteiner
what happens when we mix group ABO groups with the wrong ones?
agglutination (climping) - dangerous clinical consequences
ABO groups are unique, having...
codominant expression
antigens in ABO groups represent...
sugar expressed on the genes
phenotype is...
genes expressed on the red cell
genotype is...
specific genes inheritted
4 A's of specimen collection are...
appropriate, adequate, aseptic, before antibiotics
lab should be notified of a dog or cat bite/ scratch to look out for...
pasturella (& Bartonella henselae)
which disease should be tested for in a patient who was in Mexico eating oysters?
vibrio
which stage of disease will the virus be greatest in number?
onset
a procedure where a tube is placed down the throat w another one inside it to avoid contamination of normal flora is...
doublelumen bronchoscopy
how would one release the media into a culturette tube?
crush the ampule (c = crush)
how would we release media into a pledgett?
push all the way down (p=push)
for specimens that are aerobes, which tubes do we use?
plastic (breathes)
anaerobes (pathogens) require which type of tube?
glass tube to keep out the oxygen
which immunoglobulin type reacts in Rh rxns?
IgG
Rh allantibodies can lead to...
transfusion rxn, hemolytic disease of the newborn
O bloodtype is representative of which gene?
H gene
antigens are expressed on...
red cells
antibodies are found in...
plasma
which blood groups can AB receive from?
All
which groups can O type receive donations from?
only O
how does an Rh (-) mom create antibodies against Rh?
she is exposed to Rh antigens in a previous pregnancy
explain IAT - indirect antiglobulin test (indirect Coombs test)...
detects RBCs sensitized with IgG antibodies in vitro
what is the DAT - direct antiglobulin test (direct Coombs test)?
it detectd RBCs sensitized w IgG antibody in vivo
the antigen referred to as Rh- is the...
D (big D)
Rh immune globulin is given to expecting women when?
28 weeks gestation, 72 hours postpartum, and in case of trauma, ectopic pregnancy, amneocentesis, abortion, misscariage
risk to the fetus in HDFN - hemolytic disease of fetus and newborn is...
cardiac failure due to uncompensated anemia
what happens to billirubin that is usually metabolized by the mother which accumulates in newborn (in HDFN) after birth?
Newborn can't metabolize it (missing glycuronyl transferase) so it binds to albumin and forms jaundice > deafness, menatl retardation, kernicterus, eventually could cause brain damage and death
at what levels of billirubin do we take action?
at 15 we get blood ready for transfusion - probably use Billy-lights (phototherapy) - 20 is critical #
most severe Rh antibody reaction (HDFN) is from...
Anti-D
RhIG (Rhogam) is given to Rh- mom to...
prevent mom from making Anti-D antidodies to baby's D+ fetal cells
standard blood bank tests done at birth on baby (cord blood) - (forward typing) include...
ABO/Rh, DAT, chemistry - Billirubin
What does the DAT show?
if there is any blood antigen-antibody rxn - will be HDFN
describe an amniocentesis...
ultrasound guided test where amniotic fluid is obtained from insertion of needle through mom's abdominal wall, ans uterus and extract from amniotic sac
what does the amniocentesis show about HDFN?
fluid is measured spectrophotometrically - observing levels of billirubin to measure RBC destruction
Liley graph is used to...
predict severity of HDFN during pregnancy by evaluating amniotic fluid
how does the Liley graph measure?
at 450 wavelength it measures the change in level - Billirubin bulge
Which zones in Liley graph are worse?
higher #s - zone IV (higher level III) is the worst
in severe cases of HDFN what might be done?
intrauterine transfusion
if early labor is induced, what must be checked?
FLM - fetal lung maturity
hospital blood bank is also known as...
transfusion service
a sample of pleural fluid or CSF contains a minute amount of bacterial infection - is this significant?
yes b/c there should not be any bacteria in these fluids (so we use sterile containers to collect these specimens)
what sort of collection kits are used for parasitology?
O&P, formalin, PVA
the parasite enterobius vermicularis is known as...
pinworm
how do we collect pinworm specimen?
not stool - use scotch tape method or pinworm paddle
genital cultures can be transported with...
transport swabs, jembec plates, DNA probes for N. Gonorrhea and Chlamydia
describe Staph aureus histologically...
gram + clusters of cocci/ catalase and coagulase +
where is the Staph aureus carried in a human?
nasal cavity
T or F staph epidermitis is normal flora and safe...
False - it is normal flora, but is opportunistic and can lead to infection
what is significance of staph saprophyticus?
community acquired uti in young women - aside from E. coli (second most common)
differentiate between staph epidermitis and saprophyticus...
staph sapro is resistant to novobiocin, s epidermitis isn't
what dangerous form can group A strep (pyogenes) cause?
necrotizing fasciitis
what is the danger of strep b - strep agalactiae?
neonatal meningitis (colonized in vagina - can transfer to fetus in delivery)
enterococcus faecalis is..
normal bacteria in stool - can cause UTI or biliary tract infection, endocarditis
strep pneumoniae...
lancet shaped diplococci - cause pneumonia upper resp - can lead to meningitis
strep mutans - viridans - are a problem when?
MVP - dental carries
niesseriae meningitidis...
gram (-) kidney bean - can cause meningitis - spreads by resp droplets
n. gonorrhea...
gonorrhea and baby can get conjuctivitis during delivery
bacillus anthracis - anthrax is...
gram + spore forming bacilli; habitat is soil; transmission - sharing wool, bio terrorism agent
bacillus cereus is...
food poisoning - rice sitting for too long - gram + bacilli
Clostridium tetani is...
anaerobic, spore-forming rods, habitat is soilenters through trauma to skin, vaccines (boosters 10 yrs)
clostridium botulinum is...
botulism - anaerobic spore formers, habitat - soil, improperly preserved food (canned) - potential bioterror
clostridium perfingens...
food poisoning
clostridium difficle...
normal flora SI, but if active produces toxins; pseudomembranous colitis - AB wipes out normal flora and this goes wild
cornybacterium diptheriae...
diptheria - can be fatal - resp occlussion - vaccines are highly successful
listeria monocytogenes...
food poisoned, can become meningitis and fatal, transmits across placenta in delivery - gram + rod
E. coli...
gram - rods, UTI, sepsis, traveler's diarrhea, habitat in human colo, transmits to neonate at birth - meningitis
salmonella typhi...
gram - rods, food poisoning - fecal-oral route, raw meat, eggs
shigella...
gram - rods, causes dysentery (troops in poor conditions) - no animal carriers
vibrio cholerae...
gram - rods, can cause dehydration - deadly
vibrio parahemolyticus and vulnificus...
gram - rods, watery diarrhea, eating contaminated raw seafood
campylobacter jejuni...
food poisoning
h. pylori...
peptic ulcers - gastric duodenitis (can lead to cancer - GI) if untreated
klebsiella pneumoniae...
gram - rods, normal flora, but can cause resp and UTI
serratia marcescens...
hospital acquired - normal flora
Proteus vulgaris...
UTI, sepsis
Pseudomonas aeruginosa...
gram - rods, wound infections, UTI, nosocomial - burns, cystic fibrosis
bacteroides fragilis...
normal stool flora, can cause sepsis, pertonitis, abdominal abscess
haemophilus influenzae...
gram - cocobacili - resp issues
bordatella pertusis...
whooping cough
legionella pneumophilia...
waterborne disease - air vents - aerosol
brucella...
small gram (-) rods, brucellosis - undulent fever - potential bioterrorism agent
francisella tularensis...
very deadly - tuleremia from rabbits, deer, rodents - caution handling - bioterror
pasturella multocida...
cat or dog bite, cellulitis
yersinia pestis...
the plague bubonic and pneumonic - wild rodents, prarie dogs, rats - flea bite, bio-terror
how long can you store platelets?
5 days
what is cryoprecipitated anti-hemolytic factor (cyro) used for?
fibrinogen deficiency and fibrin glue
which antibody is anamnestic - has remembering response?
IgG (secondary response)
which antibody comes in first response?
IgM
what kind of replacement transfusion would you give to a burn victim?
FFP
which rxn is faster - precipitation or agglutination?
agglutination
what is ELISA and how does it work?
A sensitive immunoassay that uses an enzyme linked to an antibody or antigen as a marker for the detection of a specific protein, especially an antigen or antibody
what does a titer measure?
agglutination rxn - with serial dilution of antibody: the titer is the highest dilution showing agglutination
main causative agent of chronic fatigue syndrome is...
Epstein Barr virus - EBV
Sx of EBV include...
fever, sore throat, enlarged lymph nodes and tonsils, spenomegaly, hepatomegaly, elevated LFTs
decreased levels of which hormone in early pregnancy indicate inadequate development of fetus and inreases incidence of spontaneous abortion?
HCG
what info can be gleaned from HCG assays?
confirmed pregnancy, ectopic p, threat of spontaneous abortion, diagnosis of various tumors (& follow of treatment)
which form of Hepatitis is likely to present with fever and malaise?
HBV
which test is an advance marker (often years in advance) of risk for heart disease and MI?
C-reactive proteins
treatments for AIDS include...
protease inhibitors, fusion inhibitors, nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
lyme disease is caused by...
borrelia burgdorferi
lyme disease is transmitted by...
deer tick
cold agglutinins are used to diagnose...
primary atypical (walking) pneumonia
a motile amoebae producing diarrhea and dehydration, contracted through drinking contaminated spring - mountain water is...
giarida lamblia
hx of swimming in a lake, infected with meningoencephalitis could be from...
nigleria fowleri (motile amoebae)
common STD - vaginal discharge is...
trichamonas
diabetic w necrotic foot may have which infection?
clostridium perfingens
members of which sex can be diagnose w N gonorrhea by gram stain alone?
males
which patients with salmonella would be treated with AB?
children, elderly, immunocompromised
why would we isolate a pt positive for toxins of clostridium difficile?
spore former
which bacteria is a major concern in a pregnant female w gram + chains - even low amount?
strep agalactae
is a finding of lactobacillus in urine significant?
no - it belongs (normal flora) in vaginal tract - got mixed up
a very low amnt of bacteria found in CSF or pleural fluid - is it significant?
yes - should be 100% sterile